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TS DEECET practice questions

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Question 1General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which body is responsible for conducting the DEECET examination for admission into Diploma in Elementary Education courses in Telangana?

  1. Directorate of Government Examinations, Telangana Correct answer.
  2. National Testing Agency
  3. Telangana State Council of Higher Education
  4. University Grants Commission

Explanation

The DEECET is a state-level entrance test administered by the Directorate of Government Examinations in Telangana on behalf of the School Education Department. It governs admissions into D.El.Ed. programmes across government and private DIETs and colleges. National bodies such as the UGC and NTA do not conduct this state examination.

Question 2General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The DEECET is used for admission to which of the following teacher education programmes?

  1. Master of Education (M.Ed.)
  2. Bachelor of Education (B.Ed.)
  3. Diploma in Elementary Education (D.El.Ed.) Correct answer.
  4. Diploma in Physical Education

Explanation

DEECET stands for Diploma in Elementary Education Common Entrance Test, so it is the gateway for D.El.Ed. courses that prepare elementary school teachers. B.Ed. and M.Ed. admissions are handled through separate entrance processes such as the TS Ed.CET and PG entrance tests. This makes the D.El.Ed. the only programme directly linked to DEECET.

Question 3General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which constitutional amendment inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged six to fourteen?

  1. 86th Amendment Correct answer.
  2. 93rd Amendment
  3. 42nd Amendment
  4. 44th Amendment

Explanation

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 inserted Article 21A into Part III of the Constitution and led to the enactment of the Right to Education Act in 2009. It made elementary education a fundamental right for children between six and fourteen years. The other amendments dealt with unrelated subjects such as anti-defection and property rights.

Question 4General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Under the Right to Education Act 2009, the pupil-teacher ratio prescribed at the primary level is:

  1. 1:50
  2. 1:40
  3. 1:30 Correct answer.
  4. 1:20

Explanation

The RTE Act Schedule specifies a pupil-teacher ratio of 30:1 at the primary stage and 35:1 at the upper primary stage. These ratios are mandatory for recognition of schools. Maintaining them ensures that each child receives adequate attention in the classroom.

Question 5General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to provide free and compulsory education to children up to fourteen years as a Directive Principle?

  1. Article 51A
  2. Article 45 Correct answer.
  3. Article 46
  4. Article 39

Explanation

Article 45 originally directed the State to provide free and compulsory education for children up to fourteen years within ten years of the Constitution's commencement. After the 86th Amendment, it was reworded to cover early childhood care and education for children below six years. Article 51A deals with fundamental duties, not this directive.

Question 6General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The National Education Policy 2020 replaced which earlier policy document that had guided Indian education since 1986?

  1. Kothari Commission Report 1966
  2. Yashpal Committee Report 1993
  3. National Policy on Education 1968
  4. National Policy on Education 1986 Correct answer.

Explanation

The NEP 2020 is the successor to the National Policy on Education 1986, which was revised in 1992. The 1968 policy was the first such document and was superseded by the 1986 policy. Commission and committee reports are advisory documents rather than national policies.

Question 7General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which official language is used for the DEECET question paper in addition to English, reflecting the linguistic policy of Telangana?

  1. Telugu Correct answer.
  2. Hindi
  3. Kannada
  4. Tamil

Explanation

The DEECET question paper is typically offered in English and Telugu so that candidates from the state's majority language can attempt it comfortably. Telugu is the official language of Telangana and is widely used in its school system. Hindi, Tamil and Kannada are not standard mediums for this examination.

Question 8General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, launched in 2001, was primarily aimed at achieving which goal?

  1. Universal higher secondary education
  2. Vocational skill training for youth
  3. Adult literacy only
  4. Universal elementary education Correct answer.

Explanation

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan was launched to universalise elementary education by improving access, retention and quality in schools. It later merged into the umbrella scheme Samagra Shiksha. Its focus was on children aged six to fourteen, in line with the constitutional mandate.

Question 9General Knowledge and Current Affairs

In the context of Indian education, what does the term 'inclusive education' primarily mean?

  1. Restricting admission based on entrance tests
  2. Providing free textbooks to all students
  3. Teaching all students in separate special schools
  4. Educating children with disabilities and diverse needs alongside their peers in regular classrooms Correct answer.

