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Mongolia Nurse Licensing Exam study materials
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Mongolia Nurse Licensing Exam practice questions

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Question 1Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse in Ulaanbaatar is admitting a patient with acute shortness of breath. Which action best represents the assessment phase of the nursing process?

  1. Deciding that the patient has ineffective breathing pattern
  2. Documenting that the care plan was evaluated at discharge
  3. Teaching the patient to use pursed-lip breathing
  4. Auscultating lung sounds and recording the respiratory rate Correct answer.

Explanation

Assessment is the systematic collection of subjective and objective data, such as auscultation findings and vital signs, before any judgment is made. Diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation follow only after data are gathered. Recording measured data is therefore the clearest example of assessment.

Question 2Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

Which statement is the best example of subjective data obtained during a nursing history?

  1. The urine output for the shift was 400 mL
  2. The patient reports a burning sensation when swallowing Correct answer.
  3. The wound edges appear reddened and swollen
  4. The oral temperature is 38.2 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Subjective data are information the patient describes and the nurse cannot directly measure or observe, such as a reported burning sensation. Objective data are observable or measurable findings like temperature, wound appearance, and intake-output records.

Question 3Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

During the planning phase, which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Prioritize the patient's problems and set measurable goals Correct answer.
  2. Compare current findings with the expected outcomes
  3. Administer the prescribed analgesic as ordered
  4. Reassess the patient's vital signs every four hours

Explanation

Planning involves prioritizing identified problems and establishing measurable, patient-centered goals with expected outcomes. Interventions are selected only after goals are set. Reassessment and comparison with outcomes belong to other phases.

Question 4Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse writes the goal "Patient will ambulate independently by day three after surgery." Which characteristic makes this goal acceptable?

  1. It describes a nursing action rather than patient behavior
  2. It focuses on the nurse's schedule rather than the patient
  3. It is broad enough to cover several outcomes
  4. It states a measurable behavior with a time frame Correct answer.

Explanation

A well-written patient goal is patient-centered, measurable, and time-bound. Ambulating independently is an observable behavior and day three provides a specific time frame. Goals that describe nursing actions or lack measurability cannot be evaluated reliably.

Question 5Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

Which nursing diagnosis label is written in the correct format for a problem-focused diagnosis?

  1. Ineffective airway clearance related to excessive secretions Correct answer.
  2. Acute pain related to the nurse's assessment
  3. Impaired mobility related to nursing shortage
  4. Risk for falls as evidenced by unsteady gait

Explanation

A problem-focused nursing diagnosis has a label, an etiology (related to), and defining characteristics. Excessive secretions is a plausible cause of ineffective airway clearance. The other options misuse the etiology or defining-characteristic components.

Question 6Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A patient with severe pain after abdominal surgery rates pain as 9 out of 10. Using Maslow's hierarchy, which principle guides the nurse's prioritization?

  1. The patient's cultural preferences replace physiologic priorities
  2. Relieving pain takes priority over teaching about discharge diet Correct answer.
  3. Discharge teaching should be completed before any comfort measures
  4. Pain relief should wait until vital signs are documented

Explanation

Maslow's hierarchy places physiologic needs such as pain relief and oxygenation before higher-level needs such as education. Comfort measures therefore take priority over discharge teaching. Cultural preferences are respected but do not override urgent physiologic needs.

Question 7Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

Which task may a registered nurse delegate to a nursing assistant?

  1. Evaluating whether a pain goal was achieved
  2. Performing the initial admission assessment
  3. Recording a patient's oral temperature and pulse Correct answer.
  4. Developing the patient's nursing care plan

Explanation

Delegation to assistive personnel is limited to tasks that are routine, standardized, and have predictable outcomes, such as measuring vital signs. Assessment, planning, and evaluation require the professional judgment of a registered nurse.

Question 8Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is about to insert a urinary catheter. Which action best demonstrates the principle of medical asepsis?

  1. Cleaning the floor of the room before the procedure
  2. Performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure Correct answer.
  3. Wearing the same gloves for two consecutive patients
  4. Sterilizing the catheter tray again before use

Explanation

Medical asepsis aims to reduce the number and transmission of microorganisms, and hand hygiene is its most important element. It is performed before and after every patient contact and procedure. Reusing gloves or relying on environmental cleaning does not achieve asepsis.

