I85PREP
⌘ K
Telangana High Court Junior Assistant study materials
Telangana High Court Junior Assistant study resources

Telangana High Court Junior Assistant practice questions

One question at a time. Build your Telangana High Court Junior Assistant understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana High Court was established on which date, making it one of India's newest High Courts?

  1. 2 June 2015
  2. 1 January 2015 Correct answer.
  3. 2 June 2014
  4. 1 January 2019

Explanation

The Telangana High Court came into being on 1 January 2015, the day the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 provisions took effect for the new state's judiciary. Its seat is at Hyderabad, and it was carved out of the erstwhile combined Andhra Pradesh High Court.

Question 2General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which body conducts the appointment of judges to the Telangana High Court under the Indian constitutional scheme?

  1. The Telangana State Public Service Commission
  2. The Chief Minister of Telangana
  3. The President, on the advice of the Chief Justice of India and the Governor Correct answer.
  4. The Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court alone

Explanation

High Court judges are appointed by the President of India under Article 217, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the state, and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. The collegium's recommendation is processed through the Union executive.

Question 3General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana State Public Service Commission (TSPSC) was reconstituted after state formation. Which article of the Constitution provides for a State Public Service Commission?

  1. Article 315 Correct answer.
  2. Article 324
  3. Article 226
  4. Article 356

Explanation

Article 315 of the Constitution mandates a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission, Article 356 with President's Rule, and Article 226 with High Court writ jurisdiction.

Question 4General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which writ, issued by a High Court under Article 226, directs a public authority to perform a duty it has failed to perform?

  1. Mandamus Correct answer.
  2. Habeas corpus
  3. Certiorari
  4. Quo warranto

Explanation

Mandamus literally means 'we command' and compels a public authority to discharge a legal duty it has refused or neglected. Habeas corpus secures release from unlawful detention, certiorari quashes an order, and quo warranto questions a person's authority to hold office.

Question 5General Knowledge and Current Affairs

In the Telangana State Legislative Assembly, who presides over its sittings?

  1. The Chief Secretary
  2. The Chief Minister
  3. The Speaker Correct answer.
  4. The Governor

Explanation

The Speaker, elected by the members of the Assembly, presides over its sittings and is responsible for maintaining order and interpreting the rules of procedure. The Governor addresses the House but does not preside, and the Chief Minister leads the government on the floor.

Question 6General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which river is the principal source of drinking water for the city of Hyderabad?

  1. Godavari
  2. Musi
  3. Krishna
  4. Manjira Correct answer.

Explanation

The Manjira, a tributary of the Godavari, supplies water to Hyderabad through reservoirs such as Singur and Manjira. The Musi flows through the city but is heavily polluted and not a primary drinking water source.

Question 7General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project, one of the world's largest lift irrigation schemes, draws water from the Godavari at which location?

  1. Medigadda Correct answer.
  2. Srisailam
  3. Dindi
  4. Nagarjuna Sagar

Explanation

Kaleshwaram's main barrage and pumping complex is at Medigadda on the Godavari in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district. Srisailam and Nagarjuna Sagar are on the Krishna, and Dindi is a reservoir used for the project's balancing but not the main Godavari intake.

Question 8General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which of the following is a classical dance form that originated in Telangana and is recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi?

  1. Bharatanatyam
  2. Perini Shivatandavam Correct answer.
  3. Kathakali
  4. Kuchipudi

Explanation

Perini Shivatandavam, also called Perini Thandavam, is a warrior dance form revived from the Kakatiya period in Telangana. Kuchipudi belongs to Andhra Pradesh, Bharatanatyam to Tamil Nadu, and Kathakali to Kerala.

Question 9General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Sammakka-Saralamma Jatara, one of India's largest tribal festivals, is held biennially in which district of Telangana?

  1. Warangal
  2. Mulugu Correct answer.
  3. Khammam
  4. Adilabad

Explanation

The Sammakka-Saralamma Jatara is celebrated at Medaram in Mulugu district, drawing lakhs of tribal devotees. It honours the tribal valour of Sammakka and her daughter Saralamma and is often described as the 'Kumbh Mela of the tribals'.

Question 10General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Ramappa Temple, inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2021, is located in which district of Telangana?

  1. Hanamkonda
  2. Mulugu Correct answer.
  3. Nalgonda
  4. Karimnagar

Explanation

The Ramappa Temple, also called Rudreshwara Temple, stands in Palampet village of Mulugu district and was built under the Kakatiya dynasty. It was India's 39th UNESCO World Heritage Site and is noted for its floating bricks and lightweight sandstone.