Explanation

Inclusive education means that children with disabilities and other diverse learning needs are taught in mainstream classrooms with appropriate support. It is grounded in the principle of equity and is reinforced by the RTE Act and the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act. Segregation into special schools is the opposite of inclusion.

Question 10General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the nodal agency at the national level for implementing the Right to Education Act?

  1. National Council for Teacher Education
  2. Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. Planning Commission
  4. Ministry of Education Correct answer.

Explanation

The Ministry of Education, formerly the Ministry of Human Resource Development, is the nodal authority for the RTE Act at the national level. It frames rules, monitors implementation and coordinates with states. The NCTE regulates teacher education but does not administer the Act overall.

Question 11General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The Right to Education Act 2009 mandates that no child shall be held back or expelled till the completion of which class?

  1. Class III
  2. Class X
  3. Class VIII Correct answer.
  4. Class V

Explanation

Section 16 of the RTE Act provides that no child shall be held back or expelled till the completion of elementary education, which ends at Class VIII. This 'no detention' provision was intended to prevent dropout. It has since been amended to allow state-level flexibility after Class V.

Question 12General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which commission is credited with recommending a 10+2+3 structure for Indian school and college education?

  1. Mudaliar Commission
  2. Radhakrishnan Commission
  3. Kothari Commission Correct answer.
  4. Hunter Commission

Explanation

The Kothari Commission of 1964-66 recommended a uniform 10+2+3 pattern of education across the country, which was later adopted in the National Policy on Education 1968. This structure standardised school and undergraduate education nationwide. The other commissions addressed different aspects of education.

Question 13General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The mid-day meal scheme in Telangana schools is currently implemented under which national programme?

  1. Antyodaya Anna Yojana
  2. Ayushman Bharat
  3. PM POSHAN Correct answer.
  4. Samagra Shiksha

Explanation

The national mid-day meal scheme was renamed PM POSHAN, or Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman, in 2021. It provides hot cooked meals to school children to improve nutrition and attendance. Samagra Shiksha is an umbrella education scheme but the meal component is branded PM POSHAN.

Question 14General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which of the following best describes the role of the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)?

  1. Designing state school syllabi
  2. Regulating standards for teacher education programmes Correct answer.
  3. Conducting teacher recruitment examinations
  4. Distributing scholarships to student teachers

Explanation

The NCTE is a statutory body established under the NCTE Act 1993 to regulate and maintain standards in teacher education. It approves teacher education institutions and lays down norms for courses such as D.El.Ed. Recruitment and syllabus design are handled by state and other national agencies.

Question 15General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The term 'pedagogy' in the D.El.Ed. curriculum most closely refers to:

  1. The study of school buildings and infrastructure
  2. The legal rules for school administration
  3. The theory and practice of teaching methods Correct answer.
  4. The history of examination systems

Explanation

Pedagogy is the discipline concerned with the theory and methods of teaching, including how children learn and how instruction should be designed. It is a core area of the D.El.Ed. curriculum. It does not refer to infrastructure, administration or examination history.

Question 16General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage 2022 is built around which pedagogical approach?

  1. Online-only instruction
  2. Lecture-based instruction
  3. Play-based and activity-based learning Correct answer.
  4. Rote memorisation of textbooks

Explanation

The NCF for the Foundational Stage 2022 recommends play-based, activity-based and child-centred learning for children aged three to eight. This aligns with the NEP 2020's foundational literacy and numeracy mission. Rote and lecture methods are discouraged at this stage.

Question 17General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which body prepares the National Achievement Survey (NAS) that assesses learning outcomes of school students in India?

  1. UGC
  2. NCTE
  3. AICTE
  4. NCERT Correct answer.

Explanation

The National Achievement Survey is designed and conducted by the NCERT under the Ministry of Education to assess learning outcomes at Classes III, V, VIII and X. It provides evidence for improving school education quality. UGC, AICTE and NCTE have different mandates in higher and teacher education.

Question 18General Knowledge and Current Affairs

In Telangana, the SCERT is primarily responsible for:

  1. Developing curricula, textbooks and teacher training for school education Correct answer.
  2. Recruiting police personnel
  3. Regulating private school fees
  4. Conducting university examinations

Explanation

The State Council of Educational Research and Training develops school curricula, prepares textbooks and organises teacher training in Telangana. It works in coordination with the NCERT and the state education department. University examinations and fee regulation are handled by other bodies.

