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ATPL Air Law & Operational Procedures study materials
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ATPL Air Law & Operational Procedures practice questions

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Question 1International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Under the Chicago Convention, what principle governs the airspace above each contracting State's territory?

  1. Commercial air transport may pass through any contracting State's airspace without prior permission.
  2. Airspace above the high seas is divided among contracting States by ICAO.
  3. Sovereignty over airspace is held jointly by ICAO and the State of registry.
  4. Each State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 1 of the Chicago Convention provides that every contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. Article 2 confirms that territory includes the land areas and territorial waters under the sovereignty of that State. No other State or ICAO itself holds airspace sovereignty.

Question 2International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Which ICAO body is the sovereign organ that meets at least once every three years and reviews the work of the Organization?

  1. The Council
  2. The Air Navigation Commission
  3. The Secretariat
  4. The Assembly Correct answer.

Explanation

The Assembly is the sovereign body of ICAO, composed of representatives of all contracting States, and it meets at least once every three years. It reviews the Organization's work, sets policy and approves the budget. The Council is the permanent governing body, while the Air Navigation Commission and Secretariat are subordinate bodies.

Question 3International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Pilot licensing, including the issue of flight crew licences and ratings, is governed primarily by which ICAO Annex?

  1. Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
  2. Annex 8 - Airworthiness of Aircraft
  3. Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing Correct answer.
  4. Annex 2 - Rules of the Air

Explanation

Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention contains the International Standards and Recommended Practices for Personnel Licensing, including flight crew licences and ratings. Annex 2 deals with rules of the air, Annex 6 with aircraft operations, and Annex 8 with airworthiness. Licensing requirements are therefore found in Annex 1.

Question 4International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An airline plans to operate a scheduled international air service carrying passengers for remuneration between two contracting States. Under the Chicago Convention, what is required before the service may begin?

  1. A notification to ICAO's Air Navigation Commission.
  2. Nothing, because the Convention grants scheduled services the same freedom as non-scheduled flights.
  3. Special permission or other authorization from each State whose territory is entered. Correct answer.
  4. Only a flight plan filed with the State of registry.

Explanation

Article 6 of the Chicago Convention states that no scheduled international air service may be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State except with special permission or other authorization from that State. Such permission may be given through bilateral air services agreements. Filing a flight plan or notifying ICAO does not replace that State authorization.

Question 5International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

A contracting State adopts a domestic rule that is less stringent than an International Standard in an ICAO Annex. What does the Chicago Convention require the State to do?

  1. Apply to the ICAO Council for an exemption before the rule may be used.
  2. Withdraw from the Convention until the rule is brought into conformity.
  3. Notify ICAO of the difference between its practice and the International Standard. Correct answer.
  4. Issue an Aeronautical Information Circular to all other States only.

Explanation

Under Article 38 of the Chicago Convention, a State that finds it impracticable to comply with an International Standard or to bring its own regulations into full accord must give immediate notification to ICAO of the differences. It must also notify any subsequent changes to those differences. The Convention does not require prior Council approval or withdrawal.

Question 6International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An aeroplane registered in State B and operated by an airline in State C crashes on the territory of State A, causing fatal injuries. Under Annex 13, which State is responsible for instituting and conducting the accident investigation?

  1. State C, because the operator has the closest operational knowledge.
  2. The State designated by agreement among State B, State C and the manufacturer.
  3. State B, because it is the State of registry.
  4. State A, because the accident occurred in its territory. Correct answer.

Explanation

Annex 13 makes the State of Occurrence responsible for instituting an investigation into an accident and for conducting it, although it may delegate the task to another State. The State of Registry, State of Operator, State of Design and State of Manufacture are normally entitled to appoint accredited representatives. Responsibility therefore rests with State A unless it delegates.

Question 7International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

A foreign carrier wants to pick up passengers at one airport in State X and set them down at another airport within State X, all for remuneration. Under Article 7 of the Chicago Convention, what is the position?

  1. It is permitted if ICAO approves the route as an international service.
  2. State X may refuse permission, since cabotage is reserved to its own carriers. Correct answer.
  3. It is permitted automatically because the flight remains within the same flight information region.
  4. It is permitted only if the passengers hold visas for State X.

