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Tamil Nadu HSE First Year Nursing (General) study materials
Tamil Nadu HSE First Year Nursing (General) study resources

Tamil Nadu HSE First Year Nursing (General) practice questions

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Question 1Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is positioned supine with the head of the bed raised to 45 degrees. Which position is this documented as in the nurse's notes?

  1. Fowler's position Correct answer.
  2. Lithotomy position
  3. Sims' position
  4. Trendelenburg position

Explanation

Fowler's position is a sitting position in which the head of the bed is elevated 45 to 60 degrees, often with the knees slightly flexed. It is used to improve lung expansion and ease breathing. Trendelenburg tilts the whole bed head-down, while Sims' and lithotomy are side-lying and leg-elevated positions respectively.

Question 2Fundamentals of Nursing

While making an occupied bed, where should the nurse place the clean linen before spreading it?

  1. On the overbed table away from the patient Correct answer.
  2. On the soiled linen already removed
  3. Directly over the patient's legs
  4. On the floor beside the bed

Explanation

Clean linen should be held away from the uniform and never placed on the floor or on soiled linen, because both are sources of contamination. Placing it on the overbed table keeps it clean until it is spread. This follows the principle of medical asepsis during bed-making.

Question 3Fundamentals of Nursing

Which route of drug administration is described as parenteral?

  1. Oral tablet
  2. Rectal suppository
  3. Sublingual tablet
  4. Intramuscular injection Correct answer.

Explanation

Parenteral means administration by a route other than the alimentary canal, so injections such as intramuscular, intravenous and subcutaneous are parenteral. Oral, sublingual and rectal routes all involve absorption through the gastrointestinal tract or mucosa. Therefore only the intramuscular injection fits the definition.

Question 4Fundamentals of Nursing

What is the normal adult resting respiratory rate per minute?

  1. 40 to 50
  2. 12 to 20 Correct answer.
  3. 25 to 35
  4. 4 to 8

Explanation

The accepted normal adult resting respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 indicate bradypnoea and above 20 indicate tachypnoea. The other ranges fall outside adult norms, though 25 to 35 may occasionally be seen in infants.

Question 5Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse counts 18 pulse beats in 30 seconds. What is the pulse rate per minute?

  1. 18 beats per minute
  2. 9 beats per minute
  3. 36 beats per minute Correct answer.
  4. 54 beats per minute

Explanation

When a pulse is counted for half a minute, the count is multiplied by two to obtain the rate per minute. Eighteen beats multiplied by two equals 36 beats per minute. Counting for a full minute is preferred when the rhythm is irregular.

Question 6Fundamentals of Nursing

Which solution is commonly used for a cleansing enema?

  1. 5% dextrose
  2. Heparinised saline
  3. Sterile distilled water
  4. Normal saline Correct answer.

Explanation

Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is a commonly used isotonic solution for a cleansing enema because it is gentle on the bowel mucosa. Sterile distilled water is hypotonic and can cause fluid shifts, while dextrose and heparinised saline are not enema solutions. Isotonic fluid minimises irritation and electrolyte disturbance.

Question 7Fundamentals of Nursing

What is the primary purpose of a pressure ulcer risk assessment scale such as the Braden scale?

  1. To identify patients who need preventive skin care measures Correct answer.
  2. To determine the depth of an existing pressure ulcer
  3. To measure the patient's pain score
  4. To decide the antibiotic needed for wound infection

Explanation

Risk assessment scales score factors such as mobility, moisture and nutrition to identify patients likely to develop pressure ulcers, so preventive measures can be started early. They do not stage existing ulcers, select antibiotics or measure pain. Early identification is central to pressure ulcer prevention.

Question 8Fundamentals of Nursing

Which action best demonstrates the principle of surgical asepsis?