Question 11General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Kakatiya dynasty, known for the Thousand Pillar Temple and Ramappa Temple, ruled primarily from which capital?

  1. Golconda
  2. Warangal Correct answer.
  3. Bidar
  4. Gulbarga

Explanation

The Kakatiyas ruled from Orugallu, present-day Warangal, between the 12th and 14th centuries. Golconda rose to prominence later under the Qutb Shahis, while Bidar and Gulbarga were Bahmani capitals.

Question 12General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana Armed Struggle of the late 1940s was primarily directed against which regime?

  1. The Nizam of Hyderabad Correct answer.
  2. The French colonial administration
  3. The Mughal Empire
  4. The British Crown

Explanation

The Telangana peasant uprising targeted the autocratic rule of the Nizam and the exploitative jagirdari and deshmukhi land systems. It began in Nalgonda district in 1946 and continued until Hyderabad's integration into India in 1948.

Question 13General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Operation Polo, which led to the integration of Hyderabad State into the Indian Union, was conducted in which year?

  1. 1950
  2. 1947
  3. 1948 Correct answer.
  4. 1949

Explanation

Operation Polo, the Indian military action in Hyderabad State, took place in September 1948. It ended Nizam rule and brought the state into the Indian Union, following the Nizam's refusal to accede.

Question 14General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which authority is responsible for conducting elections to local bodies such as gram panchayats in Telangana?

  1. The Telangana State Election Commission Correct answer.
  2. The Election Commission of India
  3. The High Court of Telangana
  4. The TSPSC

Explanation

The Telangana State Election Commission, constituted under Article 243K, conducts panchayat and municipal elections. The Election Commission of India handles Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections.

Question 15General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana government's 'Rythu Bandhu' scheme is primarily aimed at which objective?

  1. Providing crop insurance to farmers
  2. Offering investment support to farmers per acre of land Correct answer.
  3. Subsidising electricity for industries
  4. Constructing rural roads

Explanation

Rythu Bandhu, launched in 2018, gives farmers direct investment support per acre at the start of each crop season. It is a direct benefit transfer scheme, distinct from crop insurance (Rythu Bima) and infrastructure programmes.

Question 16General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct order of the three tiers of India's Panchayati Raj system, from lowest to highest?

  1. Zilla Parishad, Mandal Parishad, Gram Panchayat
  2. Gram Panchayat, Zilla Parishad, Mandal Parishad
  3. Mandal Parishad, Gram Panchayat, Zilla Parishad
  4. Gram Panchayat, Mandal Parishad, Zilla Parishad Correct answer.

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment established a three-tier structure: Gram Panchayat at the village level, Mandal (or Panchayat Samiti) at the intermediate level, and Zilla Parishad at the district level. Telangana follows this structure with Mandal Parishads as the middle tier.

Question 17General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana State Human Rights Commission was constituted under which Act?

  1. Right to Information Act, 2005
  2. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
  3. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 Correct answer.
  4. Consumer Protection Act, 2019

Explanation

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides for the National Human Rights Commission and State Human Rights Commissions. Telangana's commission was set up under this Act after state formation.

Question 18General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the Fundamental Duties as listed in Article 51A, beginning from the first duty?

  1. To defend the country; to respect the Constitution; to promote harmony
  2. To respect the Constitution and national symbols; to cherish noble ideals of the freedom struggle; to uphold sovereignty and integrity of India Correct answer.
  3. To cherish noble ideals of the freedom struggle; to respect the Constitution; to defend the country
  4. To promote harmony; to respect the Constitution; to protect the environment

Explanation

Article 51A lists the duty to respect the Constitution, the national flag and anthem first, followed by cherishing the noble ideals of the freedom struggle, and then upholding the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. The remaining duties follow in the order set out in the Article.

Question 19General Knowledge and Current Affairs

In the Indian federal structure, which subject is included in the Concurrent List, allowing both Parliament and the Telangana Legislature to legislate?

  1. Defence
  2. Police
  3. Currency
  4. Education Correct answer.

Explanation

Education was moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976, enabling both Parliament and state legislatures to legislate. Police is a State List subject, while defence and currency are Union List subjects.

Question 20General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana High Court's jurisdiction extends over the entire state. Which article of the Constitution establishes a High Court for each state?

  1. Article 214 Correct answer.
  2. Article 233
  3. Article 226
  4. Article 356

Explanation

Article 214 provides that there shall be a High Court for each state. Article 226 deals with writ jurisdiction, Article 233 with district judge appointments, and Article 356 with President's Rule.

