I85PREP
⌘ K
PSEB SS Political Science study materials
PSEB SS Political Science study resources

PSEB SS Political Science practice questions

One question at a time. Build your PSEB SS Political Science understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Political Science (Senior Secondary)

The PSEB Senior Secondary Political Science course introduces students to the Indian Constitution. Which body was responsible for drafting the Constitution of India?

  1. The Parliament of India
  2. The Planning Commission
  3. The Constituent Assembly Correct answer.
  4. The Supreme Court of India

Explanation

The Constitution of India was framed by a Constituent Assembly whose members deliberated between 1946 and 1949. Parliament came into existence only after the Constitution took effect on 26 January 1950, so it could not have drafted the document.

Question 2Political Science (Senior Secondary)

In the Indian federal system, which of the following subjects is placed in the Union List?

  1. Agriculture and irrigation
  2. Local self-government
  3. Defence and foreign affairs Correct answer.
  4. Police and public order

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule divides powers between the Union and the states. Defence, foreign affairs, currency and railways are Union List subjects because they require uniform national handling. Police, agriculture and local government fall in the State List.

Question 3Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A political scientist argues that a government can be elected by a majority of seats while winning fewer votes overall. Which feature of the first-past-the-post system explains this outcome?

  1. Proportional allocation of seats to vote share
  2. Compulsory voting by all registered citizens
  3. A single round of voting with no minimum majority Correct answer.
  4. Reserved seats for minority communities

Explanation

In first-past-the-post, the candidate with the most votes in a constituency wins even without an absolute majority. Small pluralities across many seats can therefore translate into a legislative majority on a minority of the national vote. Proportional systems, by contrast, allocate seats in line with vote share.

Question 4Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Under the Indian Constitution, which of the following is a Fundamental Duty rather than a Fundamental Right?

  1. Right to equality before the law
  2. Duty to protect the natural environment Correct answer.
  3. Right to constitutional remedies
  4. Right to freedom of religion

Explanation

Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 and are listed in Article 51A. They include protecting the environment, safeguarding public property and promoting harmony. Fundamental Rights, by contrast, are enforceable in courts under Part III.

Question 5Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament is sent to the President of India. Which power can the President exercise in relation to an ordinary bill?

  1. Refer it to the Election Commission
  2. Return it once for reconsideration Correct answer.
  3. Reject it permanently without any further process
  4. Amend it directly before assent

Explanation

For an ordinary bill, the President may grant assent, withhold assent, or return it once for reconsideration. If Parliament passes the bill again, the President is bound to give assent. This makes the returning power a delaying and advisory device rather than an absolute veto.

Question 6Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best describes the concept of popular sovereignty?

  1. Judges have the final say on policy
  2. The monarch rules by divine right
  3. Power is shared equally by all states
  4. Supreme authority rests with the people Correct answer.

Explanation

Popular sovereignty means that the ultimate source of political authority is the people, who express it through elections and consent. It is a founding principle of the Indian Constitution, whose Preamble begins with 'We, the People of India'. Divine right and judicial supremacy are different and incompatible principles.

Question 7Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A state government wishes to legislate on a Concurrent List subject. Which statement correctly describes the constitutional position?

  1. Only Parliament may legislate on Concurrent subjects
  2. The Governor decides which legislature may act
  3. Only the state legislature may legislate on these subjects
  4. Both Parliament and state legislatures may legislate, with Union law prevailing in case of conflict Correct answer.

Explanation

The Concurrent List allows both Parliament and state legislatures to make laws on subjects such as education and criminal law. Article 254 provides that if the two conflict, the Union law prevails, unless the state law has received presidential assent.

Question 8Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

  1. Article 19
  2. Article 32 Correct answer.
  3. Article 14
  4. Article 44

Explanation

Article 32 gives citizens the right to approach the Supreme Court directly by writ for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, which is why it is called the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution. Articles 14 and 19 list substantive rights, while Article 44 concerns a uniform civil code.

Question 9Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A candidate wants to contest a Lok Sabha election. Which of the following is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution?

  1. 35 years
  2. 21 years
  3. 30 years
  4. 25 years Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 84 requires a person to be at least 25 years old to be a member of the Lok Sabha. The age of 30 applies to the Rajya Sabha, and 35 is the minimum age for the offices of President and Vice-President.

Question 10Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is the main function of the Election Commission of India?

  1. Passing laws on electoral malpractices
  2. Conducting and supervising elections to Parliament and state legislatures Correct answer.
  3. Deciding the policies of political parties
  4. Appointing the Chief Justice of India

Explanation

The Election Commission is a constitutional body under Article 324 responsible for superintending, directing and controlling elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. It implements laws made by Parliament rather than making them.

