I85PREP
⌘ K
RBSE SS Voc Health Care study materials
RBSE SS Voc Health Care study resources

RBSE SS Voc Health Care practice questions

One question at a time. Build your RBSE SS Voc Health Care understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which level of structural organization is formed when two or more different types of tissue work together to perform a specific function?

  1. Tissue
  2. Cell
  3. Organ Correct answer.
  4. Organ system

Explanation

An organ is made of two or more tissue types arranged to carry out a particular function, such as the stomach combining epithelial, muscle, and nervous tissue. Cells are the basic living units, tissues are groups of similar cells, and organ systems are groups of organs working toward a shared goal.

Question 2Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient's blood pressure is recorded as 118/76 mm Hg. Which value represents the pressure exerted while the heart ventricles are contracting?

  1. 118 mm Hg Correct answer.
  2. 194 mm Hg
  3. 97 mm Hg
  4. 76 mm Hg

Explanation

The first (higher) number in a blood pressure reading is the systolic pressure, measured during ventricular contraction. The second number is diastolic pressure, recorded while the ventricles relax and refill.

Question 3Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which directional term correctly describes the position of the wrist relative to the elbow?

  1. Medial
  2. Superior
  3. Proximal
  4. Distal Correct answer.

Explanation

Distal means farther from the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk. The wrist lies farther along the arm than the elbow, so it is distal to the elbow.

Question 4Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which type of epithelial tissue is best suited for rapid diffusion of gases and is found lining the alveoli of the lungs?

  1. Transitional epithelium
  2. Simple columnar epithelium
  3. Simple squamous epithelium Correct answer.
  4. Stratified squamous epithelium

Explanation

Simple squamous epithelium is a single layer of flattened cells, giving the thinnest possible barrier for diffusion across the alveolar wall. Stratified and columnar epithelia are thicker, and transitional epithelium is specialized for stretching in the urinary tract.

Question 5Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which blood vessel type contains valves to prevent backflow and operates under the lowest pressure?

  1. Capillaries
  2. Arterioles
  3. Veins Correct answer.
  4. Arteries

Explanation

Veins carry blood back to the heart at low pressure, and many contain one-way valves that prevent backflow, aided by skeletal muscle contraction. Arteries and arterioles are high-pressure vessels without such valves, and capillaries are exchange vessels.

Question 6Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is admitted with dehydration. Which fluid compartment holds the largest proportion of total body water in a healthy adult?

  1. Interstitial fluid
  2. Intracellular fluid Correct answer.
  3. Plasma
  4. Transcellular fluid

Explanation

About two-thirds of total body water is intracellular fluid, making it the largest compartment. Extracellular fluid, including interstitial fluid, plasma, and transcellular fluid, accounts for roughly one-third.

Question 7Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which structure is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and forming urine?

  1. Villus
  2. Alveolus
  3. Hepatocyte
  4. Nephron Correct answer.

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, consisting of a renal corpuscle and a tubule that together filter plasma and modify the filtrate into urine. The other options belong to the lungs, liver, and small intestine.

Question 8Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which routine practice is most important for preventing the spread of infection between patients in a health care setting?

  1. Disinfecting floors every shift
  2. Performing hand hygiene before and after patient contact Correct answer.
  3. Wearing gloves at all times
  4. Changing uniforms daily

Explanation

Hand hygiene is the single most effective routine measure for breaking the chain of transmission between patients and is required before and after every patient contact. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene, and environmental cleaning, while important, is not the primary contact-based control.

Question 9Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

During which phase of the cardiac cycle do the atrioventricular valves close, producing the first heart sound?

  1. Ventricular filling
  2. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction Correct answer.
  3. Ventricular ejection
  4. Atrial systole

Explanation

The first heart sound occurs at the start of ventricular systole when rising ventricular pressure closes the atrioventricular (mitral and tricuspid) valves. This brief period before the semilunar valves open is isovolumetric contraction.

Question 10Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient hyperventilates and blows off excessive carbon dioxide. What change in blood pH is expected, and what term describes it?