Question 9Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A patient is on contact precautions for a wound infection with a resistant organism. Which action should the nurse take?

  1. Use only alcohol-based hand rub after contact with the wound
  2. Wear gloves and a gown when entering the room and remove them before leaving Correct answer.
  3. Place the patient in a negative-pressure room with the door closed
  4. Wear a mask at all times while the patient is in the room

Explanation

Contact precautions require gloves and a gown for every entry into the room, with removal before leaving to prevent carrying organisms out. A mask and negative-pressure room are elements of airborne precautions. Hand hygiene after wound contact should follow standard technique, including washing when hands are soiled.

Question 10Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

Which sequence correctly describes the stages of the infection process?

  1. Incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, convalescence Correct answer.
  2. Prodromal, incubation, convalescence, illness, decline
  3. Illness, incubation, decline, prodromal, convalescence
  4. Incubation, illness, prodromal, convalescence, decline

Explanation

The infectious process begins with incubation, followed by the prodromal stage of nonspecific symptoms, the illness stage with specific manifestations, then decline and convalescence. The stages follow this fixed order.

Question 11Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to a dependent patient. Which action protects the patient's skin?

  1. Applying soap generously and leaving it on the skin
  2. Rubbing the skin until it becomes red
  3. Using hot water and vigorous rubbing
  4. Using lukewarm water and patting the skin dry Correct answer.

Explanation

Lukewarm water and gentle drying prevent skin irritation and moisture damage. Vigorous rubbing, hot water, and soap residue strip the skin's protective barrier and increase the risk of breakdown.

Question 12Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

Which finding places a patient at the highest risk for pressure injury?

  1. Immobility with moist skin over the sacrum Correct answer.
  2. Ability to turn independently every hour
  3. A body mass index of 24 with intact skin
  4. A Braden scale score indicating low risk

Explanation

Pressure injury risk rises with immobility, moisture, and pressure over bony prominences such as the sacrum. Moisture softens the skin and friction compounds the effect of pressure. Intact skin, independent mobility, and a low-risk Braden score are protective.

Question 13Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A patient who has been on bed rest for a week suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath. Which complication should the nurse suspect first?

  1. Pressure injury
  2. Pulmonary embolism Correct answer.
  3. Constipation
  4. Urinary tract infection

Explanation

Immobility promotes venous stasis and deep vein thrombosis, which can embolize to the lungs and cause sudden chest pain and dyspnea. These symptoms are classic for pulmonary embolism and require urgent assessment. The other listed complications do not typically present with acute chest pain and dyspnea.

Question 14Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

When moving a patient up in bed, which action best protects the nurse from injury?

  1. Keeping the bed at its lowest position and reaching forward
  2. Bending at the waist and twisting while pulling
  3. Lifting the patient alone to save time
  4. Raising the bed to a comfortable working height and using a draw sheet Correct answer.

Explanation

Body mechanics principles include working at a comfortable height, keeping the load close, and using assistive devices such as a draw sheet. Bending, twisting, and lifting alone increase the risk of musculoskeletal injury.

Question 15Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A patient must remain on strict bed rest. Which intervention best prevents deep vein thrombosis?

  1. Encouraging ankle pumping exercises and adequate hydration Correct answer.
  2. Keeping the legs crossed for comfort
  3. Applying tight knee-high stockings without assessment
  4. Restricting fluids to reduce the need to void

Explanation

Ankle and leg exercises promote venous return, and adequate hydration helps prevent blood stasis. Crossing the legs and restricting fluids promote stasis, and compression stockings require assessment and a prescription.

Question 16Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is assessing a patient's pain. Which finding is the most reliable indicator of the patient's pain?

  1. The patient's facial expression alone
  2. The family's description of the patient's behavior
  3. The patient's self-report using a rating scale Correct answer.
  4. The nurse's estimate based on the diagnosis

Explanation

Pain is a subjective experience, and the patient's self-report is the most reliable indicator. Observation and family reports are useful adjuncts but cannot replace the patient's own description.

Question 17Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A postoperative patient is prescribed an opioid for severe pain. Which nursing action is most important after administration?

  1. Monitoring respiratory rate and depth Correct answer.
  2. Applying a heating pad to the abdomen
  3. Encouraging a high-fiber diet immediately
  4. Restricting all oral fluids for two hours

Explanation

Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so respiratory rate and depth must be monitored after administration. Other comfort measures are useful but do not address the most serious potential adverse effect.