Question 11Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following statements about the Rajya Sabha is correct?

  1. It has no role in the passage of money bills
  2. It is a permanent house that is never dissolved as a whole Correct answer.
  3. Its members are nominated only by the President
  4. It is directly elected by the people every five years

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber; one-third of its members retire every two years, so the House is never dissolved as a whole. It cannot be compared to the Lok Sabha, which is dissolved at the end of its term or earlier.

Question 12Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A law is challenged on the ground that it violates a Fundamental Right. Which doctrine allows the Supreme Court to examine the law and declare it invalid?

  1. Judicial review Correct answer.
  2. Judicial activism
  3. Doctrine of pleasure
  4. Collective responsibility

Explanation

Judicial review is the power of courts to examine legislative and executive action against the Constitution and to strike it down if it is inconsistent. Articles 13, 32 and 226 provide the basis for this power. Judicial activism refers to a more proactive judicial posture, not the doctrine of invalidation itself.

Question 13Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy in the Indian Constitution?

  1. Right to education for children aged six to fourteen
  2. Right to property
  3. Freedom of speech and expression
  4. Promotion of international peace and security Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 51 directs the state to promote international peace and security and to maintain just and honourable relations between nations. Directive Principles are not enforceable in courts but guide state policy. The right to education and freedom of speech are Fundamental Rights, and the right to property was removed from that chapter in 1978.

Question 14Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A political party wins a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. Which principle requires its Council of Ministers to remain answerable to the House for its decisions?

  1. Federal supremacy
  2. Collective responsibility Correct answer.
  3. Separation of the judiciary
  4. Judicial independence

Explanation

Collective responsibility, embodied in Article 75(3), means the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The government must retain the confidence of the House and resign if it loses a no-confidence motion.

Question 15Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best explains why India adopted universal adult franchise from the very first general election in 1952?

  1. Only taxpayers were considered competent to vote
  2. The Constitution committed to political equality for all adults Correct answer.
  3. Literacy was already universal across the country
  4. Property qualifications were retained for some voters

Explanation

The Constitution adopted the principle of one person, one vote for all citizens aged 21 and above, later reduced to 18 by the 61st Amendment. This was a deliberate choice not to link the vote to literacy, property or tax payment, unlike several older democracies.

Question 16Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a feature of a parliamentary form of government as practised in India?

  1. Ministers cannot be members of the legislature
  2. The executive is chosen for a fixed term and cannot be removed
  3. The real executive is drawn from and accountable to the legislature Correct answer.
  4. The head of state exercises all executive power personally

Explanation

In a parliamentary system the real executive, the Council of Ministers, is drawn from the legislature and remains accountable to it. The head of state, the President, is largely a constitutional figurehead who acts on ministerial advice.

Question 17Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a key difference between a federal and a unitary constitution?

  1. In a federation, powers are divided between two levels of government protected by the constitution Correct answer.
  2. In a federation, the central government can abolish states at will
  3. In a unitary system, the constitution is always written
  4. In a unitary system, local governments can never exist

Explanation

Federalism involves a constitutional division of powers between the national and regional governments, each supreme in its own sphere. A unitary constitution concentrates authority at the centre, though it may still create local bodies for administration.

Question 18Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following describes the role of the Governor of a state?

  1. The political head of the state government who runs the administration
  2. The constitutional head of the state who acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers Correct answer.
  3. The leader of the majority party in the state legislature
  4. The presiding officer of the state legislative assembly

Explanation

The Governor is the constitutional head of the state, appointed by the President, and normally acts on the advice of the state Council of Ministers. Real executive authority rests with the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.

Question 19Political Science (Senior Secondary)

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. Which amendment added the words 'socialist' and 'secular'?

  1. The 42nd Amendment Correct answer.
  2. The 44th Amendment
  3. The 1st Amendment
  4. The 24th Amendment

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment, enacted in 1976 during the Emergency, inserted the words 'socialist' and 'secular' into the Preamble. It also added the words 'integrity' to the phrase about the unity of the nation. The 44th Amendment later reversed several other changes made by the 42nd.

Question 20Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A pressure group such as a farmers' association seeks to influence public policy. How does it differ from a political party?

  1. It nominates candidates for every constituency
  2. It must be registered with the Election Commission to exist
  3. It contests elections to form the government
  4. It seeks to influence policy without seeking to govern Correct answer.

Explanation

Pressure groups try to influence decision-makers and public opinion on specific issues but do not seek to form a government. Political parties, by contrast, contest elections with the aim of winning power and forming the government.