Explanation

Article 7 recognises each contracting State's right to refuse permission to the aircraft of other States to take on, for remuneration, passengers, mail or cargo destined for another point within its own territory. This carriage is cabotage and is reserved to the State's national carriers. Visa rules are irrelevant to the grant of cabotage rights.

Question 8International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An aircraft is flying over the high seas. Which rules of the air apply to the flight?

  1. The rules established under the Chicago Convention for application over the high seas. Correct answer.
  2. The rules of the State whose airspace the aircraft last entered.
  3. The rules of the State of departure, because the flight began there.
  4. The rules of the State of registry only, because the aircraft is on its register.

Explanation

Article 12 of the Chicago Convention requires each contracting State to keep its own rules of the air uniform to the greatest possible extent with those established under the Convention. Over the high seas, the rules in force are specifically those established under the Convention, namely Annex 2. National rules of the State of registry do not displace that international framework over the high seas.

Question 9International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An aircraft does not fully meet the international airworthiness standard at the time of certification. What must appear on or be attached to its certificate of airworthiness under Article 39 of the Chicago Convention?

  1. A statement that the aircraft is restricted from all international flight.
  2. An ICAO registration number replacing the State of registry marks.
  3. A waiver signed by the operator accepting liability for the deficiency.
  4. A complete enumeration of the details in which it fails to satisfy the standard. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 39 requires that an aircraft or part that failed in any respect to satisfy the applicable international airworthiness or performance standard at the time of certification must have endorsed on or attached to its certificate a complete enumeration of the details of that failure. The same principle applies to licences that do not fully meet the relevant international standard. Such endorsement discloses the deficiency rather than automatically prohibiting flight.

Question 10International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

How is an Annex to the Chicago Convention adopted or amended, and when does it become effective?

  1. By a simple majority of the Council, effective one year after adoption for every contracting State without exception.
  2. By a unanimous vote of the Assembly at a special meeting, effective immediately when the vote is taken.
  3. By a two-thirds vote of the Council, effective within three months unless a majority of States disapprove. Correct answer.
  4. By the Air Navigation Commission alone, effective as soon as it is published.

Explanation

Article 90 of the Chicago Convention provides that Annexes are adopted or amended by a two-thirds vote of the Council. The Council must then notify contracting States, and the Annex or amendment becomes effective within three months unless a majority of contracting States register disapproval. This procedure allows States to object before the change becomes binding.

Question 11International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Within ICAO, which body is a permanent organ responsible to the Assembly and consists of member States elected by the Assembly for a three-year term?

  1. The Assembly
  2. The Secretariat
  3. The Air Navigation Commission
  4. The Council Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 50 of the Chicago Convention establishes the Council as a permanent organ responsible to the Assembly. The Assembly elects the Council's member States for a three-year term, and the Council carries out the Organization's continuing work between Assembly sessions. The Air Navigation Commission is a technical body, and the Secretariat is the administrative staff.

Question 12International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Which ICAO Annex is dedicated to the overarching framework for State Safety Programmes and Safety Management Systems?

  1. Annex 19 - Safety Management Correct answer.
  2. Annex 14 - Aerodromes
  3. Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
  4. Annex 17 - Security

Explanation

Annex 19 is the ICAO Annex dedicated to safety management and consolidates the framework for State Safety Programmes and Safety Management Systems. Annex 6 contains operational standards for aircraft operations, Annex 17 addresses security, and Annex 14 addresses aerodromes.

Question 13International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Which statement correctly reflects Article 3 of the Chicago Convention regarding state aircraft?

  1. State aircraft may overfly another contracting State without authorization if the flight is non-scheduled.
  2. State aircraft are treated as civil aircraft whenever they operate outside national airspace.
  3. The Convention applies to state aircraft only when they carry passengers for remuneration.
  4. The Convention does not apply to state aircraft, and no state aircraft may fly over or land in another State's territory without special authorization. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 3 states that the Convention applies only to civil aircraft and not to state aircraft, which include aircraft used in military, customs, and police services. No state aircraft may fly over or land in the territory of another contracting State without authorization by special agreement or otherwise, and in accordance with its terms.