Question 18Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A patient is prescribed oxygen by nasal cannula. Which action should the nurse take to prevent complications?

  1. Discontinue humidification for all flow rates
  2. Assess the nares and skin behind the ears regularly Correct answer.
  3. Tape the cannula tightly to the nose
  4. Set the flow rate higher than prescribed for comfort

Explanation

Prolonged oxygen therapy can cause nasal irritation and skin breakdown behind the ears, so these areas require regular assessment. The prescribed flow rate must be followed, and humidification is used for higher flow rates.

Question 19Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse notes that a patient's SpO2 is 88 percent on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

  1. Document the value and recheck it at the next shift
  2. Ask the patient to walk to improve circulation
  3. Assess the patient's airway, breathing, and level of consciousness Correct answer.
  4. Raise the head of the bed and wait ten minutes

Explanation

A low oxygen saturation is an abnormal finding that requires immediate assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation before any intervention. Rechecking at a later time or waiting delays necessary care.

Question 20Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is assessing a patient for dehydration. Which finding supports this conclusion?

  1. Increased urine output with dilute urine
  2. Bounding pulse with clear lung sounds
  3. Moist skin with edema in the ankles
  4. Dry mucous membranes with decreased urine output Correct answer.

Explanation

Dehydration produces dry mucous membranes, decreased urine output, and concentrated urine. Bounding pulses, edema, and increased dilute urine suggest fluid excess rather than deficit.

Question 21Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

Which patient has the greatest need for an indwelling urinary catheter to be removed promptly?

  1. A patient receiving continuous bladder irrigation
  2. A patient who can void independently and has no order for continued catheterization Correct answer.
  3. A patient with an open sacral wound requiring strict output measurement
  4. A patient undergoing major bladder surgery the same day

Explanation

Indwelling catheters should be removed as soon as they are no longer indicated because they increase the risk of urinary tract infection. A patient who can void and has no ongoing indication should have the catheter discontinued. The other situations involve legitimate short-term indications.

Question 22Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is caring for a patient with an unstageable pressure injury. Which statement describes this injury?

  1. Superficial redness that resolves with pressure relief
  2. Full-thickness tissue loss covered by slough or eschar that obscures the depth Correct answer.
  3. Partial-thickness loss with a visible pink wound bed
  4. Intact skin with a localized area of nonblanchable redness

Explanation

An unstageable pressure injury has full-thickness loss in which slough or eschar covers the wound bed, so the true depth cannot be determined until the tissue is removed. Nonblanchable redness and partial-thickness loss describe other stages.

Question 23Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is teaching a patient about a newly prescribed medication. Which action best supports the patient's right to be informed?

  1. Explaining the purpose, expected effects, and side effects of the medication Correct answer.
  2. Telling the patient that the doctor will explain later
  3. Having a family member sign the consent form
  4. Giving the medication without discussion to save time

Explanation

Informed consent for medication requires that the patient understand the purpose, expected effects, and potential side effects. Providing this information respects patient autonomy and supports adherence.

Question 24Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is documenting care in the patient record. Which principle should guide documentation?

  1. Record objective findings and interventions promptly and accurately Correct answer.
  2. Record care before it is actually performed
  3. Leave blank spaces for later additions
  4. Use vague terms such as "appears fine"

Explanation

Documentation should be timely, accurate, objective, and complete, and should reflect care that has actually been given. Blank spaces, vague descriptions, and pre-charting compromise the legal and clinical value of the record.

Question 25Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is transferring a patient from the bed to a chair. Which action best demonstrates correct body mechanics?

  1. Keeping the knees straight and bending at the waist
  2. Twisting the trunk while lifting the patient
  3. Keeping the feet apart with knees bent and the patient close to the nurse Correct answer.
  4. Holding the patient at arm's length during the transfer

Explanation

Safe body mechanics involve a wide base of support, bent knees, a straight back, and keeping the patient close to the nurse's center of gravity. Twisting, bending at the waist, and reaching increase the risk of injury.

Question 26Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is applying the nursing process to a newly admitted patient. Which activity belongs to the assessment phase?