  1. Touching the sterile field with ungloved hands
  2. Holding sterile forceps with the tips pointing downward Correct answer.
  3. Using sterile gloves that have touched the floor
  4. Reaching across a sterile field

Explanation

During a sterile procedure, sterile forceps should be held with the tips pointing downward so that any fluid drains away from the hand and the working tip. This prevents contamination of the sterile end. Touching, reaching across or using contaminated gloves breaks the sterile field.

Question 9Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is to receive 500 mL of normal saline over 4 hours. Using a drip factor of 15 drops per mL, what is the flow rate in drops per minute?

  1. 31 drops per minute Correct answer.
  2. 21 drops per minute
  3. 125 drops per minute
  4. 15 drops per minute

Explanation

The formula is drops per minute equals total volume multiplied by drip factor divided by total minutes. Here 500 mL times 15 drops per mL equals 7500 drops, divided by 240 minutes gives approximately 31 drops per minute. Rounding to the nearest whole drop is standard practice.

Question 10Fundamentals of Nursing

Which finding should the nurse report immediately during a blood transfusion?

  1. Rise in temperature with chills and back pain Correct answer.
  2. Slight pallor of the skin
  3. Slow trickle of the infusion
  4. Mild itching at the venepuncture site

Explanation

Fever, chills and back or flank pain are classic signs of an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction and require the transfusion to be stopped at once. The nurse should stop the blood, keep the line patent with saline, and inform the doctor. Mild local itching alone is less urgent but should still be monitored.

Question 11Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient with a nasogastric tube is to be fed. How should the nurse confirm tube placement before feeding?

  1. Look for the tube marking at the nostril
  2. Listen for a bubbling sound after injecting air
  3. Ask the patient whether the tube feels correct
  4. Check the pH of aspirated gastric contents Correct answer.

Explanation

Testing the pH of aspirated fluid is the most reliable bedside method, since gastric aspirate is usually acidic (pH below 5.5). The auscultatory air-bubbling method is unreliable and no longer recommended. Patient report and tube markings alone cannot confirm gastric placement.

Question 12Fundamentals of Nursing

Which instruction should the nurse give a patient before collecting a midstream urine specimen?

  1. Clean the perineal area and collect urine after discarding the first part of the stream Correct answer.
  2. Collect urine after a 12-hour fast
  3. Collect the first urine passed on waking
  4. Add antiseptic to the container before collection

Explanation

A midstream specimen reduces contamination by flushing the urethra first, so the first portion is discarded and the middle portion is collected into a sterile container after perineal cleaning. First-morning urine is useful for some tests but is not the rule for midstream culture. Fasting and antiseptics are not required.

Question 13Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing to give an intramuscular injection to an adult. Which site is generally preferred for routine injections?

  1. Deltoid site for large volumes
  2. Dorsogluteal site
  3. Ventrogluteal site Correct answer.
  4. Anterolateral thigh for large volumes

Explanation

The ventrogluteal site is preferred for adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels and has a good muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site risks injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid and thigh hold small volumes and are not used for large-volume injections.

Question 14Fundamentals of Nursing

What is the correct technique for taking an oral temperature with a mercury-in-glass thermometer?

  1. Place it in the cheek pouch and remove after five seconds
  2. Place it between the lips while talking
  3. Place it under the tongue and leave it for the recommended time with lips closed Correct answer.
  4. Place it on top of the tongue with mouth open

Explanation

For an oral temperature, the bulb is placed in the sublingual pocket and the lips are kept closed for the required time to allow equilibration. Talking or an open mouth allows air to alter the reading. The sublingual pocket has a rich blood supply and gives a reliable reading.

Question 15Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse must move a heavy patient up in bed. Which body mechanics principle should be followed?

  1. Keep the feet apart and bend at the knees, keeping the load close Correct answer.
  2. Bend at the waist and twist while lifting
  3. Lift with the back muscles while holding the breath
  4. Keep the feet together and reach far forward

Explanation

Safe body mechanics require a wide base of support, bending at the hips and knees rather than the waist, and keeping the load close to the body. Twisting and reaching increase the risk of back injury. The strong leg muscles should do the lifting, not the back.