Question 19General Knowledge and Current Affairs

The 'no detention' provision of the RTE Act was amended in 2019 to allow states to detain students after which class?

  1. Class V Correct answer.
  2. Class IX
  3. Class III
  4. Class VII

Explanation

The RTE (Amendment) Act 2019 permitted states to hold back students in Class V or Class VIII after a re-examination, giving them flexibility. The original Act prohibited detention until Class VIII. This amendment was introduced to address concerns about learning outcomes.

Question 20General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Which of these is a fundamental duty under Article 51A that relates directly to education?

  1. To pay taxes promptly
  2. To vote in elections
  3. To provide opportunities for education to children between six and fourteen years by parents or guardians Correct answer.
  4. To protect national monuments

Explanation

Article 51A(k), inserted by the 86th Amendment, makes it a fundamental duty of parents and guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children aged six to fourteen. This complements the fundamental right under Article 21A. Voting, tax payment and monument protection are separate duties.

Question 21Mathematics

The value of (1 + i)^2, where i is the imaginary unit, is:

  1. -2
  2. 2i Correct answer.
  3. 2
  4. -2i

Explanation

Expanding (1 + i)^2 = 1 + 2i + i^2. Since i^2 = -1, the expression becomes 1 + 2i - 1 = 2i, so the real part cancels and only the imaginary term remains.

Question 22Mathematics

If the roots of the quadratic equation x^2 - 5x + 6 = 0 are α and β, then the value of α + β is:

  1. 6
  2. -6
  3. -5
  4. 5 Correct answer.

Explanation

For a quadratic ax^2 + bx + c = 0, the sum of roots equals -b/a. Here a = 1 and b = -5, so α + β = 5. The product of roots would be c/a = 6.

Question 23Mathematics

The 10th term of the arithmetic progression 3, 7, 11, 15, ... is:

  1. 43
  2. 47
  3. 39 Correct answer.
  4. 35

Explanation

The first term a = 3 and the common difference d = 4. The nth term is a + (n-1)d, so the 10th term is 3 + 9 × 4 = 3 + 36 = 39.

Question 24Mathematics

The slope of the straight line passing through the points (2, 3) and (6, 11) is:

  1. 4
  2. 2 Correct answer.
  3. 1/2
  4. 1/4

Explanation

Slope equals the change in y divided by the change in x: (11 - 3)/(6 - 2) = 8/4 = 2. This measures the steepness and direction of the line joining the two points.

Question 25Mathematics

The value of sin 30° + cos 60° is:

  1. 1/2
  2. √3/2
  3. 1 Correct answer.
  4. 0

Explanation

Both sin 30° and cos 60° equal 1/2, since sine and cosine are complementary. Their sum is therefore 1/2 + 1/2 = 1.

Question 26Mathematics

The number of ways to arrange the letters of the word 'LEVEL' is:

  1. 60 Correct answer.
  2. 120
  3. 20
  4. 30

Explanation

The word LEVEL has 5 letters with L repeated twice and E repeated twice. The number of distinct arrangements is 5!/(2! × 2!) = 120/4 = 30.

Question 27Mathematics

The probability of getting a sum of 7 when two fair dice are rolled is:

  1. 7/36
  2. 1/6 Correct answer.
  3. 1/9
  4. 5/36

Explanation

There are 36 equally likely outcomes when two dice are rolled. The pairs summing to 7 are (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1), giving 6 favourable outcomes, so the probability is 6/36 = 1/6.

Question 28Mathematics

The derivative of x^3 with respect to x is:

  1. x^2
  2. x^4/4
  3. 3x^2 Correct answer.
  4. 3x

Explanation

Using the power rule, the derivative of x^n is n·x^(n-1). Applying it with n = 3 gives 3x^2, which represents the instantaneous rate of change of x^3.

Question 29Mathematics

The determinant of the 2×2 matrix with rows (3, 4) and (1, 2) is:

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 6
  4. 2 Correct answer.

Explanation

For a matrix [[a, b], [c, d]] the determinant is ad - bc. Here it is (3)(2) - (4)(1) = 6 - 4 = 2, which measures the signed area scaling of the linear map.