  1. Collecting subjective and objective data about the patient's health status Correct answer.
  2. Evaluating whether the planned interventions achieved the goals
  3. Deciding which nursing diagnosis best fits the collected data
  4. Setting measurable goals with the patient for the hospital stay

Explanation

Assessment is the first phase of the nursing process and consists of gathering subjective and objective data through interview, observation, and physical examination. Interpretation of that data into a diagnostic statement belongs to the diagnosis phase, goal setting belongs to planning, and judging outcomes belongs to evaluation.

Question 27Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse writes the following goal for a patient with impaired mobility: "The patient will walk to the bathroom with one assistant by the end of postoperative day two." Which characteristic makes this goal acceptable?

  1. It uses broad terms that allow flexibility
  2. It combines several outcomes in one statement
  3. It states the nurse's intended action
  4. It is measurable and includes a time frame Correct answer.

Explanation

A well-written patient goal is patient-centered, measurable, and time-bound, so the team can later judge whether it was achieved. Including the specific activity, the amount of assistance, and the deadline makes this goal evaluable. Goals that describe nursing actions or use vague wording cannot be reliably evaluated.

Question 28Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

During handoff, a nurse uses the SBAR format. Which information belongs in the "R" component?

  1. The nurse's recommendation for what should happen next Correct answer.
  2. The patient's current vital signs and laboratory results
  3. The patient's name, age, and room number
  4. A concise summary of the patient's background and history

Explanation

SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. The recommendation states what the nurse believes is needed, such as a request for review, an order, or a specific intervention. Vital signs and laboratory values belong to assessment, history belongs to background, and identifying data belong to situation.

Question 29Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A patient reports dizziness when getting out of bed after several days of bed rest. Which nursing action applies the principle of orthostatic hypotension prevention?

  1. Give a sedative before ambulation to reduce anxiety
  2. Have the patient sit on the edge of the bed before standing and check blood pressure Correct answer.
  3. Keep the patient supine and postpone all activity until discharge
  4. Ask the patient to stand quickly so the body adapts faster

Explanation

Prolonged bed rest blunts cardiovascular compensation, so blood pressure can fall when the patient rises. Gradual progression from lying to sitting to standing, with blood pressure and symptoms checked, allows the nurse to detect orthostatic changes before a fall occurs. Rapid standing worsens the risk, and sedatives increase fall risk.

Question 30Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse receives a verbal order from a physician by telephone. Which action should the nurse take to ensure patient safety?

  1. Administer the medication first and document the order afterward
  2. Ask a nursing assistant to confirm the order with the prescriber
  3. Accept the order only if a second nurse also heard the call
  4. Write the order, read it back to the prescriber, and document it per policy Correct answer.

Explanation

Verbal and telephone orders carry a high risk of miscommunication, so the nurse writes the order, reads it back for verification, and documents it according to facility policy. Confirmation by the prescriber protects against dosage and drug-name errors. Acting before verification or delegating confirmation to unlicensed staff removes that safeguard.

Question 31Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is preparing to perform a procedure on a patient. Which action reflects the ethical principle of autonomy?

  1. Explaining the procedure and honoring the patient's informed decision Correct answer.
  2. Following the family's preference without asking the patient
  3. Proceeding because the physician has already signed the consent
  4. Choosing the procedure the nurse believes is most beneficial

Explanation

Autonomy means respecting the patient's right to make informed choices about their own care. The nurse supports autonomy by giving complete information and accepting the patient's decision, including refusal. Deciding for the patient, deferring to family wishes, or relying only on a signature without confirming understanding all override the patient's self-determination.

Question 32Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is teaching a patient how to care for a new colostomy. Which action best promotes learning?

  1. Providing written instructions and asking the patient to demonstrate the procedure Correct answer.
  2. Using technical terms so the information is precise
  3. Teaching the family only, so the patient can rest
  4. Giving all instructions in one long session on the day of discharge

Explanation

Learning is reinforced when information is given in manageable amounts, supported by written material, and confirmed through return demonstration. A single lengthy session at discharge, jargon, or excluding the patient all reduce comprehension and retention. Demonstration also lets the nurse identify gaps before discharge.

Question 33Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action best reduces the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection?

  1. Cleaning the perineum with an antiseptic solution every shift
  2. Irrigating the catheter routinely every shift to keep it clear
  3. Disconnecting the tubing to collect urine in a sterile cup each shift
  4. Maintaining a closed drainage system and keeping the bag below bladder level Correct answer.