Question 16Fundamentals of Nursing

Which stage of the nursing process involves setting measurable patient goals and planning interventions?

  1. Evaluation
  2. Implementation
  3. Planning Correct answer.
  4. Assessment

Explanation

The planning phase involves establishing priorities, writing measurable goals and selecting interventions. Assessment gathers data, implementation carries out the plan and evaluation judges whether goals were met. Goals and interventions are therefore planned, not assessed or evaluated.

Question 17Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient on strict intake and output measurement drinks 200 mL of water and 150 mL of soup. What is the oral intake to be recorded?

  1. 200 mL
  2. 350 mL Correct answer.
  3. 150 mL
  4. 50 mL

Explanation

All fluids taken orally, including water, soup, juice and ice that melts, are added to the intake record. Two hundred millilitres plus 150 millilitres equals 350 millilitres. Both items are fluids and neither is subtracted.

Question 18Fundamentals of Nursing

Which measure is most effective in preventing the spread of infection from a patient with an airborne disease such as pulmonary tuberculosis?

  1. Wearing only gloves when entering the room
  2. Keeping the patient in a general ward with a curtain drawn
  3. Placing the patient in a negative-pressure room with a fitted respirator for staff Correct answer.
  4. Using a single room with the door open

Explanation

Airborne precautions require a negative-pressure room with the door closed and high-efficiency filtration, and staff should wear a fitted N95 respirator. Gloves alone do not protect against airborne droplet nuclei. Curtains and open doors do not prevent airborne spread.

Question 19Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is to administer oxygen to a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which approach is safest?

  1. Give oxygen only when the patient becomes unconscious
  2. Start with a low concentration and titrate according to the doctor's order and oxygen saturation Correct answer.
  3. Withhold oxygen entirely
  4. Give the highest possible concentration immediately

Explanation

In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, high oxygen concentrations can depress the hypoxic drive and cause carbon dioxide retention, so oxygen is started at a low concentration and titrated to the prescribed target saturation. Withholding oxygen is dangerous, and maximum flow is not safe. Titration balances oxygenation and ventilation.

Question 20Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient has a new colostomy. Which observation should the nurse report to the surgeon?

  1. Stoma that is dark purple and dry Correct answer.
  2. Slight mucus in the colostomy bag
  3. Small amount of blood on the dressing immediately after surgery
  4. Stoma that is pink and moist

Explanation

A healthy stoma is pink to red and moist; a dark purple, blue or black stoma suggests ischaemia and must be reported urgently. A small amount of blood immediately after surgery and mucus are expected findings. Colour change of the stoma is the key warning sign.

Question 21Fundamentals of Nursing

Which action should the nurse take first when a patient is found lying on the floor after a fall?

  1. Call the family before assessing the patient
  2. Complete the incident report before touching the patient
  3. Assess the patient for injury and level of consciousness before moving them Correct answer.
  4. Lift the patient back into bed immediately

Explanation

After a fall, the priority is to assess the patient for injuries, level of consciousness and vital signs before attempting to move them, because movement may worsen spinal or limb injury. Documentation and family notification follow the clinical assessment. Immediate lifting is unsafe.

Question 22Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is calculating a paediatric dose. The adult dose of a drug is 500 mg and the child's body surface area is 0.5 square metres. Using the body surface area method with an average adult surface area of 1.73 square metres, what is the approximate child dose?

  1. 145 mg Correct answer.
  2. 250 mg
  3. 72 mg
  4. 500 mg

Explanation

The body surface area formula is child dose equals adult dose multiplied by child surface area divided by 1.73. Here 500 mg times 0.5 divided by 1.73 gives approximately 145 mg. This method is considered more accurate than age-based rules for children.

Question 23Fundamentals of Nursing

Which principle explains why a nurse should not recap a used needle after injection?

