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Mozambique IACM Commercial Pilot (CPL-A) study materials
Mozambique IACM Commercial Pilot (CPL-A) study resources

Mozambique IACM Commercial Pilot (CPL-A) practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and IACM Regulations

Under the IACM regulatory framework, which document primarily establishes the rules for the issuance and validity of pilot licences in Mozambique?

  1. The air operator certificate
  2. The aircraft flight manual
  3. The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
  4. The Mozambique Civil Aviation Regulations on personnel licensing Correct answer.

Explanation

Personnel licensing, including pilot licences, is governed by the national civil aviation regulations on licensing issued under IACM authority. The AIP contains operational and aeronautical information but does not itself create licensing rules. The flight manual and air operator certificate address aircraft operation and operator approval respectively.

Question 2Air Law and IACM Regulations

What is the minimum age at which an applicant may normally be issued a Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) under standard ICAO-aligned national regulations?

  1. 21 years
  2. 18 years Correct answer.
  3. 16 years
  4. 17 years

Explanation

ICAO Annex 1 sets 18 years as the minimum age for issue of a commercial pilot licence, and national regulations generally follow this standard. Sixteen and seventeen years apply to lower licence categories, while 21 is not a licensing age threshold.

Question 3Air Law and IACM Regulations

A CPL holder wishes to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night. What is the normal regulatory requirement before exercising this privilege?

  1. An instrument rating regardless of weather conditions
  2. A valid night rating or the night privileges endorsed on the licence Correct answer.
  3. A separate airline transport licence
  4. A type rating for every aircraft in the fleet

Explanation

Night flying privileges require a specific night rating or night endorsement on the licence, obtained after the prescribed training and experience. An ATPL is not required to fly at night, and type ratings apply per aircraft type rather than to night operations generally. An instrument rating is only needed when operating under instrument flight rules in instrument meteorological conditions.

Question 4Air Law and IACM Regulations

For a CPL, the class or type rating on an aircraft remains valid only if the holder meets which recurring requirement?

  1. Renewal of the medical certificate only
  2. Membership of a recognised flying club
  3. Recent experience and, where applicable, recurrent checks or training within the prescribed period Correct answer.
  4. Payment of the annual licence fee

Explanation

Ratings remain valid through recent experience requirements and recurrent proficiency checks or training specified in the regulations. A medical certificate is a separate requirement and does not by itself keep a rating valid. Fees and club membership are not validity conditions for a rating.

Question 5Air Law and IACM Regulations

What is the standard validity period of a Class 1 medical certificate for a commercial pilot who has not yet reached the age of 40?

  1. 24 months
  2. 6 months
  3. 12 months Correct answer.
  4. 3 months

Explanation

Under ICAO-aligned rules, a Class 1 medical certificate is normally valid for 12 months for holders under 40, reducing to 6 months from age 40. Three months applies to certain special cases, and 24 months exceeds the standard maximum.

Question 6Air Law and IACM Regulations

An applicant for a CPL(A) must normally hold which prerequisite licence before commencing the commercial course?

  1. A flight engineer licence
  2. An airline transport licence
  3. A private pilot licence or an equivalent acceptable to the authority Correct answer.
  4. A student pilot licence only

Explanation

The CPL course normally requires a private pilot licence or an equivalent qualification acceptable to the licensing authority as an entry prerequisite. A student pilot licence is an earlier stage and does not satisfy the entry requirement. An ATPL is a higher licence and a flight engineer licence is unrelated to pilot entry.

Question 7Air Law and IACM Regulations

What is the primary purpose of an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) issued by IACM?

  1. To certify the airworthiness of an individual aircraft
  2. To approve the design of aircraft engines
  3. To authorise an operator to conduct specified commercial air transport operations Correct answer.
  4. To license individual pilots for commercial flying

Explanation

An AOC authorises an operator to conduct commercial air transport operations within the scope and conditions specified. Airworthiness of individual aircraft is certified separately through certificates of airworthiness. Pilot licensing and engine design approval are distinct regulatory functions.