Question 14International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

In an ICAO Annex, what is the essential difference between a Standard and a Recommended Practice?

  1. A Standard applies only to commercial air transport operators, whereas a Recommended Practice applies only to general aviation and private flights.
  2. A Standard is necessary for safety or regularity and States must conform or notify a difference; a Recommended Practice is desirable but not necessary. Correct answer.
  3. A Standard is adopted by the ICAO Council acting alone, whereas a Recommended Practice must be adopted by the ICAO Assembly in plenary session.
  4. A Standard is legally binding on every contracting State in all circumstances and admits no difference, whereas a Recommended Practice is purely advisory and creates no expectation of conformity.

Explanation

The Annex definitions distinguish Standards, whose uniform application is recognized as necessary for the safety or regularity of international air navigation and to which States conform or notify a difference under Article 38, from Recommended Practices, whose uniform application is desirable but not necessary. Both types are adopted through the ICAO Annex process and are not limited to one category of operator.

Question 15International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

A contracting State sets landing charges at an international airport used by foreign airlines. Under Article 15 of the Chicago Convention, which requirement applies to those charges?

  1. They must be based only on the aircraft's maximum take-off mass and need not be published.
  2. They must be approved individually by the ICAO Council before they are published.
  3. They may be set higher for foreign aircraft to recover the airport's full operating costs.
  4. They must not be higher than the charges paid by that State's national aircraft engaged in similar international air services. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 15 requires airport and air navigation charges to be not higher than those paid by a State's national aircraft engaged in similar international air services. The charges must also be published and communicated to ICAO, and the Council may review them if a contracting State complains.

Question 16International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An aircraft on an international flight enters a contracting State and intends to land. Under Article 10 of the Chicago Convention, where must it land unless the State has granted special permission or the flight is otherwise authorized?

  1. At the nearest aerodrome to the point of entry, regardless of customs status.
  2. At a customs airport designated by that State for the purpose. Correct answer.
  3. At an aerodrome selected by the operator and listed in its operations manual.
  4. At any aerodrome open to private flying, provided the pilot notifies the tower.

Explanation

Article 10 requires aircraft entering a contracting State to land at a customs airport designated by that State, unless special permission or a departure authorization applies. Departures must also be from a customs airport except where the State permits otherwise.

Question 17International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Which ICAO Annex Part contains the international SARPs specifically applicable to aeroplanes engaged in international commercial air transport operations?

  1. Annex 6, Part I Correct answer.
  2. Annex 6, Part II
  3. Annex 8
  4. Annex 14

Explanation

Annex 6, Part I contains the international Standards and Recommended Practices for international commercial air transport aeroplanes. Annex 6, Part II covers general aviation, Annex 6, Part III covers international helicopter operations, Annex 8 addresses airworthiness, and Annex 14 addresses aerodromes.

Question 18International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An aircraft of State A makes a non-scheduled international flight into State B and transits without landing. Under Article 5 of the Chicago Convention, what is the general position?

  1. State B may not impose any route, landing, or special-permission requirement on non-scheduled flights of other contracting States.
  2. State B must obtain and grant prior permission for every such non-scheduled transit flight before the aircraft may enter its airspace.
  3. State B may require landing, and for safety may prescribe routes or special permission, but prior permission is not generally required. Correct answer.
  4. The flight is legally a scheduled international air service and therefore requires a bilateral air services agreement between State A and State B.

Explanation

Article 5 gives non-scheduled aircraft the right to fly into or transit another contracting State without prior permission and to make stops for non-traffic purposes. The State flown over may require landing and, for safety reasons in specified circumstances, prescribe routes or require special permission.

Question 19International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

A contracting State intends to fly a remotely piloted aircraft over another contracting State's territory without a pilot on board. Under Article 8 of the Chicago Convention, what is required?