  1. Recapping increases the risk of a needlestick injury and bloodborne exposure Correct answer.
  2. Recapping is required before disposal in a puncture-proof container
  3. Recapping prevents the needle from bending
  4. Recapping sterilises the needle for reuse

Explanation

Recapping a used needle is the leading cause of needlestick injuries among health workers and can transmit bloodborne pathogens. Used needles should be dropped directly into a puncture-proof sharps container without recapping. Recapping does not sterilise the needle and reuse is never acceptable.

Question 24Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient with a chest drain has the drainage tube accidentally disconnected from the chest tube. What should the nurse do first?

  1. Lower the drainage bottle below the bed
  2. Place the end of the chest tube in sterile water to create a water seal Correct answer.
  3. Ask the patient to breathe rapidly
  4. Clamp the chest tube immediately and wait for the doctor

Explanation

If the tubing disconnects from the chest tube, the immediate priority is to prevent air entering the pleural space by placing the tube end in sterile water to recreate a water seal, then obtain a new system. Clamping the tube can cause a tension pneumothorax and is generally avoided. The patient should be encouraged to breathe normally, not rapidly.

Question 25Fundamentals of Nursing

During surgery, which measure best reduces the risk of surgical site infection?

  1. Using non-sterile drapes for minor procedures
  2. Administering antibiotics only after the wound becomes infected
  3. Keeping the theatre doors open for ventilation
  4. Maintaining strict sterile technique and normothermia in the operating theatre Correct answer.

Explanation

Surgical site infection is reduced by strict sterile technique, appropriate prophylactic antibiotics timed before incision, and maintaining the patient's normal body temperature, since hypothermia impairs immune defence. Antibiotics after infection treat rather than prevent. Open doors and non-sterile drapes increase contamination.

Question 26Fundamentals of Nursing

Under the nursing process, which activity belongs to the evaluation phase rather than to planning?

  1. Deciding the frequency of vital sign checks for the next shift
  2. Writing a measurable goal for ambulation within 48 hours
  3. Comparing the patient's recorded temperature with the stated goal of remaining afebrile Correct answer.
  4. Selecting a pressure-relieving mattress for a bedbound patient

Explanation

Evaluation is the phase in which the nurse judges whether the actual outcomes match the goals that were already set, so comparing recorded temperature with a stated afebrile goal is an evaluation activity. Writing goals, choosing equipment and deciding monitoring frequency all occur during planning, before care is delivered.

Question 27Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is documenting care in the patient's record. Which entry meets the accepted standard for clinical documentation?

  1. 'Patient was difficult and refused care again.'
  2. 'Gave the usual medicines and left the ward at 1400 h.'
  3. '0830 h: Repositioned to left lateral; skin over sacrum intact; tolerated oral fluids.' Correct answer.
  4. 'Patient seems better today, continue same care.'

Explanation

Good documentation is factual, objective, timed and specific, describing what was done and what was observed. The entry stating time, position change, skin condition and fluid tolerance meets this standard. Judgements such as 'seems better' or 'difficult' and vague statements such as 'usual medicines' are not acceptable because they cannot be verified.

Question 28Fundamentals of Nursing

A postoperative patient is unable to pass urine and the bladder is palpable above the symphysis pubis. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

  1. Assist the patient to void in privacy and, if unsuccessful, inform the doctor Correct answer.
  2. Apply firm pressure over the bladder to express urine
  3. Insert an indwelling catheter immediately without an order
  4. Withhold all fluids until the patient voids

Explanation

Urinary retention after surgery is common and is first managed with simple measures such as privacy, positioning and adequate analgesia before medical review. Catheterisation is an invasive procedure that requires a doctor's order and carries infection risk, so the nurse should not perform it on her own initiative. Manual pressure over a distended bladder can cause injury and is unsafe.

Question 29Fundamentals of Nursing

Which statement correctly describes a nursing diagnosis as used in the nursing process?