Explanation

Most catheter-associated infections arise from organisms ascending along the drainage system. Keeping the system closed and the bag below the level of the bladder prevents backflow of contaminated urine. Routine irrigation, unnecessary disconnection, and repeated antiseptic cleaning add risk without benefit.

Question 34Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is caring for a patient with an unstageable pressure injury. Which description fits this injury?

  1. Partial-thickness loss with a shallow open wound and no slough
  2. Full-thickness loss covered by slough or eschar that hides the wound base Correct answer.
  3. Intact skin with a localized area of nonblanchable redness
  4. Full-thickness loss extending to fascia, muscle, or bone without eschar

Explanation

An unstageable pressure injury has full-thickness tissue loss whose true depth cannot be determined because slough or eschar obscures the wound bed. Staging is deferred until the covering is removed by debridement. Intact nonblanchable redness indicates stage 1, shallow partial loss indicates stage 2, and visible deep structures without covering indicate stage 4.

Question 35Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is calculating a patient's fluid balance for a shift. Which item should be recorded as intake?

  1. Blood lost during a dressing change
  2. Vomitus collected in an emesis basin
  3. Ice chips swallowed by the patient Correct answer.
  4. Urine output measured in the drainage bag

Explanation

Intake includes all fluid entering the body by mouth, tube, or vein, and ice chips count as oral intake once melted. Urine, vomitus, and wound or drain losses are outputs. Accurate intake and output records require consistent measurement and recording of every source.

Question 36Fundamentals of Nursing and Nursing Process

A nurse is caring for a patient whose condition is changing rapidly. Which finding best indicates that the nurse should escalate care immediately?

  1. A rising respiratory rate with new confusion and falling oxygen saturation Correct answer.
  2. A request for a sleeping aid at the start of the night shift
  3. A pain score of 4 out of 10 that improves after repositioning
  4. A single blood pressure reading slightly above the patient's baseline

Explanation

A cluster of deterioration signs, such as increasing respiratory rate, new confusion, and falling oxygen saturation, signals physiologic decline and requires urgent assessment and escalation. Single mildly abnormal values, pain relieved by repositioning, and routine requests do not carry the same urgency. Early recognition and escalation prevent failure to rescue.

Question 37Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs?

  1. Aorta
  2. Pulmonary vein
  3. Superior vena cava
  4. Pulmonary artery Correct answer.

Explanation

The pulmonary artery is the only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood, transporting it from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange. The pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to the left atrium, and the aorta and vena cava belong to the systemic circulation.

Question 38Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

A patient's blood report shows a hematocrit of 30 percent. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. The value is within the normal adult range
  2. The value is below the normal adult range, suggesting anemia or hemodilution Correct answer.
  3. The value is above normal, suggesting polycythemia
  4. The value reflects an elevated white cell count

Explanation

Normal hematocrit is roughly 40 to 50 percent in adult men and 36 to 46 percent in women, so 30 percent is low and points toward anemia, blood loss, or dilution. Hematocrit measures the proportion of red cells, not white cells, and polycythemia would raise it above normal.

Question 39Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which structure regulates the passage of food from the stomach into the duodenum?

  1. Cardiac sphincter
  2. Pyloric sphincter Correct answer.
  3. Ileocecal valve
  4. Lower esophageal sphincter

Explanation

The pyloric sphincter is a muscular ring at the distal end of the stomach that controls the release of chyme into the duodenum. The cardiac sphincter and lower esophageal sphincter guard the stomach's upper opening, while the ileocecal valve separates the small and large intestine.

Question 40Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

A patient with chronic kidney disease develops metabolic acidosis. Which compensatory response is expected?

  1. Increased renal bicarbonate reabsorption as the primary immediate compensation
  2. Increased respiratory rate to eliminate carbon dioxide Correct answer.
  3. Decreased respiratory rate to retain carbon dioxide
  4. Reduced alveolar ventilation to raise blood pH

Explanation

In metabolic acidosis, the lungs compensate by hyperventilating to blow off carbon dioxide, which lowers carbonic acid and raises pH toward normal. The kidneys also increase bicarbonate reabsorption, but this is a slow renal adjustment rather than the immediate respiratory compensation.