  1. pH rises; metabolic acidosis
  2. pH falls; metabolic alkalosis
  3. pH rises; respiratory alkalosis Correct answer.
  4. pH falls; respiratory acidosis

Explanation

Carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid, so losing CO2 through hyperventilation reduces hydrogen ion concentration and raises pH. This is respiratory alkalosis because the primary change is in ventilation.

Question 11Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which muscle is the primary muscle of inspiration during quiet breathing?

  1. External intercostal muscles
  2. Diaphragm Correct answer.
  3. Rectus abdominis
  4. Internal intercostal muscles

Explanation

The diaphragm is the principal muscle of quiet inspiration; its contraction flattens the dome and increases thoracic volume, lowering intrathoracic pressure so air flows in. External intercostals assist, while internal intercostals and abdominal muscles are used in forced expiration.

Question 12Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which finding is most consistent with this injury?

  1. Inability to form new long-term memories
  2. Loss of conscious sensation on one side
  3. Loss of the ability to speak fluently
  4. Uncoordinated, clumsy voluntary movements Correct answer.

Explanation

The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, posture, and balance, so its damage produces ataxia, intention tremor, and clumsy movements. Conscious sensation, memory, and language are handled by other brain regions.

Question 13Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary and acts to increase water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidney?

  1. Insulin
  2. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  3. Atrial natriuretic peptide
  4. Aldosterone

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) is released from the posterior pituitary and increases the permeability of collecting ducts to water, concentrating urine. Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption, ANP promotes sodium loss, and insulin regulates glucose.

Question 14Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A health care worker is exposed to a splash of blood on intact skin. What is the appropriate immediate action?

  1. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water and report the exposure Correct answer.
  2. Ignore it because intact skin cannot be contaminated
  3. Apply a tight bandage without washing
  4. Scrub the skin with an alcohol-based disinfectant only

Explanation

After a blood splash on intact skin, the area should be washed promptly with soap and water (or an appropriate skin cleanser) and the exposure reported so that risk assessment and follow-up can occur. Reporting is essential for occupational health documentation and any needed prophylaxis.

Question 15Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to tissues?

  1. Leukocytes
  2. Erythrocytes Correct answer.
  3. Plasma proteins
  4. Platelets

Explanation

Erythrocytes (red blood cells) contain hemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in tissues. Platelets aid clotting, leukocytes defend against infection, and plasma proteins perform transport and immune functions but carry little oxygen.

Question 16Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is placed in the Trendelenburg position. How is the body positioned, and what is a common reason for using it?

  1. Lying supine with the head lower than the feet to promote venous return Correct answer.
  2. Sitting upright at 90 degrees to reduce abdominal pressure
  3. Lying on the side with the knees drawn up for a rectal examination
  4. Head elevated above the feet to improve breathing

Explanation

The Trendelenburg position places the patient supine with the head lower than the feet, which can promote venous return and is sometimes used in hypotensive emergencies or certain surgical and shock situations. It is distinguished from Fowler and lateral positions.

Question 17Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

  1. Diaphragm Correct answer.
  2. Peritoneum
  3. Pleura
  4. Mediastinum

Explanation

The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that forms the floor of the thoracic cavity and the roof of the abdominal cavity, and it also drives quiet inspiration. The pleura surrounds the lungs, the peritoneum lines the abdomen, and the mediastinum is the central thoracic compartment.

Question 18Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with a fever of 39 degrees Celsius is shivering. Which mechanism best explains the shivering?

  1. The thyroid gland shuts down to conserve energy
  2. Sweat glands are activated to cool the body
  3. Blood vessels in the skin dilate to release heat
  4. The hypothalamus triggers muscle contraction to generate heat Correct answer.

Explanation

During a fever, the hypothalamic set point is raised, and the body responds as if it were cold by triggering shivering thermogenesis, which generates heat through involuntary muscle contraction. Cutaneous vasodilation and sweating are cooling responses, not shivering responses.

Question 19Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which statement correctly describes the role of the loop of Henle in urine formation?