Question 21Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is an example of a civil liberty protected by the Indian Constitution?

  1. The right to a minimum wage
  2. The right to free treatment in a private hospital
  3. The right to assemble peacefully without arms Correct answer.
  4. The right to hold a government office

Explanation

Article 19(1)(b) protects the right to assemble peacefully and without arms as part of the freedom of speech and expression cluster. Civil liberties restrain the state from interfering with individual freedoms, while welfare entitlements such as minimum wages are different in nature.

Question 22Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best captures the meaning of secularism as adopted in the Indian Constitution?

  1. The state promotes one official religion
  2. The state funds only the majority religion
  3. The state has no religion of its own and treats all faiths equally Correct answer.
  4. The state bans religious practice in public life

Explanation

Indian secularism means the state has no religion of its own and does not discriminate among religions, while it may intervene to reform practices that violate rights. This differs from strict separation models in which the state keeps entirely away from religion.

Question 23Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in the passage of an ordinary bill in Parliament?

  1. Second reading, first reading, assent, third reading
  2. Third reading, second reading, first reading, assent
  3. Assent, first reading, second reading, third reading
  4. First reading, second reading, third reading, assent Correct answer.

Explanation

An ordinary bill is introduced in the first reading, debated and examined in the second reading, voted on in the third reading, then transmitted to the other House and finally sent for presidential assent. The order matters because each stage allows a distinct kind of scrutiny.

Question 24Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a function of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

  1. To fix the tax rates for the financial year
  2. To approve the expenditure of ministries
  3. To audit the accounts of the Union and state governments Correct answer.
  4. To prepare the Union Budget

Explanation

The CAG audits receipts and expenditure of the Union and states and reports to Parliament and state legislatures. This independent audit supports legislative control over public money. Preparing the Budget and approving expenditure are functions of the executive and legislature respectively.

Question 25Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A country holds regular elections, but one party wins every election and the media is tightly controlled by the government. Which conclusion best follows from the study of democracy?

  1. The country is a theocracy because the ruling party dominates
  2. The country is fully democratic because elections are held regularly
  3. The country is a federation because power is centralised
  4. Elections alone are insufficient; democracy also requires genuine competition and civil liberties Correct answer.

Explanation

Democracy is more than the holding of periodic elections; it requires real competition, freedom of expression, an independent media and protection of rights. A dominant party in a restricted environment suggests a hollow or procedural democracy rather than a substantive one.

Question 26Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Under the Indian Constitution, which body has the authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill?

  1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Correct answer.
  2. The Chief Justice of India
  3. The Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha
  4. The President of India

Explanation

Article 110 provides that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill, and that decision is final for the purposes of the Constitution. The Rajya Sabha cannot override this certification, though the President may seek the Speaker's view in limited circumstances.

Question 27Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which writ is issued by a court to a public authority commanding it to perform a duty that it has failed or refused to perform?

  1. Mandamus Correct answer.
  2. Certiorari
  3. Quo warranto
  4. Habeas corpus

Explanation

Mandamus literally means 'we command' and is used to compel a public official or body to carry out a legal duty that it has neglected. It cannot be issued against a private individual or to enforce a discretionary function.

Question 28Political Science (Senior Secondary)

The concept of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was laid down in which landmark case?

  1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  2. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  3. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 cannot be used to destroy the basic structure of the Constitution. Later cases such as Minerva Mills applied and expanded this doctrine.

Question 29Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a constitutional body rather than a statutory or executive body?

  1. NITI Aayog
  2. Central Bureau of Investigation
  3. Union Public Service Commission Correct answer.
  4. National Human Rights Commission

Explanation

The UPSC is established directly by Article 315 of the Constitution, making it a constitutional body. NITI Aayog is an executive creation, while the CBI and NHRC are established by statute.

Question 30Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A group of citizens in a state wants to propose a change in a state law directly rather than through their elected representatives. Which democratic device would allow them to vote on the proposed law themselves?

  1. Initiative Correct answer.
  2. Plebiscite
  3. Referendum
  4. Recall

Explanation

An initiative allows citizens to propose legislation themselves and have it decided by popular vote. A referendum, by contrast, refers an existing or proposed law passed by the legislature to the people for approval or rejection.

Question 31Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best describes the role of the Finance Commission of India?

  1. It audits the accounts of the Union and state governments.
  2. It recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the states. Correct answer.
  3. It sets the interest rates for borrowing by the Government of India.
  4. It prepares the annual Union Budget for presentation to Parliament.