Question 8Air Law and IACM Regulations

Before operating a commercial flight, a pilot must confirm that the aircraft holds a valid certificate of airworthiness. Which statement best describes the role of this certificate?

  1. It confirms the pilot's competence for the intended flight
  2. It records the aircraft's fuel consumption history
  3. It authorises the operator to sell tickets
  4. It confirms the aircraft complies with its approved type design and is maintained in an airworthy condition Correct answer.

Explanation

A certificate of airworthiness attests that the aircraft conforms to its approved type design and is maintained in an airworthy condition. Pilot competence is established by licensing, and commercial authorisation is granted by the AOC. Fuel records are unrelated to airworthiness certification.

Question 9Air Law and IACM Regulations

Under standard rules of the air, what is the general right-of-way rule when two aircraft are approaching head-on?

  1. The faster aircraft has right of way
  2. Both aircraft shall alter heading to the right Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft on the left has right of way
  4. The lower aircraft has right of way

Explanation

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly so and there is risk of collision, each shall alter its heading to the right. Speed and altitude do not determine right of way in a head-on encounter. The left-hand rule applies to converging traffic, not head-on situations.

Question 10Air Law and IACM Regulations

Two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same level. Which aircraft has the right of way?

  1. The one on the left
  2. The one flying faster
  3. The one with the higher maximum take-off mass
  4. The one on the right Correct answer.

Explanation

For converging aircraft of the same category, the aircraft on the right has the right of way and the other must give way. Speed and mass do not determine priority between same-category aircraft. The aircraft on the left must yield.

Question 11Air Law and IACM Regulations

What is the standard minimum horizontal distance required for flight over congested areas of a city, unless operating at a height permitting a safe emergency landing?

  1. 100 metres from the nearest obstacle
  2. 300 metres from the nearest obstacle Correct answer.
  3. 150 metres from the nearest obstacle
  4. 600 metres from the nearest obstacle

Explanation

The standard rule requires aircraft to remain at least 300 metres from the nearest obstacle when flying over congested areas, unless a safe landing can be made. Shorter distances apply to open areas or specific operations. Distances such as 100, 150 or 600 metres do not reflect the standard congested-area minimum.

Question 12Air Law and IACM Regulations

A pilot intends to operate under visual flight rules in controlled airspace. Which condition must normally be satisfied?

  1. The pilot must hold an instrument rating
  2. The pilot must maintain radio silence
  3. The pilot must obtain an ATC clearance and maintain the prescribed VMC visibility and cloud separation Correct answer.
  4. The pilot must always file an IFR flight plan

Explanation

VFR flight in controlled airspace requires an ATC clearance and compliance with the applicable VMC minima for visibility and distance from cloud. An IFR flight plan or instrument rating is not a general requirement for VFR. Radio silence contradicts the communication requirements in controlled airspace.

Question 13Air Law and IACM Regulations

What does a steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight signify?

  1. Stop or give way as appropriate
  2. Give way and continue circling Correct answer.
  3. Continue with caution
  4. Cleared to land

Explanation

A steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight means the aircraft must give way and continue circling. A green light indicates clearance to land, and a flashing red indicates the aerodrome is unsafe. These signals follow the standard ICAO light-signal table.

Question 14Air Law and IACM Regulations

A pilot receives a flashing red light from the aerodrome control tower while on approach. What action is required?

  1. Continue the approach and land
  2. Give way and continue circling
  3. Return for landing after clearance
  4. Do not land; the aerodrome is unsafe Correct answer.

Explanation

A flashing red light directed at an aircraft in flight means the aerodrome is unsafe and landing is prohibited until further clearance. Continuing to land would conflict with the signal. Returning for landing requires a subsequent clearance signal.

Question 15Air Law and IACM Regulations

In the standard phonetic alphabet, which word represents the letter Q?