  1. Only an ICAO Council decision is required, because a pilotless aircraft is not covered by the Chicago Convention's authorization rules.
  2. Special authorization by the State overflown is required, and the flight must comply with the conditions attached to that authorization. Correct answer.
  3. Authorization is required only when the remotely piloted aircraft is used for commercial passenger transport or aerial work.
  4. No authorization is needed provided the remotely piloted aircraft stays below 150 metres above ground and remains clear of controlled airspace.

Explanation

Article 8 states that no aircraft capable of being flown without a pilot may be flown without a pilot over another contracting State's territory without special authorization by that State and in accordance with its conditions. States also undertake to regulate such flights so as to avoid danger to civil aircraft.

Question 20International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An aircraft registered in State R is leased to an operator whose principal place of business is in State O. Which mechanism does Article 83 bis of the Chicago Convention provide for transferring certain regulatory functions from State R to State O?

  1. An endorsement in the aircraft's certificate of airworthiness, issued by the manufacturer with ICAO approval.
  2. A resolution of the ICAO Assembly, adopted by a two-thirds majority, allocating the functions to State O.
  3. A unilateral declaration by the operator, filed with ICAO, stating which State will exercise the transferred functions.
  4. A bilateral agreement between State R and State O under which State O performs the transferred functions. Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 83 bis allows the State of Registry and the State of the Operator to agree to transfer all or part of the State of Registry's functions and duties under specified Convention articles for aircraft operated under lease, charter, or interchange. The State of Registry is relieved of responsibility for the functions and duties transferred.

Question 21International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Which ICAO Annex contains the Standards and Recommended Practices for the establishment and operation of air traffic services?

  1. Annex 17 - Security
  2. Annex 11 - Air Traffic Services Correct answer.
  3. Annex 14 - Aerodromes
  4. Annex 2 - Rules of the Air

Explanation

Annex 11 to the Chicago Convention is the Air Traffic Services Annex. It sets out the SARPs for the provision of air traffic control service, flight information service and alerting service. Annex 2 contains the rules of the air, Annex 14 covers aerodromes, and Annex 17 deals with aviation security.

Question 22International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

An aircraft on an international flight lands in State X with fuel, spare parts and stores still on board. Under Article 24 of the Chicago Convention, how must State X treat these items?

  1. They are exempt only if the operator is based in the State.
  2. They attract full customs duty immediately on landing.
  3. They are exempt from customs duty while retained on board. Correct answer.
  4. They are exempt only for scheduled international services.

Explanation

Article 24 provides that fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts, regular equipment and stores retained on board on arrival in, and departure from, the territory of another contracting State are exempt from customs duty, inspection fees or similar national charges. The exemption depends on the items remaining on board, not on the type of service or the operator's home base.

Question 23International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

Under Article 25 of the Chicago Convention, what undertaking does each contracting State make concerning an aircraft in distress over its territory?

  1. It must investigate and publish a public report within 30 days.
  2. It must provide practicable assistance and permit the operator's authorities to assist. Correct answer.
  3. It must order the aircraft to divert to a military aerodrome.
  4. It must allow landing at any airport without customs clearance.

Explanation

Article 25 requires each contracting State to provide such measures of assistance to an aircraft in distress in its territory as it may find practicable. It must also permit the aircraft's owners or the authorities of the State of registry to provide assistance, subject to control by the State's own authorities. The provision does not override customs or landing rules, nor does it impose an accident investigation deadline.

Question 24International air law framework (Chicago Convention, ICAO, annexes)

State A issues a certificate of airworthiness for an aircraft using national standards that fall below the ICAO minimum standards. The aircraft is then operated into State B. Under Article 33 of the Chicago Convention, which position is correct?

  1. State B must recognise it because the State of registry issued it.
  2. State B may refuse recognition because the standards fall below ICAO minimums. Correct answer.
  3. State B must issue its own certificate before entry.
  4. State B must refer the matter to the ICAO Council.

Explanation

Article 33 requires contracting States to recognise certificates of airworthiness and licences issued or rendered valid by the State of registry, provided the requirements under which they were issued are equal to or above the ICAO minimum standards. If those underlying requirements fall below the minimum standards, the receiving State is not obliged to recognise the certificate. Article 33 does not require automatic recognition, re-certification, or referral to the ICAO Council.