  1. It names a disease and its pathological cause
  2. It is a record of the medicines the patient is receiving
  3. It is written only after the doctor confirms the medical diagnosis
  4. It states a patient health problem or response that nursing can address Correct answer.

Explanation

A nursing diagnosis describes an actual or potential human response to health problems that falls within nursing's independent scope, such as impaired comfort or risk of falls. It is not a medical diagnosis of disease and does not depend on the doctor's confirmation. It is also distinct from a medication list, which is part of the treatment record.

Question 30Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is ordered to have a tepid sponge bath for a high fever. Which action is correct?

  1. Give a hot drink immediately after the sponge bath
  2. Sponge the limbs and trunk while monitoring for shivering Correct answer.
  3. Leave the patient uncovered in a draught to increase cooling
  4. Use ice-cold water to bring the temperature down quickly

Explanation

Tepid sponging cools by evaporation from the skin, and sponging the limbs and trunk exposes a large surface area for this. Shivering raises heat production and defeats the purpose, so the nurse must watch for it and stop or cover the patient if it occurs. Cold water, hot drinks and draughts are unsafe or counterproductive.

Question 31Fundamentals of Nursing

A bedbound patient is being repositioned. How often should the nurse usually turn an adult at risk of pressure injury?

  1. Once every shift
  2. Every two hours or according to the individual turning schedule Correct answer.
  3. Only when the patient complains of discomfort
  4. Once every 24 hours

Explanation

Regular repositioning relieves pressure over bony prominences, and a two-hourly schedule is the conventional standard for adults at risk, adjusted to the individual's skin condition and support surface. Turning only when the patient complains is unsafe because sensation may be reduced and discomfort may not be felt. Shift-based or daily turning leaves pressure unrelieved for far too long.

Question 32Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is receiving a nasogastric tube feed by gravity. Which position should the nurse maintain during and shortly after the feed?

  1. Flat on the back with the head low
  2. Prone with the face turned to one side
  3. Lying on the left side with the head flat
  4. Sitting upright or with the head of the bed raised about 30 to 45 degrees Correct answer.

Explanation

An upright or semi-recumbent position uses gravity to keep the stomach contents below the level of the pharynx, reducing the risk of regurgitation and aspiration during and after a tube feed. A head-low or flat position promotes reflux. Prone positioning is unsuitable for a patient with a feeding tube and impedes breathing.

Question 33Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is prescribed a drug that must be given on an empty stomach. Which instruction should the nurse give?

  1. Take it about one hour before a meal or two hours after a meal Correct answer.
  2. Take it immediately after the main meal
  3. Take it with a large glass of milk
  4. Take it only at bedtime with a snack

Explanation

An empty stomach means the drug is given roughly one hour before food or two hours after food, when gastric emptying is relatively complete and absorption is predictable. Milk, meals and snacks all delay gastric emptying and alter absorption of such drugs. The timing must follow the prescription rather than convenience.

Question 34Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient suddenly develops severe difficulty in breathing with noisy respiration and falling oxygen saturation. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Wait for the next scheduled round to report the change
  2. Give a sedative to reduce the patient's distress
  3. Open the airway, position the patient upright and call for urgent help Correct answer.
  4. Record the observation and continue the previous care plan

Explanation

Airway and breathing take priority in any deterioration, so the nurse opens and supports the airway, sits the patient up to ease breathing and summons urgent assistance. Sedation could depress respiration further and is not a nursing decision in this situation. Delaying action to document or wait for rounds risks serious harm.

Question 35Fundamentals of Nursing

Which statement about sterile gloves is correct?

  1. Powdered gloves are preferred for all sterile procedures
  2. The cuffs of sterile gloves are considered sterile once worn
  3. Sterile gloves must be changed if they touch a non-sterile surface Correct answer.
  4. Sterile gloves may be reused for the same patient throughout a shift

Explanation

Once a sterile glove contacts a non-sterile surface it is contaminated and must be replaced to maintain asepsis. Only the fingers and palms of the gloves are considered sterile, not the cuffs. Reuse across a shift and powdered gloves both increase contamination and are not recommended.