  1. Quartz
  2. Quito
  3. Queen
  4. Quebec Correct answer.

Explanation

The ICAO phonetic alphabet assigns the word Quebec to the letter Q. The other words are not part of the standard alphabet. Using the standard word avoids confusion in radio communications.

Question 16Air Law and IACM Regulations

When must a pilot transmit a position report to ATC during a controlled flight?

  1. Only when requested by the tower
  2. Only after landing
  3. Every five minutes regardless of position
  4. At the compulsory reporting points and as instructed by ATC Correct answer.

Explanation

Position reports are required at compulsory reporting points and whenever instructed by ATC. Reporting only on request or at fixed intervals ignores the compulsory reporting point requirement. Reports after landing are too late to serve their purpose.

Question 17Air Law and IACM Regulations

What is the primary purpose of the aircraft emergency frequency 121.5 MHz?

  1. To provide routine air traffic control clearances
  2. To broadcast weather forecasts
  3. To coordinate baggage handling
  4. To allow communication during distress and emergency situations Correct answer.

Explanation

121.5 MHz is the international aeronautical emergency frequency used for distress and urgency communications. Routine clearances are issued on ATC frequencies. Weather broadcasts and ground handling are unrelated to this frequency.

Question 18Air Law and IACM Regulations

An aircraft is in distress and the pilot wishes to indicate this using radiotelephony. Which signal should be used?

  1. SECURITE
  2. STANDBY
  3. MAYDAY Correct answer.
  4. PAN PAN

Explanation

MAYDAY is the international radiotelephony distress signal indicating grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. PAN PAN signals urgency without immediate danger, and SECURITE indicates a safety message. STANDBY is not a distress signal.

Question 19Air Law and IACM Regulations

Which action best describes the requirement for a pilot to report an aircraft accident to the investigating authority?

  1. Notify the authority promptly using the fastest available means Correct answer.
  2. Wait until the next scheduled flight to report
  3. Report only after the insurance company is informed
  4. Report only if requested by the operator

Explanation

Accidents must be notified promptly to the appropriate authority using the fastest available means so that investigation can begin. Waiting for a request, a later flight, or insurance notification delays the mandatory report. Prompt notification is a legal obligation on the pilot or operator.

Question 20Air Law and IACM Regulations

What is the definition of an 'incident' in the context of occurrence reporting?

  1. An occurrence, other than an accident, that affects or could affect the safety of operations Correct answer.
  2. Any event that causes death or serious injury
  3. A minor maintenance discrepancy
  4. A delay of more than one hour

Explanation

An incident is an occurrence other than an accident that affects or could affect the safety of operations. Death or serious injury characterises an accident rather than an incident. Delays and minor maintenance discrepancies are not, by themselves, the regulatory definition of an incident.

Question 21Air Law and IACM Regulations

A pilot operating a commercial flight discovers that the aircraft's radio equipment has failed in controlled airspace. What is the most appropriate initial action under standard procedures?

  1. Follow the prescribed communication-failure procedures and notify ATC as soon as practicable Correct answer.
  2. Descend below controlled airspace without clearance
  3. Immediately shut down all electrical systems
  4. Continue as planned without informing anyone

Explanation

Communication failure requires following the prescribed procedures for the phase of flight and notifying ATC as soon as practicable. Continuing silently or descending without clearance compromises safety and separation. Shutting down electrical systems would aggravate the situation.

Question 22Air Law and IACM Regulations

What does a 'clearance' issued by ATC authorise an aircraft to do?

  1. Disregard weather minima
  2. Proceed under specified conditions within controlled airspace Correct answer.
  3. Operate without a licence
  4. Ignore all other traffic

Explanation

An ATC clearance authorises an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions within controlled airspace. It does not relieve the pilot of responsibility for traffic separation awareness, licensing, or weather minima. The pilot remains responsible for the safety of the flight.