Question 25National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under EU Basic Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, which body issues type certificates for aircraft covered by that Regulation?

  1. The operator's national aviation authority
  2. ICAO
  3. EASA Correct answer.
  4. Eurocontrol

Explanation

Under the EU Basic Regulation, EASA issues type certificates for aircraft, engines and propellers covered by that Regulation. National aviation authorities handle other tasks such as operator oversight, but not EU type certification.

Question 26National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Following the UK's withdrawal from the EU, how is a licence issued by the UK CAA under UK Part-FCL treated by EASA Member States?

  1. A third-country licence requiring validation or recognition Correct answer.
  2. A UK-only document with no possible use on EASA aircraft
  3. An automatically recognised EASA Part-FCL licence
  4. An EASA licence because the UK applies retained EU rules

Explanation

Since the UK left the EU, it is not an EASA Member State and UK Part-FCL licences are no longer automatically recognised. EASA Member States treat them as third-country licences, subject to validation or recognition unless a specific agreement applies.

Question 27National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under EU Air Operations rules, which activity requires the operator to hold an air operator certificate (AOC)?

  1. Non-commercial specialised operations
  2. Private recreational flying
  3. Introductory training flights conducted by a club
  4. Commercial air transport with aeroplanes or helicopters Correct answer.

Explanation

Commercial air transport is the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire; under EU Air Operations rules it requires an AOC. Private and non-commercial specialised operations fall under different provisions and do not require a CAT AOC.

Question 28National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under Regulation (EU) No 376/2014, a mandatory occurrence report by a CAT operator must normally be submitted to the competent authority within what period after the person becomes aware?

  1. 72 hours Correct answer.
  2. 24 hours
  3. 48 hours
  4. 30 calendar days

Explanation

Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 requires the mandatory occurrence report to be submitted within 72 hours of the person becoming aware of the occurrence. This applies unless a shorter period is specified for a particular occurrence type.

Question 29National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under EU ORO.FTL, what is the minimum rest period at home base before a flight duty period?

  1. 14 hours
  2. 10 hours
  3. 8 hours
  4. 12 hours Correct answer.

Explanation

Under ORO.FTL.235 the minimum rest period at home base is at least 12 hours; away from home base it is at least 10 hours. The rest must be long enough to allow adequate sleep and recovery.

Question 30National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

For a CAT aeroplane operation, which document must be approved by the competent authority before the operator may dispatch with specified equipment inoperative?

  1. Master minimum equipment list (MMEL)
  2. Configuration deviation list (CDL)
  3. Aircraft flight manual (AFM)
  4. Minimum equipment list (MEL) Correct answer.

Explanation

The MEL is operator-specific and must be approved by the competent authority; it identifies equipment that may be inoperative while dispatch is permitted. The MMEL is the certification baseline, while the CDL covers missing external parts.

Question 31National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Which EASA output contains certification specifications and acceptable means of compliance adopted by the Executive Director?

  1. Decision Correct answer.
  2. Safety Directive
  3. Opinion
  4. Notice of Proposed Amendment (NPA)

Explanation

EASA adopts Decisions through its Executive Director; these contain certification specifications and acceptable means of compliance/guidance material. Opinions are addressed to the Commission, while NPAs are consultation documents.

Question 32National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under EU Part-M, what is the normal validity period of an airworthiness review certificate (ARC) for an aircraft?

  1. 3 years
  2. 1 year Correct answer.
  3. 2 years
  4. 6 months

Explanation

Under Part-M, an airworthiness review certificate is normally valid for one year. It confirms that the aircraft's airworthiness has been reviewed and that the certificate is issued after a satisfactory review.

Question 33National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

A third-country operator wants to perform commercial air transport into the EU. Which authorisation is required?

  1. An EASA Part-21 production organisation approval
  2. A third-country operator (TCO) authorisation issued by EASA Correct answer.
  3. An ICAO Article 83 bis agreement
  4. An EU air operator certificate issued by any Member State

Explanation

A non-EU operator conducting commercial air transport into, within or out of the EU must hold a TCO authorisation issued by EASA. An EU AOC is held by EU operators, and Part-21 approval concerns design/production, not flight operations.