Question 21General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The 'Hyderabad House' in New Delhi is associated with which of the following?

  1. The headquarters of the TSPSC
  2. The residence of the Nizam of Hyderabad, now used for state guest hospitality Correct answer.
  3. The office of the Telangana Chief Minister
  4. The Telangana Bhavan

Explanation

Hyderabad House on Janpath was the Nizam's Delhi residence and is now used by the government for official guest hospitality. Telangana Bhavan is a separate building serving as the state's Delhi office.

Question 22General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Charminar, built in 1591, was commissioned by which ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty?

  1. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah Correct answer.
  2. Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah Wali
  3. Quli Qutb Shah
  4. Abdullah Qutb Shah

Explanation

Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah founded Hyderabad in 1591 and commissioned the Charminar, reputedly to mark the end of a plague. Quli Qutb Shah was the dynasty's founder, while Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah Wali and Abdullah Qutb Shah ruled at other times.

Question 23General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) is headquartered in which city?

  1. Nagpur
  2. New Delhi
  3. Bengaluru
  4. Hyderabad Correct answer.

Explanation

NIRDPR is located at Rajendranagar in Hyderabad and functions as a national centre for rural development training and research. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Rural Development.

Question 24General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which article of the Constitution empowers the Governor of Telangana to grant pardons and reprieves in cases where the state executive's power extends?

  1. Article 161 Correct answer.
  2. Article 72
  3. Article 142
  4. Article 356

Explanation

Article 161 gives the Governor the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment for offences against laws relating to matters within the state executive's authority. Article 72 gives the analogous power to the President in wider cases.

Question 25General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana state was formed by carving out of which state, and how many districts did it initially comprise?

  1. Madras State; 10 districts
  2. Hyderabad State; 12 districts
  3. Andhra Pradesh; 10 districts Correct answer.
  4. Andhra Pradesh; 23 districts

Explanation

Telangana was carved out of Andhra Pradesh on 2 June 2014 with 10 districts: Adilabad, Karimnagar, Khammam, Mahbubnagar, Medak, Nalgonda, Nizamabad, Rangareddy, Warangal and Hyderabad. The number was later increased to 33 through reorganisation in 2016.

Question 26General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which body in Telangana is constitutionally entrusted with advising the Governor on questions of law referred to it under Article 143-type references made by the Governor under Article 192?

  1. The Telangana State Election Commission
  2. The Telangana Legislative Council
  3. The Telangana State Law Commission
  4. The Telangana High Court Correct answer.

Explanation

Under Article 192, where a question arises as to whether a member of a House of the Legislature of a State has become subject to disqualification, the Governor's decision must be obtained on the opinion of the Election Commission, but for other constitutional questions of law the Governor may refer to the High Court, which has advisory jurisdiction under Article 177-type provisions read with the State's constitutional scheme. The High Court of Telangana, being the highest court in the state, is the body whose opinion is sought in such references. The other bodies listed are statutory or legislative in nature and lack advisory jurisdiction over constitutional questions of law.

Question 27General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Telangana's 'Mission Bhagiratha', launched in 2016, was designed primarily to achieve which outcome?

  1. Building elevated expressways across the state capital region
  2. Constructing new reservoirs on the Musi river
  3. Electrifying agricultural pump sets in rural districts
  4. Providing piped drinking water to every household in the state Correct answer.

Explanation

Mission Bhagiratha is the Telangana government's flagship rural and urban drinking water programme, conceived to supply treated surface water through a piped network to every household, including in villages and municipalities. It addresses the long-standing problem of fluoride-affected groundwater and seasonal scarcity by drawing water from the Godavari and Krishna basins. The scheme is a drinking water mission, not an irrigation, power, or road infrastructure project.

Question 28General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Telangana State Public Service Commission derives its authority from which provision of the Constitution?

  1. Article 315 Correct answer.
  2. Article 368
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 324

Explanation

Article 315 provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each State, and it is under this article that the Telangana State Public Service Commission was constituted after the state's formation in 2014. The Commission conducts recruitment examinations for state government posts, including the Junior Assistant cadre. Articles 324, 356 and 368 deal with the Election Commission, President's Rule and amendment procedure respectively.

Question 29General Knowledge and Current Affairs

A Junior Assistant in a Telangana government office is asked to verify the procedure for disposing of a citizen's application under the Right to Information Act, 2005. Within how many days must the Public Information Officer ordinarily provide the information?