Question 23Air Law and IACM Regulations

A pilot is planning a commercial flight and must ensure the flight plan is filed. What is the principal purpose of filing an ATS flight plan?

  1. To register the aircraft for maintenance
  2. To obtain a discount on landing fees
  3. To provide ATC with information for separation, search and rescue, and flight monitoring Correct answer.
  4. To reserve a parking stand at the destination

Explanation

An ATS flight plan supplies ATC with information needed for traffic separation, alerting and search-and-rescue services, and flight monitoring. Parking, landing fees, and maintenance registration are handled through separate administrative processes.

Question 24Air Law and IACM Regulations

Under standard rules, which aircraft has the right of way over all other traffic when converging?

  1. A balloon Correct answer.
  2. A commercial airliner
  3. An aircraft towing a glider
  4. A helicopter

Explanation

Balloons have the right of way over all other traffic because of their limited manoeuvrability. Gliders, airships, and aircraft towing gliders have priority over powered aircraft but not over balloons. Commercial airliners and helicopters are powered aircraft with no overriding priority.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a four-stroke reciprocating engine, during which stroke is the intake valve normally open?

  1. The compression stroke
  2. The exhaust stroke
  3. The power stroke
  4. The intake stroke Correct answer.

Explanation

The intake valve opens as the piston travels down on the intake stroke so the fuel-air charge can be drawn into the cylinder. It closes near the start of the compression stroke.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which component converts the reciprocating motion of the pistons into rotary motion of the propeller shaft?

  1. The magneto
  2. The carburettor
  3. The crankshaft Correct answer.
  4. The camshaft

Explanation

The connecting rods attach the pistons to the crankshaft, whose crank throws transform linear piston travel into rotation delivered to the propeller.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the primary function of the magneto in a piston engine ignition system?

  1. To step down voltage for the starter motor
  2. To supply a high-voltage pulse to the spark plugs independently of the aircraft battery Correct answer.
  3. To provide current for the fuel pump
  4. To regulate the charging rate of the battery

Explanation

A magneto is a self-contained generator driven by the engine that produces high voltage for the spark plugs without relying on the aircraft electrical system.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a constant-speed propeller system, what does the governor do when engine RPM rises above the selected value?

  1. It increases oil pressure to the propeller hub to increase blade angle Correct answer.
  2. It decreases oil pressure to the propeller hub to increase blade angle
  3. It increases oil pressure to the propeller hub to decrease blade angle
  4. It disengages the propeller from the engine

Explanation

When RPM exceeds the setting, the governor directs increased oil pressure to the propeller hub, which drives the blades to a coarser angle, increasing load and reducing RPM.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which statement correctly describes the purpose of a cowl flap system on an air-cooled engine installation?

  1. It controls cabin pressurisation
  2. It controls the flow of cooling air through the engine compartment Correct answer.
  3. It regulates the fuel-air mixture entering the cylinders
  4. It adjusts the pitch of the propeller blades

Explanation

Cowl flaps vary the exit area for cooling air, allowing the pilot to keep cylinder head temperatures within limits across different phases of flight.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the main consequence of excessive cylinder head temperature in an air-cooled engine?

  1. Reduced risk of detonation
  2. Improved volumetric efficiency
  3. Loss of oil viscosity and risk of detonation or pre-ignition Correct answer.
  4. Increased strength of the cylinder assembly

Explanation

High cylinder head temperatures thin the oil film, reduce its lubricating ability, and can trigger detonation or pre-ignition, all of which can damage the engine.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

During a magneto check, what does an excessive RPM drop on one magneto most likely indicate?

  1. An over-rich mixture setting
  2. A propeller governor malfunction
  3. A normal characteristic of the engine
  4. A fault in the ignition circuit of that magneto Correct answer.

Explanation

An abnormally large drop when running on a single magneto indicates that the ignition circuit for that magneto, such as a plug or lead, is not performing correctly.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the function of the voltage regulator in an aircraft DC charging system?