Question 34National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under the EU rulemaking process, which body adopts the implementing rules for civil aviation safety after receiving EASA's opinion?

  1. The EASA Executive Director
  2. The European Commission Correct answer.
  3. The European Parliament
  4. The Council of the European Union

Explanation

EASA gives an Opinion to the European Commission, which then adopts implementing rules through comitology. The European Parliament and Council adopt the basic framework, not the detailed implementing rules.

Question 35National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Within the EASA regulatory framework, which State is an EASA Member State although it is not an EU Member State?

  1. Serbia
  2. Switzerland Correct answer.
  3. Turkey
  4. Ukraine

Explanation

EASA membership extends beyond the EU to Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. Switzerland participates in EASA through the EU-Swiss air transport arrangements, but it is not an EU Member State.

Question 36National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

In the EASA rulemaking process, which document is published to invite public comment on a proposed change to aviation safety rules?

  1. Comment Response Document
  2. Notice of Proposed Amendment Correct answer.
  3. Type Certificate Data Sheet
  4. Certification Specification

Explanation

EASA issues a Notice of Proposed Amendment to explain the proposed rulemaking task and invite comments from stakeholders. After consultation it publishes a Comment Response Document and then a final Opinion.

Question 37National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under the EU Basic Regulation, which operation falls outside the scope of the Regulation?

  1. Non-commercial operation of a complex motor-powered aeroplane
  2. Commercial air transport by an EU operator
  3. Military aircraft operations Correct answer.
  4. Operations at an aerodrome open to public use

Explanation

The Basic Regulation expressly does not apply to aircraft and operations used in military, customs, police, search and rescue, firefighting, border control, coast guard or similar activities. Commercial and non-commercial operations of covered aircraft, and covered aerodromes, remain within its scope.

Question 38National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

In Regulation (EU) 2018/1139, which Annex contains the essential requirements for airworthiness?

  1. Annex IV
  2. Annex III
  3. Annex II Correct answer.
  4. Annex I

Explanation

Annex II of the EU Basic Regulation sets out the essential requirements for airworthiness. Annex I lists excluded aircraft, Annex III covers pilot licensing and Annex IV covers air operations.

Question 39National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Which EASA body has jurisdiction to hear an appeal against an EASA decision taken under the EU Basic Regulation?

  1. The Board of Appeal Correct answer.
  2. The European Court of Auditors
  3. The Management Board
  4. The Executive Director

Explanation

The EASA Board of Appeal hears appeals against decisions of the Agency, such as certification or approval decisions. The Management Board is the agency's governing body, while the Executive Director manages the Agency.

Question 40National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under Regulation (EU) No 376/2014, which database is managed by EASA to store mandatory occurrence reports forwarded by Member States?

  1. The National Occurrence Archive
  2. The EASA Safety Information Bulletin database
  3. The European Central Repository Correct answer.
  4. The EASA Rulemaking Repository

Explanation

Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 requires occurrence reports to be stored in the European Central Repository, which EASA manages. Safety Information Bulletins and rulemaking documents serve different purposes and are not the occurrence database.

Question 41National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

For an EU commercial air transport operator, which authority issues the air operator certificate (AOC)?

  1. The European Commission on behalf of the Member States
  2. The competent authority of the operator's principal-place Member State Correct answer.
  3. EASA, acting through its Executive Director
  4. The competent authority of any Member State selected by the operator at its convenience

Explanation

The AOC is issued by the competent authority of the Member State where the operator has its principal place of business. EASA does not issue AOCs, and an operator cannot choose an unrelated Member State's authority.

Question 42National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

For an aircraft holding an EASA type certificate, which body issues airworthiness directives (ADs)?

  1. The operator's Part-145 maintenance organisation
  2. EASA Correct answer.
  3. The manufacturer without any authority approval
  4. The Member State of registry

Explanation

EASA, as the design competent authority, issues airworthiness directives for products it has certified. Operators must comply with the AD, but neither the manufacturer nor a maintenance organisation issues it.