Explanation

Article 280 requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to recommend how net tax proceeds should be shared between the Union and the states and how grants-in-aid should be given. It is a recommending body, not an implementing one.

Question 32Political Science (Senior Secondary)

In a federal system, which feature is most essential for the units to be genuinely autonomous?

  1. An upper house whose members are all nominated by the head of state
  2. A written constitution dividing powers between two levels of government Correct answer.
  3. A single national police force controlled by the centre
  4. A provision allowing the centre to dissolve state legislatures at will

Explanation

Federalism requires a written constitution that divides powers between the central and regional governments, so that each level has its own sphere of authority. Without a division of powers, regional autonomy cannot be guaranteed.

Question 33Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is an example of a 'concurrent' power in the Indian constitutional scheme?

  1. Criminal law and procedure Correct answer.
  2. Defence of India
  3. Foreign affairs
  4. Police and public order

Explanation

Criminal law and procedure are listed in the Concurrent List, meaning both Parliament and state legislatures can legislate on them, with Union law prevailing in case of conflict. Police and public order are State List subjects, while defence and foreign affairs are Union List subjects.

Question 34Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A bill passed by both Houses of Parliament is sent to the President. Which of the following actions can the President take with respect to an ordinary bill?

  1. Return it to the Houses for reconsideration with a message Correct answer.
  2. Refer it to the Supreme Court for advisory opinion
  3. Amend the bill directly before giving assent
  4. Reject it permanently without any further process

Explanation

Under Article 111, the President may assent, withhold assent, or return a non-Money bill to the Houses for reconsideration. If Parliament passes the bill again, the President must give assent.

Question 35Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best describes the doctrine of 'pleasure' in the context of the Indian civil services?

  1. Civil servants can be removed only after a formal impeachment by Parliament
  2. Civil servants enjoy tenure until the age of superannuation with no possibility of removal
  3. Civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President, but with constitutional safeguards against arbitrary dismissal Correct answer.
  4. Civil servants are appointed and removed solely by the state legislatures

Explanation

Article 310 states that members of the defence services and civil services hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor. Article 311, however, provides safeguards such as a hearing before dismissal, so the pleasure doctrine is not absolute.

Question 36Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is the primary function of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?

  1. To prepare the annual budget estimates for the Finance Ministry
  2. To appoint the Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. To approve the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court
  4. To examine the audit reports of the CAG and report on the expenditure of the government Correct answer.

Explanation

The Public Accounts Committee examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General and scrutinises whether public money has been spent as authorised by Parliament. It is a financial oversight committee of the legislature.

Question 37Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission is correct?

  1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 32.
  2. It has the power to punish contempt of its own authority like a court.
  3. It is a statutory body that inquires into complaints of human rights violations and recommends action. Correct answer.
  4. It can enforce its decisions through binding orders to state governments.

Explanation

The NHRC was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and its role is to inquire into complaints and recommend remedial action. It cannot itself enforce its recommendations or punish for contempt.

Question 38Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best explains the meaning of 'judicial review' in the Indian constitutional system?

  1. The power of Parliament to review judgments of the Supreme Court
  2. The power of courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive action Correct answer.
  3. The power of the President to review the conduct of judges
  4. The power of the Election Commission to review electoral laws

Explanation

Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to test whether laws and executive actions conform to the Constitution and to declare them invalid if they do not. It flows from Articles 13, 32 and 226.

Question 39Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A person is arrested and detained by the police. Which Fundamental Right most directly protects him against unlawful detention?

  1. Right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 Correct answer.
  2. Right to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a)
  3. Right to freedom of religion under Article 25
  4. Right to equality before law under Article 14

Explanation

Article 21 protects life and personal liberty, and courts have read into it the requirement of a fair and lawful procedure for arrest and detention. Article 22 additionally provides specific safeguards for arrested persons.

Question 40Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a correct description of the 'Rule of Law' as understood in Indian constitutionalism?

  1. The government may act outside the law in times of emergency
  2. The judiciary is subordinate to the executive in administrative matters
  3. The Constitution is supreme and all authorities, including the government, are subject to law Correct answer.
  4. Only Parliament is bound by the Constitution, not the executive

Explanation

The rule of law means that the Constitution and the law are supreme, and that no authority, including the government, is above the law. It also implies equality before the law and the availability of independent courts.

Question 41Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best describes the significance of the Preamble as interpreted by the Supreme Court?