  1. To convert alternating current to direct current
  2. To store electrical energy for starting
  3. To limit generator or alternator output voltage to a safe value Correct answer.
  4. To distribute current to the bus bars

Explanation

The voltage regulator controls the field current so that the generator or alternator output voltage remains within the design range, protecting the battery and equipment.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

An ammeter in the aircraft electrical system shows a continuous high discharge after engine start with the alternator on line. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

  1. The voltage regulator is overcharging the battery
  2. The battery is being charged normally
  3. The starter is still engaged
  4. The alternator is not supplying the load and the battery is discharging Correct answer.

Explanation

A sustained discharge indicates that the alternator is not carrying the electrical load, so the battery is supplying current and will eventually be depleted.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which statement best describes the function of a circuit breaker in an aircraft electrical system?

  1. It isolates the battery during starting
  2. It protects wiring by opening the circuit when current exceeds a set value Correct answer.
  3. It increases the voltage supplied to a component
  4. It converts DC to AC for instruments

Explanation

A circuit breaker is a resettable protective device that opens the circuit on overcurrent to prevent damage to wiring and components.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a hydraulically actuated landing gear system, what is the purpose of the selector valve?

  1. To store hydraulic fluid under pressure
  2. To direct hydraulic pressure to extend or retract the gear Correct answer.
  3. To filter contaminants from the fluid
  4. To cool the hydraulic fluid

Explanation

The selector valve routes pressurised fluid to the appropriate side of the actuating cylinders so the gear can be extended or retracted as selected.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator in an aircraft hydraulic system?

  1. To store fluid under pressure and damp pressure fluctuations Correct answer.
  2. To measure system temperature
  3. To increase the viscosity of the fluid
  4. To provide electrical power to the pump

Explanation

An accumulator contains fluid under gas pressure and serves as a reservoir of stored hydraulic energy that smooths pressure pulses and assists peak demands.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a cable-operated primary flight control system, what is the function of a turnbuckle?

  1. To adjust cable tension Correct answer.
  2. To lock the control surface in neutral
  3. To change the direction of cable travel
  4. To absorb vibration in the control column

Explanation

Turnbuckles connect cable ends and allow the rigger to adjust and set the correct tension in the control cables.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the primary purpose of a trim tab on a control surface?

  1. To increase the structural strength of the surface
  2. To provide additional lift during takeoff
  3. To produce a force that holds the control surface in the desired position with reduced pilot effort Correct answer.
  4. To act as a stall warning device

Explanation

A trim tab deflects to create an aerodynamic moment on the control surface, allowing the aircraft to be trimmed so the pilot can relax control pressure.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which type of structural design allows an aircraft skin to carry part of the flight loads in addition to the internal framework?

  1. Truss construction
  2. Semi-monocoque construction Correct answer.
  3. Wooden box spar
  4. Tubular steel frame

Explanation

In semi-monocoque construction the stressed skin and stringers share the load with the frames and bulkheads, giving an efficient strength-to-weight ratio.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the function of stringers in a semi-monocoque fuselage?

  1. They carry longitudinal loads and stiffen the skin against buckling Correct answer.
  2. They support the engine mounts
  3. They provide the primary attachment for the landing gear
  4. They seal the pressurised cabin

Explanation

Stringers run lengthwise and, together with the skin, carry bending loads and stiffen the skin to prevent it from buckling under stress.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the purpose of a firewall in an engine installation?

  1. To prevent fire from reaching the cabin or other areas Correct answer.
  2. To support the propeller spinner
  3. To improve airflow to the engine
  4. To reduce engine noise

Explanation

The firewall is a fire-resistant bulkhead that separates the engine compartment from the rest of the aircraft so a fire is contained as long as possible.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a turbocharged piston engine, what is the function of the waste gate?