Question 43National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Which statement reflects the just-culture protection in Regulation (EU) No 376/2014 for occurrence reports?

  1. Reports are protected from all disclosure and may never be used in any judicial proceeding
  2. Reports may be used for disciplinary action whenever the competent authority considers it appropriate
  3. Only voluntary reports are protected, while mandatory reports may be used without restriction
  4. Reports are protected from disciplinary use except for gross negligence or wilful misconduct Correct answer.

Explanation

The Regulation protects mandatory and voluntary occurrence reports from disciplinary or legal use, except where there is gross negligence or wilful misconduct. This just-culture principle encourages reporting without fear of blame.

Question 44National and supranational regulatory framework (EU/UK/easa-type rules)

Under EU Air Operations rules, which entity approves a commercial air transport operator's minimum equipment list (MEL)?

  1. The competent authority of the operator's Member State Correct answer.
  2. EASA in all cases, using the master minimum equipment list
  3. The aircraft manufacturer, through the master minimum equipment list
  4. The operator's Part-145 maintenance organisation under its approval

Explanation

The MEL is approved by the competent authority responsible for the operator, and it must not be less restrictive than the master minimum equipment list. The manufacturer produces the MMEL, but it does not approve the operator's MEL.

Question 45Aircraft registration, nationality, airworthiness and documents

Under the Chicago Convention, an aircraft has the nationality of which State?

  1. The State in which its design is approved
  2. The State in which it is registered Correct answer.
  3. The State in which it was manufactured
  4. The State in which its operator is established

Explanation

Article 17 provides that aircraft have the nationality of the State in which they are registered. Registration, not manufacture, design approval or operator location, creates that legal nationality.

Question 46Aircraft registration, nationality, airworthiness and documents

Which document is issued by the State of Registry as evidence that an aircraft has been entered in its national aircraft register?

  1. Certificate of airworthiness
  2. Noise certificate
  3. Certificate of registration Correct answer.
  4. Radio station licence

Explanation

The State of Registry issues a certificate of registration to record the aircraft's entry in the register; it shows the nationality mark and registration mark. The certificate of airworthiness certifies airworthiness, not registration.

Question 47Aircraft registration, nationality, airworthiness and documents

Before an aircraft flies internationally, the certificate of airworthiness carried on board is normally issued or rendered valid by the...

  1. State of destination
  2. State of registry Correct answer.
  3. State of the operator
  4. State of departure

Explanation

Article 31 of the Chicago Convention requires a certificate of airworthiness to be issued by the State of Registry. That State may issue it directly or render valid a certificate issued elsewhere.

Question 48Aircraft registration, nationality, airworthiness and documents

The journey log book required by Article 29 of the Chicago Convention is used mainly to record...

  1. maintenance releases for each flight
  2. aircraft, crew and flight particulars Correct answer.
  3. weight and balance of cargo loads
  4. flight crew duty and rest periods

Explanation

Article 29 requires a journey log book in which are entered particulars of the aircraft, its crew and each flight, including departure and arrival places and times. It may be replaced by an equivalent document where the State of Registry permits.

Question 49Aircraft registration, nationality, airworthiness and documents

State B may refuse to recognise a certificate of airworthiness issued by State A for an aircraft registered in State A if...

  1. the flight is conducted as a private operation
  2. issuing requirements fall below ICAO minimum standards Correct answer.
  3. the certificate is written in the English language
  4. the aircraft has a maximum take-off mass above 5,700 kg

Explanation

Under Article 33, other contracting States recognise certificates of airworthiness issued or rendered valid by the State of Registry only if the requirements under which they were issued are equal to or above the ICAO minimum standards. Private operation, language and mass alone do not remove that recognition.

Question 50Aircraft registration, nationality, airworthiness and documents

On an aircraft required to carry nationality and registration marks, the two marks are normally separated by...

  1. a space
  2. an oblique stroke
  3. a hyphen Correct answer.
  4. a colon

Explanation

Annex 7 requires the nationality mark and registration mark to be separated by a hyphen. The marks are therefore shown as one group rather than separated by a colon, space or oblique stroke.