  1. It filters plasma into the renal tubule
  2. It creates a concentration gradient in the medulla that allows water reabsorption Correct answer.
  3. It stores urine before release
  4. It secretes erythropoietin into the blood

Explanation

The loop of Henle establishes an osmotic gradient in the renal medulla through countercurrent multiplication, which allows water to be reabsorbed from the collecting ducts and urine to be concentrated. Filtration occurs at the glomerulus, and urine storage occurs in the bladder.

Question 20Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which assessment finding most strongly suggests that a patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock?

  1. Bradycardia with hypertension and dry skin
  2. Bounding pulses and warm, flushed skin
  3. Tachycardia with cool, clammy skin and falling blood pressure Correct answer.
  4. Deep, slow breathing with facial flushing

Explanation

Hypovolemic shock reduces circulating volume, so compensatory tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction produce cool, clammy skin, and blood pressure eventually falls as compensation fails. Warm flushing and bounding pulses suggest a different state such as distributive shock.

Question 21Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which type of joint permits movement in only one plane, such as the elbow?

  1. Ball-and-socket joint
  2. Pivot joint
  3. Saddle joint
  4. Hinge joint Correct answer.

Explanation

A hinge joint allows flexion and extension in one plane, as seen at the elbow and knee. Ball-and-socket joints allow movement in many planes, pivot joints allow rotation, and saddle joints allow two-plane movement.

Question 22Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient's arterial blood gas shows pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and normal bicarbonate. Which interpretation is most accurate?

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Respiratory alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis Correct answer.
  4. Metabolic alkalosis

Explanation

The low pH indicates acidosis, and the elevated PaCO2 points to hypoventilation as the cause, making this respiratory acidosis. A normal bicarbonate suggests there is no primary metabolic component.

Question 23Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which mechanism best explains why a patient with chronic kidney disease develops anemia?

  1. Reduced production of erythropoietin by the kidneys Correct answer.
  2. Increased oxygen affinity of hemoglobin
  3. Loss of red blood cells through the urine in all cases
  4. Excessive destruction of red blood cells by the spleen

Explanation

The kidneys produce erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. In chronic kidney disease, erythropoietin production falls, leading to normocytic anemia, often compounded by iron deficiency.

Question 24Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of C5 is most likely to require which assistance?

  1. No assistance with mobility
  2. Assistance only with vision
  3. Assistance only with bowel control
  4. Assistance with breathing and upper limb function Correct answer.

Explanation

A C5 injury spares the diaphragm but impairs much of the upper limb and trunk control, so patients often need ventilatory support and assistance with mobility and self-care. Higher cervical injuries are more severe, and vision is not directly affected by spinal cord injury.

Question 25Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which statement best explains the countercurrent mechanism of thermoregulation in the limbs?

  1. Blood flow to the skin is stopped completely in cold conditions
  2. Warm arterial blood and cool venous blood flow in opposite directions, conserving heat Correct answer.
  3. Sweat glands produce heat to warm the skin
  4. Warm blood flows in the same direction as cool blood, increasing heat loss

Explanation

In countercurrent heat exchange, warm arterial blood flowing toward the extremity transfers heat to cooler venous blood returning to the core, conserving body heat. This arrangement reduces heat loss in cold environments.

Question 26Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

Which formed element of blood is primarily responsible for the process of hemostasis, in which a platelet plug and fibrin clot seal a damaged vessel?

  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Platelets (thrombocytes) Correct answer.

Explanation

Hemostasis depends on platelets adhering to exposed collagen at the vessel wall, aggregating, and releasing factors that trigger the coagulation cascade. Erythrocytes carry oxygen, while lymphocytes and eosinophils are leukocytes involved in immune defense, not clot formation.

Question 27Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient's blood pressure is recorded as 118/76 mm Hg. Which value represents the pressure in the arteries while the ventricles are relaxing and refilling?

  1. 194 mm Hg
  2. 76 mm Hg Correct answer.
  3. 118 mm Hg
  4. 42 mm Hg

Explanation

In a blood pressure reading the higher number is systolic pressure, generated during ventricular contraction, and the lower number is diastolic pressure, measured while the ventricles relax. The diastolic value of 76 mm Hg therefore reflects arterial pressure during ventricular filling.