Question 36Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is ordered oxygen at 2 litres per minute by nasal cannula. Which nursing action is essential before starting the therapy?

  1. Tape the cannula firmly to both cheeks
  2. Lubricate the prongs generously with petroleum jelly
  3. Turn the flow to maximum briefly to test the patient's tolerance
  4. Check the prescription, set the flow rate and confirm the humidifier is filled with sterile water Correct answer.

Explanation

Before oxygen is started the nurse verifies the prescription and flow rate, assembles the circuit and ensures the humidifier contains sterile water, since dry gas irritates the airway. Petroleum-based lubricants are flammable and must never be used near oxygen. Taping to the cheeks and briefly running maximum flow are not part of safe practice.

Question 37Fundamentals of Nursing

During hand hygiene with soap and water, which step is performed correctly?

  1. Washing for about 5 seconds to save time
  2. Rubbing hands together briskly for at least 40 to 60 seconds, covering all surfaces Correct answer.
  3. Drying hands on the nurse's uniform if paper towels are unavailable
  4. Washing only the palms and the back of the hands

Explanation

Effective hand washing requires rubbing all surfaces, including between the fingers, thumbs and under the nails, for a sufficient duration of about 40 to 60 seconds with soap and water. Very brief washing and washing only the palms leave contaminants behind. Hands must be dried with a clean disposable towel, never on clothing.

Question 38Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient with an indwelling urinary catheter is being cared for. Which practice best prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infection?

  1. Disconnecting the catheter from the bag daily for cleaning
  2. Raising the drainage bag above the bladder when moving the patient
  3. Irrigating the catheter routinely with antiseptic solution each shift
  4. Keeping the drainage bag below the level of the bladder with the tubing unkinked Correct answer.

Explanation

Maintaining a closed, dependent drainage system with the bag below bladder level prevents backflow of contaminated urine into the bladder. Routine antiseptic irrigation, unnecessary disconnection and lifting the bag above the bladder all break the closed system or allow reflux, increasing infection risk.

Question 39Fundamentals of Nursing

A nurse is preparing to give an oral medication to a patient who has difficulty swallowing tablets. Which action is most appropriate?

  1. Force the tablet into the mouth and hold the jaw closed
  2. Dissolve the tablet in the patient's intravenous fluid
  3. Crush the tablet and mix it with food after confirming that the drug may be crushed Correct answer.
  4. Omit the dose and record it as given

Explanation

Some tablets are modified-release or enteric-coated and must not be crushed, so the nurse first confirms with the prescription or pharmacist that crushing is acceptable. Once confirmed, mixing the crushed drug with a small amount of food aids swallowing. Forcing medication, adding it to intravenous fluid or falsifying the record are all unsafe or dishonest.

Question 40Fundamentals of Nursing

A patient is to be weighed daily as part of fluid balance monitoring. Which practice gives the most reliable comparison?

  1. Weighing at a different time each day with different clothing
  2. Weighing only when the patient reports swelling
  3. Estimating the weight from the patient's appearance
  4. Weighing at the same time each morning, on the same scale, with similar clothing Correct answer.

Explanation

Daily weights are meaningful only when conditions are standardised, so weighing at the same time, usually in the morning after voiding, on the same scale and in similar clothing allows valid comparison. Varying the time, scale or clothing produces changes that reflect the method rather than the patient's fluid status. Estimation and symptom-triggered weighing are not substitutes for measurement.

Question 41Anatomy and Physiology

The study of the structure of the human body and the relationship between its parts is best described by which term in the nursing foundation course?

  1. Embryology only
  2. Physiology
  3. Histology only
  4. Anatomy Correct answer.

Explanation

Anatomy deals with the form, arrangement and structural relationships of body parts, while physiology deals with their functions. Histology and embryology are narrower subdivisions of anatomy rather than the whole subject, so anatomy is the correct broad term for structural study.

