ATPL Air Law & Operational Procedures flashcards
ATPL Air Law & Operational Procedures · Build recall with a focused review session.
32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- Chicago Convention Article 1
- Every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory, which includes territorial waters; no State may fly over another's territory without permission or agreement.
- ICAO Council
- A permanent 36-State body elected by the Assembly for three years; it adopts SARPs as Annexes, issues recommendations and manages ICAO's work between Assemblies.
- Article 38 differences
- A State that cannot comply with an international standard must notify ICAO of the difference; the difference is then published in the State's AIP and in ICAO documents.
- EASA Basic Regulation
- Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 is directly applicable in all EU Member States; it establishes EASA and sets the framework for airworthiness, licensing, operations, ATM/ANS and aerodrome safety.
- Part-CAT
- Annex IV to Regulation (EU) 965/2012 containing the rules for commercial air transport by aeroplanes and helicopters, including operating minima, fuel policy and performance.
- Part-TCO authorisation
- A third-country operator authorisation; a non-EU operator must hold it to perform commercial air transport into, within or out of the EU, and it is issued by EASA.
- Certificate of registration
- Issued by the State of registry, it records the aircraft's nationality and registration marks, owner and operator; an aircraft cannot be validly registered in more than one State at a time.
- Airworthiness Review Certificate
- An EU document confirming the aircraft's continuing airworthiness, valid for one year, issued after an airworthiness review by a CAMO or a Part-145 organisation.
- Article 83 bis transfer
- A provision allowing the State of registry to transfer to the State of the operator responsibility for licensing, operations and airworthiness functions for aircraft operated under lease, charter or interchange.
- Noise certificate
- Issued under ICAO Annex 16 Volume I, it shows that the aircraft meets the applicable noise certification standard and must be carried on board.
- Class 1 medical certificate
- Required for CPL, ATPL and MPL holders; in the EU it is valid 12 months, reduced to 6 months for single-pilot commercial transport with passengers once the holder is 40.
- ICAO language proficiency
- Pilots must show at least Level 4 (operational); Level 4 and 5 are re-tested every 4 and 6 years respectively, while Level 6 is valid permanently.
- Instrument rating validity
- In the EU an instrument rating is valid for 12 months and is revalidated by a proficiency check; after expiry it must be renewed with refresher training and a check.
- Flight time limits ORO.FTL.210
- Flight time must not exceed 100 hours in any 28 consecutive days, 900 hours in a calendar year, or 1 000 hours in any 12 consecutive calendar months.
- Air operator certificate
- Issued by the competent authority, it certifies that the operator has the organisation, procedures, aircraft and personnel required to conduct commercial air transport safely.
- Final reserve fuel
- Thirty minutes of holding fuel at 1 500 ft above the alternate aerodrome, computed at the expected landing mass; it must still be on board at landing.
- Minimum Equipment List
- Derived from the master minimum equipment list but tailored to the operator's fleet and approved by the authority; it lists items that may be inoperative for dispatch.
- VMC minima above 3050 m
- Flight visibility of 8 km and a distance of 1 500 m horizontally and 300 m vertically from cloud.
- Semicircular cruising levels rule
- Cruising levels follow magnetic track: 000 to 179 degrees uses odd flight levels and 180 to 359 uses even levels, keeping opposite-direction traffic 1 000 ft apart.
- Right of way converging
- When two aircraft converge at the same level the one with the other on its right gives way; head-on both turn right; the overtaking aircraft keeps to the right.
- Squawk 7600
- The SSR code for radio communication failure; the pilot follows the last clearance or published procedure, keeps VMC if possible and lands as soon as practicable.
- Aerodrome reference code 4E
- Code number 4 means a runway of 1 800 m or more; letter E means an aeroplane wingspan of 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
- PAPI indications
- Precision approach path indicator: four units show four white when too high, two white and two red on the correct path, four red when too low; usually set at 3 degrees.
- Runway end safety area
- A cleared area beyond the runway end that reduces damage in an overrun or undershoot; ICAO requires at least 90 m and the EU 240 m at code 3 and 4 aerodromes.
- V1
- Take-off decision speed: the speed by which the decision to continue or reject must be made, so that the accelerate-stop and accelerate-go distances are balanced.
- Stabilised approach gate
- The operator's criteria for configuration, speed, path and thrust must be met by 1 000 ft in IMC or 500 ft in VMC, otherwise a go-around is flown.
- Take-off alternate
- An aerodrome where the aircraft can land if the take-off cannot be continued; normally required within one hour at one-engine-inoperative speed when the destination is not usable.
- Emergency descent
- Turn off the assigned track, descend at VMO/MMO or the published speed to 10 000 ft or the minimum safe altitude, and set oxygen; ATC is informed.
- TCAS resolution advisory
- Manoeuvre immediately as directed, call 'TCAS RA', ignore conflicting ATC instructions, and call 'Clear of conflict' when the advisory ends.
- MAYDAY FUEL
- Declared when an aircraft will land with less than final reserve fuel; it is an emergency giving priority, whereas MINIMUM FUEL only advises that no further delay is possible.
- Annex 13 accident
- An occurrence in aircraft operation in which a person is fatally or seriously injured, the aircraft is substantially damaged, or the aircraft is missing.
- Annex 13 participating States
- The State of Occurrence conducts the investigation; the States of Registry, Operator, Design and Manufacture may participate and appoint accredited representatives.