  1. It is an operative provision that can override ordinary legislation
  2. It is a purely decorative text with no legal value
  3. It is part of the Constitution and aids interpretation, but is not a source of substantive power Correct answer.
  4. It is a statute that can be amended only by the states

Explanation

In the Berubari Union case the Court first held the Preamble was not part of the Constitution, but in Kesavananda Bharati it was held to be a part of the Constitution. It is not an independent source of power, but it assists in interpreting the Constitution and reflects its basic values.

Question 42Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a correct example of a 'quasi-federal' feature of the Indian Constitution?

  1. The Constitution can be amended only with the consent of all states
  2. The Union Parliament can legislate on state subjects under certain circumstances Correct answer.
  3. The states have their own separate currencies
  4. The states have an absolute right to secede from the Union

Explanation

India is described as quasi-federal because, while it has a division of powers, the Union can legislate on state subjects in situations such as a national emergency or when two or more states request it. This gives the centre a strong role.

Question 43Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is the main purpose of the anti-defection provisions in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. To prevent elected legislators from changing parties in a manner that undermines the mandate of the electorate Correct answer.
  2. To regulate the funding of political parties
  3. To fix the number of ministers in a state cabinet
  4. To determine the salaries of members of Parliament

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule disqualifies legislators who voluntarily give up membership of their party or vote against the party whip. Its purpose is to curb political instability caused by opportunistic defections.

Question 44Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A Panchayati Raj institution at the intermediate level in a state is generally known as which of the following?

  1. Gram Sabha
  2. Panchayat Samiti Correct answer.
  3. Zila Parishad
  4. Municipal Corporation

Explanation

In the three-tier Panchayati Raj structure, the intermediate level is the Panchayat Samiti (also called Mandal Parishad in some states), while the village level is the Gram Panchayat and the district level is the Zila Parishad.

Question 45Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best describes the concept of 'social justice' as reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. The state should guarantee equal property rights to all citizens regardless of merit
  2. The state should ensure that wealth and resources are distributed so as to prevent concentration and promote the welfare of the weaker sections Correct answer.
  3. The state should abolish all private property immediately
  4. The state should leave welfare entirely to market forces

Explanation

Directive Principles such as Articles 38 and 39 require the state to promote the welfare of the people and to prevent concentration of wealth and means of production. They embody social and economic justice rather than absolute equality of property.

Question 46Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is the correct description of the election of the President of India?

  1. Nominated by the Prime Minister and approved by the Supreme Court
  2. Directly elected by all adult citizens by secret ballot
  3. Elected by an electoral college of elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies through proportional representation by single transferable vote Correct answer.
  4. Elected by a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament by a simple majority

Explanation

Article 54 provides that the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and of the legislative assemblies of the states and certain Union Territories. The election uses the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

Question 47Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following statements about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is correct?

  1. The Speaker is appointed by the President and is not a member of the House
  2. The Speaker presides over the House, maintains order, and exercises a casting vote in case of a tie Correct answer.
  3. The Speaker must be a member of the ruling party at all times
  4. The Speaker can vote in the first instance like any other member

Explanation

The Speaker is elected by the House from among its members and presides over its proceedings, maintaining order and interpreting rules. The Speaker does not vote in the first instance but exercises a casting vote to break a tie.

Question 48Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution is described as a 'living document'?

  1. It is rewritten every ten years by a constitutional convention
  2. It can be amended only by a referendum of the people
  3. It contains a clause allowing Parliament to ignore any provision at will
  4. It has been amended and interpreted over time to meet changing social needs within the framework of the basic structure Correct answer.

Explanation

The Constitution is called a living document because its formal amendment procedures and judicial interpretation allow it to adapt to changing circumstances. However, the basic structure doctrine places limits on how far it can be changed.

Question 49Political Science (Senior Secondary)

A state legislature passes a law that conflicts with a central law on a Concurrent List subject. Which law prevails?

  1. Neither law, because the subject is concurrent
  2. The state law, because states have greater local knowledge
  3. The central law, unless the state law has received the President's assent and the conflict is resolved in its favour Correct answer.
  4. The law passed earlier in time, regardless of which level passed it

Explanation

Article 254 provides that in case of repugnancy on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails. A state law may prevail if it has been reserved for and received the President's assent, subject to the conditions in Article 254(2).

Question 50Political Science (Senior Secondary)

Which of the following is a correct statement about the office of the Governor of a state?

  1. The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President Correct answer.
  2. The Governor must be a resident of the state in which he is appointed
  3. The Governor is elected by the state legislature for a fixed term of five years
  4. The Governor is appointed by the Chief Justice of the state High Court

Explanation

Article 155 provides that the Governor is appointed by the President, and Article 156 states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, normally for five years. There is no requirement that the Governor be a resident of the state.