  1. It regulates the fuel flow to the injectors
  2. It adjusts the ignition timing
  3. It controls the amount of exhaust gas bypassing the turbocharger turbine Correct answer.
  4. It controls the oil pressure to the propeller

Explanation

The waste gate regulates exhaust gas flow through the turbine, controlling turbocharger speed and therefore the manifold pressure delivered to the engine.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is meant by the critical altitude of a turbocharged engine?

  1. The altitude above which the propeller cannot maintain RPM
  2. The altitude at which fuel consumption is lowest
  3. The highest altitude at which the turbocharger can maintain the maximum rated manifold pressure Correct answer.
  4. The altitude at which the engine must be shut down

Explanation

Critical altitude is the highest altitude at which the turbocharger can still deliver the maximum allowable manifold pressure; above it, manifold pressure falls off with height.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Why is a rich mixture used during high-power operation of a piston engine?

  1. To increase the octane rating of the fuel
  2. To improve the magneto output
  3. To increase the specific fuel consumption for longer range
  4. To provide internal cooling and reduce the risk of detonation Correct answer.

Explanation

A richer mixture adds fuel that evaporates and absorbs heat, lowering combustion temperatures and helping to prevent detonation during high-power operation.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the effect of carburettor icing on engine operation?

  1. It improves fuel atomisation
  2. It reduces the fuel-air charge flow and can cause rough running or engine stoppage Correct answer.
  3. It raises the octane rating of the fuel
  4. It increases manifold pressure and power

Explanation

Ice forming in the carburettor restricts the airflow and disrupts fuel metering, leading to a loss of power, rough running, and possible engine failure if not addressed.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

Which of the following is the correct action to take when carburettor icing is suspected during cruise?

  1. Lean the mixture to maximum
  2. Apply carburettor heat and expect a further RPM drop before recovery Correct answer.
  3. Increase manifold pressure by opening the throttle fully
  4. Shut down the engine immediately

Explanation

Applying carburettor heat melts the ice; as it does, the melted water temporarily enriches and cools the charge, often causing an initial RPM drop before recovery.

Question 47Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

What is the purpose of the oil cooler bypass valve in a piston engine lubrication system?

  1. To provide oil to the propeller governor
  2. To maintain oil temperature within limits by routing oil around the cooler when cold Correct answer.
  3. To increase oil pressure at high altitude
  4. To filter metal particles from the oil

Explanation

The bypass valve allows oil to bypass the cooler when the oil is cold and viscous, helping the engine warm up and preventing excessive oil pressure.

Question 48Aircraft General Knowledge (Airframe, Systems, Powerplant, Electrics)

In a multi-engine aircraft, what is the purpose of feathering a propeller?

  1. To improve the climb performance of the aircraft
  2. To increase the engine RPM for restart
  3. To increase drag on the failed engine
  4. To align the blades with the relative airflow to minimise drag and vibration Correct answer.

Explanation

Feathering turns the blades edge-on to the airflow so a failed engine produces minimum drag and the aircraft can maintain performance and control.

Question 49Flight Performance and Planning

In aircraft mass and balance, what does the term 'datum' refer to?

  1. The maximum mass authorised for take-off
  2. The centre of gravity limit closest to the nose
  3. The point from which all longitudinal arms are measured Correct answer.
  4. The empty mass of the aircraft as delivered

Explanation

The datum is an arbitrary reference plane or point, fixed by the manufacturer, from which all longitudinal distances (arms) used in mass and balance calculations are measured. It is not necessarily the nose, the firewall, or any structural feature.

Question 50Flight Performance and Planning

An aircraft has a basic empty mass of 900 kg with an arm of 2.0 m, and a payload of 300 kg at an arm of 3.0 m. What is the CG position in metres from the datum?

  1. 2.25 Correct answer.
  2. 2.75
  3. 3.00
  4. 2.50

Explanation

Total moment is (900 × 2.0) + (300 × 3.0) = 1800 + 900 = 2700 kg·m. Total mass is 1200 kg, so CG = 2700 / 1200 = 2.25 m.