Question 28Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient with an intestinal obstruction vomits repeatedly and loses large volumes of gastric fluid. Which acid-base disturbance is most likely to develop?

  1. Respiratory alkalosis from increased ventilation
  2. Respiratory acidosis from carbon dioxide retention
  3. Metabolic acidosis from bicarbonate retention
  4. Metabolic alkalosis from loss of hydrogen and chloride ions Correct answer.

Explanation

Gastric fluid is rich in hydrochloric acid, so prolonged vomiting removes hydrogen and chloride ions from the body and leaves bicarbonate relatively unopposed. The resulting rise in plasma bicarbonate produces metabolic alkalosis, which may be partly offset by hypovolemia and hypokalemia.

Question 29Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient is given a drug that blocks beta-1 adrenergic receptors. Which change in cardiac function is most expected?

  1. Decreased heart rate with increased contractility
  2. Increased heart rate and increased contractility
  3. Decreased heart rate and decreased contractility Correct answer.
  4. Increased stroke volume with unchanged heart rate

Explanation

Beta-1 receptors on the sinoatrial node and ventricular myocardium mediate sympathetic stimulation that raises heart rate and contractile force. Blocking these receptors reduces both chronotropy and inotropy, so heart rate and contractility fall together.

Question 30Health Care Fundamentals and Anatomy/Physiology Basics

A patient has a lesion that destroys the upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract on one side above the level of the medullary decussation. Which pattern of motor deficit is most consistent with this lesion?

  1. Spastic weakness on the opposite side of the body below the lesion Correct answer.
  2. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side
  3. Flaccid paralysis limited to the muscles supplied by a single spinal nerve
  4. Flaccid paralysis with muscle atrophy on the same side as the lesion

Explanation

Corticospinal fibers cross in the medulla, so a lesion above that level produces upper motor neuron signs on the contralateral side below the lesion. Upper motor neuron damage causes spastic weakness with increased tone and hyperreflexia rather than flaccid atrophy.

Question 31Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient is on strict intake and output monitoring. During the shift the patient drinks 180 mL of tea, 120 mL of water, and receives 50 mL of IV flush solution. What is the total intake to record for the shift?

  1. 420 mL
  2. 350 mL Correct answer.
  3. 300 mL
  4. 250 mL

Explanation

Total intake sums all fluids taken in by any route, including oral drinks and IV flush volumes. Adding 180 + 120 + 50 gives 350 mL. All measured fluids count, so the flush must be included rather than omitted.

Question 32Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

When measuring a patient's blood pressure, the cuff bladder should ideally encircle what proportion of the upper arm?

  1. About 20 percent
  2. About 40 percent
  3. About 100 percent with overlap
  4. About 80 percent Correct answer.

Explanation

Correct cuff sizing requires the bladder to encircle roughly 80 percent of the arm circumference. A cuff that is too small falsely raises the reading, and one too large falsely lowers it. Matching cuff size to arm size protects accuracy.

Question 33Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient has an order for strict bed rest. Which nursing action best prevents the complication of deep vein thrombosis during this period?

  1. Keeping the head of the bed flat at all times
  2. Performing active or passive leg exercises as ordered Correct answer.
  3. Restricting all oral fluids to reduce blood volume
  4. Applying warm compresses to both calves hourly

Explanation

Immobility slows venous return and raises clot risk, so leg exercises promote circulation. Active or passive range-of-motion and calf pumping are standard preventive measures. Fluid restriction would worsen stasis rather than help it.

Question 34Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

Which finding should a nurse report immediately as a possible sign of inadequate oxygenation?

  1. Respiratory rate of 16 with clear breath sounds
  2. Oxygen saturation of 88 percent on room air Correct answer.
  3. Blood pressure of 118 over 76
  4. Temperature of 37 degrees Celsius

Explanation

An oxygen saturation of 88 percent on room air is well below the normal range and signals hypoxemia requiring prompt attention. Normal adult saturation is generally 95 percent or higher. The other listed values fall within expected ranges.