Question 41Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?

  1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
  2. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  3. Prolactin
  4. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Explanation

The posterior pituitary stores and releases antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin, which are produced in the hypothalamus. Adrenocorticotropic hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and prolactin are secreted by the anterior pituitary.

Question 42Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

A patient has damage to the left cerebral hemisphere affecting Broca's area. Which deficit is most likely?

  1. Inability to understand spoken language
  2. Difficulty producing fluent speech Correct answer.
  3. Loss of vision in the left eye
  4. Loss of sensation on the left side of the body

Explanation

Broca's area in the dominant frontal lobe controls motor production of speech, so damage causes nonfluent speech with relatively preserved comprehension. Wernicke's area governs comprehension, and sensory or visual losses follow different pathways.

Question 43Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which component of the nephron is primarily responsible for filtration of blood plasma?

  1. Glomerulus Correct answer.
  2. Loop of Henle
  3. Proximal convoluted tubule
  4. Collecting duct

Explanation

The glomerulus is a capillary tuft where hydrostatic pressure drives plasma water and small solutes into Bowman's capsule, forming the filtrate. The tubules and collecting duct modify the filtrate through reabsorption and secretion rather than initial filtration.

Question 44Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

A patient with severe vomiting loses gastric acid. Which acid-base disturbance is most likely?

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis Correct answer.
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis

Explanation

Vomiting removes hydrogen ions and chloride from the stomach, leaving excess bicarbonate in the blood and producing metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis would follow loss of bicarbonate, and respiratory disturbances originate from altered ventilation.

Question 45Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary and found in the walls of blood vessels and the intestine?

  1. Smooth muscle Correct answer.
  2. Striated voluntary muscle
  3. Skeletal muscle
  4. Cardiac muscle

Explanation

Smooth muscle is nonstriated, involuntary tissue lining hollow organs and vessel walls, where it controls lumen diameter and peristalsis. Skeletal muscle is voluntary and striated, and cardiac muscle is striated but confined to the heart.

Question 46Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

During the cardiac cycle, which event produces the first heart sound?

  1. Atrial contraction
  2. Closure of the atrioventricular valves Correct answer.
  3. Closure of the semilunar valves
  4. Opening of the atrioventricular valves

Explanation

The first heart sound results from closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of ventricular systole. The second sound comes from semilunar valve closure, while valve opening and atrial contraction are normally silent.

Question 47Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and hyperglycemia. Which pathophysiologic mechanism best explains the polyuria?

  1. Excess antidiuretic hormone increases water reabsorption
  2. Increased aldosterone secretion causes sodium retention
  3. Reduced glomerular filtration rate concentrates the urine
  4. Glucose exceeds the renal threshold and acts as an osmotic diuretic Correct answer.

Explanation

When blood glucose exceeds the renal reabsorption threshold, glucose remains in the filtrate and holds water osmotically, producing osmotic diuresis and polyuria. This fluid loss then drives polydipsia.

Question 48Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?

  1. Epiglottis Correct answer.
  2. Uvula
  3. Glottis
  4. Soft palate

Explanation

The epiglottis folds over the laryngeal opening during swallowing, directing the bolus into the esophagus and protecting the airway. The uvula and soft palate help close the nasopharynx, and the glottis is the opening itself rather than the protective flap.

Question 49Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

A patient with emphysema has destruction of alveolar walls. Which physiologic consequence is most directly expected?

  1. Increased lung elastic recoil
  2. Reduced residual volume
  3. Increased diffusion capacity for oxygen
  4. Decreased surface area for gas exchange and air trapping Correct answer.

Explanation

Destruction of alveolar septa reduces the surface area available for diffusion and merges airspaces, causing air trapping and increased residual volume. Loss of elastic recoil makes expiration harder rather than improving it.

Question 50Anatomy, Physiology, and Pathophysiology

Which white blood cell type is the most abundant and is the first responder to acute bacterial infection?

  1. Basophil
  2. Neutrophil Correct answer.
  3. Eosinophil
  4. Lymphocyte

Explanation

Neutrophils are the most numerous circulating leukocytes and migrate early to sites of acute bacterial infection for phagocytosis. Lymphocytes mediate specific immunity, eosinophils target parasites and allergic responses, and basophils release histamine.