  1. 30 days from the date of receipt of the request Correct answer.
  2. 45 days from the date of receipt of the request
  3. 60 days from the date of receipt of the request
  4. 15 days from the date of receipt of the request

Explanation

Section 7(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 requires the Public Information Officer to dispose of a request within thirty days of its receipt. Where the information concerns the life or liberty of a person, the limit is forty-eight hours. The Act does not prescribe a fifteen, forty-five or sixty day default period for ordinary requests.

Question 30General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which of the following correctly pairs a Telangana institution with its primary function?

  1. Telangana State Law Commission - adjudicating criminal appeals from district courts
  2. Telangana State Archives - conducting recruitment examinations for state posts
  3. Telangana State Human Rights Commission - inquiring into complaints of violation of human rights Correct answer.
  4. Telangana State Election Commission - conducting elections to the state legislative assembly

Explanation

The Telangana State Human Rights Commission, constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, inquires into complaints of human rights violations and recommends remedial action. Assembly elections are conducted by the Election Commission of India, criminal appeals are heard by the High Court and its subordinate judiciary, and recruitment examinations are conducted by the Telangana State Public Service Commission. Each of the other pairings therefore mismatches the institution with a function vested in a different body.

Question 31General English

In the sentence 'The Junior Assistant submitted the file promptly', the word 'promptly' functions as which part of speech?

  1. Adjective
  2. Noun
  3. Adverb Correct answer.
  4. Preposition

Explanation

An adverb modifies a verb, an adjective, or another adverb. Here 'promptly' modifies the verb 'submitted', telling us how the action was performed, so it is an adverb.

Question 32General English

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The clerk has been working in this office ____ 2019.'

  1. since Correct answer.
  2. during
  3. from
  4. for

Explanation

With a present perfect continuous tense and a specific starting point in time, the preposition 'since' is used. 'Since 2019' marks the beginning of an action that continues into the present.

Question 33General English

Which sentence uses the article correctly in a court-office context?

  1. He is an honest officer and an MLA's assistant. Correct answer.
  2. He is a honest officer and an MLA's assistant.
  3. He is an honest officer and a MLA's assistant.
  4. He is the honest officer and a MLA's assistant.

Explanation

The choice between 'a' and 'an' depends on the initial sound, not the letter. 'Honest' begins with a vowel sound, so it takes 'an', while 'MLA' begins with the consonant sound /em/, so it takes 'a'.

Question 34General English

Identify the sentence that is in the passive voice.

  1. The superintendent is signing the attendance register.
  2. The attendance register was signed by the superintendent. Correct answer.
  3. The superintendent signed the attendance register.
  4. The superintendent has signed the attendance register.

Explanation

In the passive voice the object of the action becomes the subject, and the verb takes the form of 'be' plus a past participle. 'The attendance register was signed' fits this pattern exactly.

Question 35General English

Change into indirect speech: The judge said to the clerk, 'Bring the case file now.'

  1. The judge asked the clerk that he brings the case file now.
  2. The judge said to the clerk bring the case file now.
  3. The judge told the clerk to bring the case file then. Correct answer.
  4. The judge said the clerk brought the case file now.

Explanation

An imperative in direct speech becomes 'told' or 'ordered' plus a to-infinitive in indirect speech. The time word 'now' shifts to 'then', giving a fully correct reported sentence.

Question 36General English

Choose the correct question tag: 'The peon hasn't left the chamber yet, ____?'

  1. isn't it
  2. has he Correct answer.
  3. did he
  4. hasn't he

Explanation

A negative statement takes a positive tag, and the tag repeats the auxiliary of the main clause. The auxiliary here is 'has', so the tag is 'has he'.

Question 37General English

Which option gives the correct plural of 'attorney general' as used in legal-administrative writing?

  1. attorney generals
  2. attorneys generals
  3. attorney's general
  4. attorneys general Correct answer.

Explanation

In compound titles where the first word is the main noun, the plural marker goes on that noun. Hence 'attorneys general', following the same pattern as 'courts martial'.

Question 38General English

Select the correctly spelt word suitable for an official court notice.

  1. accomodation
  2. accommoddation
  3. accommodation Correct answer.
  4. acommodation

Explanation

'Accommodation' is spelt with double 'c' and double 'm'. Remembering the two pairs of doubled consonants fixes the standard spelling used in formal notices.

Question 39General English

Choose the word that best completes the sentence: 'The witness gave a ____ account of the incident, leaving out no detail.'

  1. cursory
  2. meticulous Correct answer.
  3. superficial
  4. verbose

Explanation

'Meticulous' means showing great attention to detail, which matches an account that leaves out nothing. The other options either suggest shallowness or excessive wordiness.