Question 35Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

When performing hand hygiene with alcohol-based rub, which step is essential for effectiveness?

  1. Wiping hands on a towel immediately after applying
  2. Rinsing hands with water after the rub dries
  3. Applying the product to dry hands and rubbing until fully dry Correct answer.
  4. Using the rub only when hands are visibly soiled

Explanation

Alcohol-based rub works best on dry hands and must be rubbed in until it evaporates completely. Visibly soiled hands require soap and water instead. Toweling or rinsing off the product removes it before it can act.

Question 36Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient is placed in the lateral recumbent position. Which action protects the patient's skin and alignment in this position?

  1. Elevating the head of the bed to 90 degrees
  2. Removing all pillows to keep the spine flat
  3. Leaving the lower arm pinned under the body
  4. Placing a pillow between the knees and supporting the upper arm Correct answer.

Explanation

In the lateral position, a pillow between the knees keeps hips and legs aligned and prevents pressure between bony prominences. Supporting the upper arm maintains chest alignment. Pinning an arm under the body risks nerve and skin injury.

Question 37Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

Which statement correctly describes a normal adult resting respiratory rate?

  1. 4 to 8 breaths per minute
  2. 12 to 20 breaths per minute Correct answer.
  3. 24 to 30 breaths per minute
  4. 30 to 40 breaths per minute

Explanation

A normal adult resting respiratory rate is generally 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Rates below this range suggest bradypnea, and rates above suggest tachypnea. Recognizing the normal range guides early detection of distress.

Question 38Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed oral medication. Which action reflects the rights of medication administration?

  1. Asking a coworker to confirm the dose after administration
  2. Preparing the drug without checking the order
  3. Giving the drug at any convenient time during the shift
  4. Verifying the patient's identity using two identifiers before giving the drug Correct answer.

Explanation

Safe medication practice requires confirming the right patient with two identifiers before administration. The right dose, drug, route, and time must also be verified against the order. Checking after giving the drug is too late to prevent error.

Question 39Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient reports new shortness of breath and chest discomfort after abdominal surgery. Which nursing action is most appropriate first?

  1. Assess vital signs and notify the provider Correct answer.
  2. Encourage the patient to ambulate immediately
  3. Administer a prescribed laxative
  4. Document the complaint and reassess next shift

Explanation

New dyspnea and chest pain after surgery raise concern for pulmonary embolism or other serious events. Immediate assessment of vital signs and prompt notification of the provider are essential. Delaying action or giving unrelated medications could be dangerous.

Question 40Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient's intake and output record shows 1500 mL intake and 900 mL urine output over 24 hours. How should the nurse interpret this balance?

  1. Balanced intake and output
  2. Positive balance of 600 mL Correct answer.
  3. Negative balance of 600 mL
  4. Positive balance of 2400 mL

Explanation

Intake minus output gives the balance. Subtracting 900 mL output from 1500 mL intake leaves 600 mL retained, a positive balance. A positive balance may signal fluid retention and warrants monitoring.

Question 41Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A nurse is caring for a patient with a new colostomy. Which observation should be reported to the provider?

  1. Small amount of gas in the pouch
  2. Moist pink stoma
  3. Stoma that appears dark purple and dusky Correct answer.
  4. Mild tenderness around the site

Explanation

A healthy stoma is moist and pink to red. A dark purple or dusky stoma suggests compromised blood flow and ischemia, which requires urgent reporting. Mild tenderness and gas are expected findings.

Question 42Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

To reduce the risk of aspiration during oral feeding for a patient with dysphagia, which action is most appropriate?

  1. Have the patient lie flat during meals
  2. Encourage rapid eating to finish quickly
  3. Give thin liquids by straw in large amounts
  4. Position the patient upright and offer small bites with time to swallow Correct answer.

Explanation

Upright positioning and small, unhurried bites reduce the chance of food entering the airway. Lying flat or eating rapidly increases aspiration risk. Thin liquids by straw are especially hazardous with dysphagia.