Question 30Mathematics

The value of the limit as x approaches 2 of (x^2 - 4)/(x - 2) is:

  1. 4 Correct answer.
  2. 2
  3. does not exist
  4. 0

Explanation

Factor the numerator as (x - 2)(x + 2). For x ≠ 2 the factor (x - 2) cancels, leaving x + 2, whose limit as x approaches 2 is 4. The function has a removable discontinuity at x = 2.

Question 31Mathematics

The integral from 0 to 1 of (3x^2 + 2x) dx equals:

  1. 5
  2. 1
  3. 2 Correct answer.
  4. 3

Explanation

The antiderivative is x^3 + x^2. Evaluating from 0 to 1 gives (1 + 1) - (0 + 0) = 2, which is the area under the curve between the given limits.

Question 32Mathematics

If A and B are independent events with P(A) = 0.4 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A ∩ B) is:

  1. 0.1
  2. 0.9
  3. 0.45
  4. 0.2 Correct answer.

Explanation

For independent events, the probability of both occurring is the product of their probabilities. Thus P(A ∩ B) = 0.4 × 0.5 = 0.2, not the sum used for mutually exclusive events.

Question 33Mathematics

The distance between the parallel lines 3x + 4y = 10 and 3x + 4y = 20 is:

  1. 2 Correct answer.
  2. 10
  3. 5
  4. 1

Explanation

For parallel lines ax + by = c1 and ax + by = c2, the distance is |c1 - c2|/√(a^2 + b^2). Here it is |10 - 20|/√(9 + 16) = 10/5 = 2.

Question 34Mathematics

The general solution of the differential equation dy/dx = 2x is:

  1. y = 2 + C
  2. y = x^2 + C Correct answer.
  3. y = x^2/2 + C
  4. y = 2x + C

Explanation

Integrating both sides with respect to x gives y = ∫2x dx = x^2 + C, where C is an arbitrary constant. Differentiating x^2 + C returns 2x, confirming the solution.

Question 35Mathematics

The value of the binomial coefficient C(7, 3) is:

  1. 42
  2. 35 Correct answer.
  3. 21
  4. 210

Explanation

C(n, r) = n!/(r!(n - r)!). For n = 7 and r = 3 this is 7!/(3! × 4!) = (7 × 6 × 5)/(3 × 2 × 1) = 35, the number of 3-element subsets of a 7-element set.

Question 36Mathematics

In a triangle ABC, if a = 7, b = 8 and angle C = 60°, then the length of side c is:

  1. 13
  2. √15
  3. √113
  4. √57 Correct answer.

Explanation

By the cosine rule, c^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2ab·cos C = 49 + 64 - 2(7)(8)(1/2) = 113 - 56 = 57, so c = √57. The cosine rule generalises Pythagoras to non-right triangles.

Question 37Mathematics

The modulus of the complex number 3 - 4i is:

  1. 7
  2. 25
  3. 1
  4. 5 Correct answer.

Explanation

The modulus of a + bi is √(a^2 + b^2). Here √(9 + 16) = √25 = 5, the distance of the point (3, -4) from the origin in the complex plane.

Question 38Mathematics

The sum of the infinite geometric series 1 + 1/3 + 1/9 + 1/27 + ... is:

  1. 3/2 Correct answer.
  2. 9/4
  3. 3
  4. 2

Explanation

For an infinite geometric series with |r| < 1, the sum is a/(1 - r). Here a = 1 and r = 1/3, so the sum is 1/(1 - 1/3) = 1/(2/3) = 3/2. The series converges because the ratio is less than one in magnitude.

Question 39Mathematics

The inverse of the matrix [[2, 1], [1, 1]] is:

  1. [[1, -1], [-1, 2]] Correct answer.
  2. [[-1, 1], [1, -2]]
  3. [[2, -1], [-1, 1]]
  4. [[1, 1], [1, 2]]

Explanation

The determinant is (2)(1) - (1)(1) = 1. The inverse of [[a, b], [c, d]] is (1/det)[[d, -b], [-c, a]], giving [[1, -1], [-1, 2]]. Multiplying it by the original matrix yields the identity.

Question 40Mathematics

The slope of the tangent to the curve y = x^2 at the point (3, 9) is:

  1. 6 Correct answer.
  2. 12
  3. 3
  4. 9

Explanation

Differentiating y = x^2 gives dy/dx = 2x. At x = 3 the slope is 2 × 3 = 6, which is the instantaneous rate of change of the curve at that point.