Question 40General English

In the phrase 'a moot question' as used in legal discussion, 'moot' most nearly means:

  1. open to debate Correct answer.
  2. already settled
  3. legally binding
  4. clearly illegal

Explanation

'Moot' describes a point that is arguable or unsettled, hence open to debate. In legal contexts a moot question is one not yet conclusively decided.

Question 41General English

Choose the correct synonym of 'adjourn' as used in court proceedings.

  1. convict
  2. postpone Correct answer.
  3. acquit
  4. summon

Explanation

To adjourn a hearing is to suspend or postpone it to a later time or date. 'Postpone' carries the same core meaning of deferring proceedings.

Question 42General English

Identify the antonym of 'lenient' in the context of a disciplinary order.

  1. severe Correct answer.
  2. tolerant
  3. indulgent
  4. merciful

Explanation

'Lenient' means mild or forgiving in punishment. Its antonym is 'severe', which denotes harshness in dealing with an offence.

Question 43General English

Choose the option that correctly completes the idiom: 'The clerk was held ____ for the loss of the records.'

  1. responsibly
  2. responsible Correct answer.
  3. responsibilities
  4. responsibility

Explanation

The phrase 'held responsible for' is a fixed expression meaning to be made accountable. An adjective follows 'held' in this idiomatic construction.

Question 44General English

Which sentence correctly uses the conditional form appropriate for a formal office instruction?

  1. If the application would be received late, it is rejected.
  2. If the application was received late, it will be rejected.
  3. If the application will be received late, it will be rejected.
  4. If the application is received late, it will be rejected. Correct answer.

Explanation

In a first conditional, the if-clause uses the present simple and the main clause uses 'will' plus the base verb. This expresses a real future possibility in formal writing.

Question 45General English

Choose the correct form: 'Neither the stenographer nor the clerks ____ present in the record room.'

  1. has been
  2. were Correct answer.
  3. was
  4. is

Explanation

With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. The nearer subject is the plural 'clerks', so the plural verb 'were' is required.

Question 46General English

Identify the error in this sentence: 'The list of defaulters were displayed on the notice board.'

  1. 'of defaulters' should be 'defaulters of'
  2. 'on' should be 'in'
  3. 'displayed' should be 'display'
  4. 'were' should be 'was' Correct answer.

Explanation

The true subject is the singular noun 'list'; 'of defaulters' is only a prepositional phrase. A singular subject takes the singular verb 'was', so 'were' must be corrected.

Question 47General English

Choose the sentence in which the underlined-style modifier is placed correctly (the modifier is shown in capitals).

  1. WRITTEN IN HASTE, the report was rejected by the superintendent. Correct answer.
  2. WRITTEN IN HASTE, the superintendent rejected the report.
  3. The superintendent rejected the report WRITTEN IN HASTE.
  4. The superintendent WRITTEN IN HASTE rejected the report.

Explanation

A participial modifier must refer to the noun it logically describes. Here the report was written in haste, and in the opening position the modifier correctly attaches to 'the report'.

Question 48General English

Select the sentence that uses the semicolon correctly.

  1. The hearing ended at noon; and the parties left the court.
  2. The hearing ended at noon; the parties left the court. Correct answer.
  3. The hearing ended; at noon the parties left the court.
  4. The hearing ended at noon; because the parties left the court.

Explanation

A semicolon joins two independent clauses that are closely related and not already linked by a conjunction. Option 0 does this cleanly with two complete clauses.

Question 49General English

Which option correctly reports the question: The clerk asked, 'When will the registrar return?'

  1. The clerk asked when the registrar would return. Correct answer.
  2. The clerk asked when will the registrar return.
  3. The clerk asked when would the registrar returned.
  4. The clerk asked that when the registrar will return.

Explanation

In reported questions the word order returns to statement order and the tense shifts back. 'Will' becomes 'would', and the subject precedes the verb.

Question 50General English

Choose the option that best replaces the underlined-style phrase to make the sentence concise: 'The officer made a decision to postpone the hearing on account of the fact that the witness was absent.'

  1. decided to postpone the hearing because the witness was absent Correct answer.
  2. made a decision for postponing the hearing due to the witness being absent
  3. took a decision of postponing the hearing owing to the fact of the witness's absence
  4. decided on postponement of the hearing in view of the witness being absent

Explanation

Concise official English replaces wordy phrases with direct verbs and simple conjunctions. 'Decided to postpone... because' removes the padding 'made a decision' and 'on account of the fact that'.