Question 43Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A nurse notes that a patient's skin over the sacrum is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. How should this be classified?

  1. Stage 3 pressure injury
  2. Normal variation requiring no action
  3. Stage 1 pressure injury Correct answer.
  4. Deep tissue exposure

Explanation

Intact skin with non-blanchable redness is characteristic of a stage 1 pressure injury. Stage 3 involves full-thickness loss, which is not present here. Early identification allows preventive intervention before breakdown occurs.

Question 44Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula. Which nursing action promotes safety and comfort?

  1. Checking that the prongs are positioned in the nares and skin is protected behind the ears Correct answer.
  2. Applying petroleum jelly to the nares for lubrication
  3. Removing humidification for all patients
  4. Setting the flow higher than ordered for comfort

Explanation

Correct prong placement ensures oxygen delivery, and padding protects skin from pressure. Petroleum products near oxygen create a fire hazard and should be avoided. Flow rates must follow the order.

Question 45Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A nurse is teaching a patient to perform incentive spirometry after surgery. Which instruction is correct?

  1. Use the device only when feeling short of breath
  2. Exhale forcefully into the device as fast as possible
  3. Inhale slowly and deeply to raise the marker, then hold the breath briefly Correct answer.
  4. Take rapid shallow breaths through the nose

Explanation

Incentive spirometry encourages slow, deep inhalation to expand the lungs and prevent atelectasis. Holding the breath briefly sustains the inflation. Forceful exhalation or shallow breathing does not achieve lung expansion.

Question 46Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

Which action best demonstrates proper body mechanics when moving a patient up in bed?

  1. Raising the bed to waist height and bending the knees Correct answer.
  2. Reaching across the bed with straight legs
  3. Twisting the torso while pulling
  4. Keeping the bed low and bending at the waist

Explanation

Raising the bed to waist height and bending the knees keeps the load close and uses leg muscles to protect the back. Bending at the waist and twisting increase spinal strain. Good mechanics reduce injury to both nurse and patient.

Question 47Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient with an indwelling urinary catheter has cloudy urine and a new fever. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Clamp the catheter and wait for symptoms to resolve
  2. Irrigate the catheter with tap water
  3. Increase the catheter balloon volume
  4. Notify the provider and obtain a urine specimen as ordered Correct answer.

Explanation

Cloudy urine with fever suggests a catheter-associated urinary tract infection. The nurse should notify the provider and collect a specimen per order for testing. Clamping or irrigating with tap water is inappropriate and unsafe.

Question 48Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A nurse is documenting care. Which entry reflects correct charting practice?

  1. Objective description of findings and interventions with time Correct answer.
  2. A note stating the patient was 'difficult' without detail
  3. Blank spaces left for later completion
  4. Recording a medication before it is actually given

Explanation

Accurate charting records objective findings, actions taken, and the time of each entry. Subjective judgments without detail and blank spaces weaken the legal record. Charting a medication before giving it is fraudulent.

Question 49Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A patient is on fall precautions. Which measure most directly reduces fall risk during ambulation?

  1. Leaving side rails down on a confused patient
  2. Assisting the patient to the bathroom with nonskid footwear Correct answer.
  3. Encouraging independent walking without assistance
  4. Keeping the call light out of reach

Explanation

Assisted ambulation with nonskid footwear addresses the most common fall situations. Keeping the call light within reach and matching supervision to the patient's ability are also key. Removing safeguards raises risk.

Question 50Patient Care and Basic Nursing Skills

A nurse receives a verbal order from a provider for a new medication. What is the safest practice?

  1. Administer the drug immediately without documentation
  2. Write down the order, read it back to the provider, and follow facility policy for verification Correct answer.
  3. Wait until the next shift to clarify the order
  4. Ask another nurse to guess the dose

Explanation

Verbal orders should be written down, read back for confirmation, and verified according to policy to prevent errors. Immediate administration without documentation is unsafe. Clarification should not be delayed to another shift.