Question 41Mathematics

The value of the integral from 0 to π/2 of sin x dx is:

  1. 1 Correct answer.
  2. π/2
  3. 0
  4. -1

Explanation

The antiderivative of sin x is -cos x. Evaluating from 0 to π/2 gives -cos(π/2) - (-cos 0) = 0 + 1 = 1, the area under one quarter of the sine wave.

Question 42Mathematics

If the roots of x^2 - kx + 9 = 0 are equal, then the positive value of k is:

  1. 18
  2. 6 Correct answer.
  3. 9
  4. 3

Explanation

Equal roots require the discriminant b^2 - 4ac to be zero. Here k^2 - 36 = 0, so k = ±6, and the positive value is 6. The double root is then x = k/2 = 3.

Question 43Mathematics

The locus of a point that moves so that its distance from the point (2, 0) equals its distance from the y-axis is:

  1. y^2 = 4x + 4
  2. y^2 = 4x - 4 Correct answer.
  3. x^2 = 4y
  4. y^2 = 8x

Explanation

Let the point be (x, y). Its distance to (2, 0) is √((x - 2)^2 + y^2) and its distance to the y-axis is |x|. Equating the squares gives (x - 2)^2 + y^2 = x^2, which simplifies to y^2 = 4x - 4, a parabola with focus (2, 0).

Question 44Mathematics

The coefficient of x^3 in the expansion of (1 + 2x)^5 is:

  1. 80 Correct answer.
  2. 40
  3. 160
  4. 10

Explanation

By the binomial theorem, the term containing x^3 is C(5, 3)(2x)^3 = 10 × 8x^3 = 80x^3. The coefficient is therefore 80, combining the combinatorial count with the cube of the coefficient 2.

Question 45Mathematics

The maximum value of the function f(x) = x^3 - 3x^2 + 4 on the interval [-1, 3] is:

  1. 2
  2. 4 Correct answer.
  3. 0
  4. 8

Explanation

Setting f'(x) = 3x^2 - 6x = 0 gives critical points x = 0 and x = 2. Evaluating f gives f(-1) = 0, f(0) = 4, f(2) = 0 and f(3) = 4, so the maximum value is 4, attained at both x = 0 and x = 3.

Question 46Mathematics

In a class of 40 students, 25 play cricket and 20 play volleyball. Every student plays at least one of the two games. The number of students who play both games is:

  1. 5 Correct answer.
  2. 15
  3. 45
  4. 20

Explanation

By the inclusion–exclusion principle for two sets, n(C ∪ V) = n(C) + n(V) − n(C ∩ V). Substituting 40 = 25 + 20 − n(C ∩ V) gives n(C ∩ V) = 45 − 40 = 5. The overlap counts students who appear in both lists, so it must be subtracted once.

Question 47Mathematics

A bag contains 5 red and 4 black balls. Two balls are drawn one after another without replacement. The probability that both balls are red is:

  1. 5/18 Correct answer.
  2. 5/9
  3. 25/81
  4. 4/9

Explanation

The probability the first ball is red is 5/9. Given that, 4 red balls remain among 8 balls, so the second is red with probability 4/8 = 1/2. Multiplying gives (5/9)(1/2) = 5/18.

Question 48Mathematics

The mean of five observations is 12. When one observation is removed, the mean of the remaining four becomes 11. The removed observation is:

  1. 16 Correct answer.
  2. 15
  3. 12
  4. 11

Explanation

The total of all five observations is 5 × 12 = 60, and the total of the remaining four is 4 × 11 = 44. The removed observation is the difference, 60 − 44 = 16.

Question 49Mathematics

The 7th term of the arithmetic progression 3, 7, 11, 15, ... is:

  1. 27 Correct answer.
  2. 23
  3. 28
  4. 31

Explanation

Here the first term a = 3 and the common difference d = 4. The nth term is a + (n − 1)d, so the 7th term is 3 + 6 × 4 = 27.

Question 50Mathematics

If the 3rd term of a geometric progression is 12 and the 6th term is 96, then the common ratio of the progression is:

  1. 4
  2. 2 Correct answer.
  3. 3
  4. 8

Explanation

Dividing the 6th term by the 3rd term gives ar⁵ / ar² = r³ = 96/12 = 8. Taking the cube root gives r = 2.