Question 42Anatomy and Physiology

A nurse describes a wound as lying nearer to the midline of the body than another wound. Which anatomical term correctly expresses this relationship?

  1. Distal
  2. Superficial
  3. Medial Correct answer.
  4. Lateral

Explanation

Medial means closer to the median plane or midline of the body. Lateral means farther from the midline, distal means farther from the point of attachment of a limb, and superficial means nearer the body surface, so medial is the accurate term here.

Question 43Anatomy and Physiology

Which body plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?

  1. Coronal plane
  2. Oblique plane
  3. Transverse plane
  4. Midsagittal plane Correct answer.

Explanation

The midsagittal or median plane passes vertically through the midline and divides the body into equal right and left halves. A transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower parts, and a coronal plane divides it into anterior and posterior parts.

Question 44Anatomy and Physiology

The thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity together make up which larger body cavity?

  1. Dorsal cavity
  2. Ventral cavity Correct answer.
  3. Cranial cavity
  4. Vertebral cavity

Explanation

The ventral body cavity lies anteriorly and is subdivided by the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity above and the abdominopelvic cavity below. The dorsal cavity lies posteriorly and contains the cranial and vertebral cavities.

Question 45Anatomy and Physiology

Which tissue type is characterised by closely packed cells with very little intercellular matrix and covers body surfaces and lines cavities?

  1. Connective tissue
  2. Muscular tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue Correct answer.
  4. Nervous tissue

Explanation

Epithelial tissue has cells arranged in sheets with minimal intercellular material, allowing it to cover surfaces, line cavities and form glands. Connective tissue is defined by abundant matrix, while muscle and nerve tissues are specialised for contraction and conduction.

Question 46Anatomy and Physiology

Which formed element of blood is chiefly responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?

  1. Platelets
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Erythrocytes Correct answer.
  4. Monocytes

Explanation

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, contain haemoglobin which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues. Platelets assist clotting, and lymphocytes and monocytes are white cells concerned with immunity rather than oxygen transport.

Question 47Anatomy and Physiology

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta for systemic circulation?

  1. Right atrium
  2. Left atrium
  3. Left ventricle Correct answer.
  4. Right ventricle

Explanation

The left ventricle has the thickest myocardium and ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta, generating the pressure needed for the systemic circuit. The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs, and the atria receive blood rather than driving systemic flow.

Question 48Anatomy and Physiology

The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries takes place by which process?

  1. Osmosis
  2. Active transport
  3. Filtration
  4. Simple diffusion Correct answer.

Explanation

Respiratory gases move down their partial pressure gradients across the thin alveolar-capillary membrane by simple diffusion. Oxygen diffuses into the blood and carbon dioxide diffuses out, requiring no energy expenditure or carrier protein.

Question 49Anatomy and Physiology

Which part of the brain contains the respiratory centres that control the rate and depth of breathing?

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Thalamus
  4. Medulla oblongata Correct answer.

Explanation

The medulla oblongata houses the inspiratory and expiratory centres that generate the basic rhythm of breathing. The cerebellum coordinates movement, the thalamus relays sensory impulses, and the hypothalamus regulates temperature, hunger and endocrine function.

Question 50Anatomy and Physiology

A patient's blood report shows a haematocrit of 55 per cent. Which interpretation is most appropriate for a first-year nursing student to record?

  1. The value indicates a platelet disorder
  2. The value is exactly normal for an adult male
  3. The value is below normal and suggests anaemia
  4. The value is above the normal adult range and suggests haemoconcentration or polycythaemia Correct answer.

Explanation

Normal haematocrit is roughly 40 to 50 per cent in adult males and 36 to 46 per cent in adult females, so 55 per cent is elevated. Raised haematocrit can reflect haemoconcentration from dehydration or a true increase in red cell mass as in polycythaemia, and it should be reported rather than ignored.