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Mozambique IACM Private Pilot (PPL-A) study materials
Mozambique IACM Private Pilot (PPL-A) study resources

Mozambique IACM Private Pilot (PPL-A) practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under the ICAO Convention framework adopted in Mozambique, which document constitutes the primary international treaty governing civil aviation rights and privileges?

  1. The Tokyo Convention on offences aboard aircraft
  2. The Montreal Convention on aviation security
  3. The Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention) Correct answer.
  4. The Warsaw Convention on carrier liability

Explanation

The Chicago Convention of 1944 is the foundational multilateral treaty establishing the ICAO framework and the basic principles of international civil aviation, and states such as Mozambique apply it through national law. The other instruments address narrower matters such as liability, offences on board, and security.

Question 2Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which body of the United Nations is responsible for adopting international Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention?

  1. The World Meteorological Organization
  2. The International Air Transport Association
  3. The International Civil Aviation Organization Correct answer.
  4. The African Civil Aviation Commission

Explanation

ICAO, through its Council, adopts and amends the Annexes containing SARPs that contracting states are expected to implement. IATA is an industry association, AFCAC is a regional body, and WMO is a separate UN agency.

Question 3Air Law and ATC Procedures

A state that finds it impracticable to comply with an international standard in an ICAO Annex is required to do what?

  1. Apply the standard only to aircraft above 5 700 kg
  2. Suspend all international flights until compliance is achieved
  3. Seek a waiver from IATA before operating
  4. Notify ICAO of the difference between its practice and the standard Correct answer.

Explanation

Under Article 38 of the Chicago Convention, a state that cannot comply with a standard must notify ICAO of the differences between its own practice and the international standard. The notification is published so other states are aware.

Question 4Air Law and ATC Procedures

In Mozambique, which authority is responsible for the regulation and oversight of civil aviation safety, including the licensing of private pilots?

  1. The National Air Traffic Service provider
  2. The Ministry of Transport and Communications directly
  3. The Civil Aviation Authority of Mozambique (IACM) Correct answer.
  4. Aeroportos de Moçambique

Explanation

The Instituto de Aviação Civil de Moçambique (IACM) is the national civil aviation authority responsible for safety regulation, licensing, and oversight. Airport operators and air navigation service providers perform operational roles but not regulatory licensing.

Question 5Air Law and ATC Procedures

An applicant for a private pilot licence (aeroplane) must normally hold which valid medical certificate?

  1. A Class 1 medical certificate
  2. A Class 3 medical certificate
  3. A Class 2 medical certificate Correct answer.
  4. No medical certificate is required for private operations

Explanation

Private pilot licensing under ICAO Annex 1 requires a Class 2 medical certificate, which is the standard for private pilots exercising non-commercial privileges. Class 1 is required for commercial pilots, and there is no Class 3 in the ICAO framework.

Question 6Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the minimum age at which a person may be issued a private pilot licence (aeroplane) under ICAO Annex 1 standards?

  1. 17 years Correct answer.
  2. 21 years
  3. 18 years
  4. 16 years

Explanation

ICAO Annex 1 sets 17 years as the minimum age for issue of a private pilot licence, with 16 years permitted for the earlier issue of a student pilot permit. Commercial and airline transport licences carry higher minimum ages.

Question 7Air Law and ATC Procedures

Before a private pilot may carry passengers, the licence holder must normally have completed which requirement?

  1. A commercial pilot theory examination
  2. An instrument rating
  3. A minimum of 500 hours total flight time
  4. At least three take-offs and landings in the preceding 90 days in the same type Correct answer.

Explanation

Passenger-carrying privileges for a PPL require recent experience, typically three take-offs and landings within the preceding 90 days in the same type or class. The other requirements are unrelated to basic passenger carriage.

Question 8Air Law and ATC Procedures

A private pilot licence holder may exercise which of the following privileges without additional qualifications?

  1. Acting as pilot-in-command of a commercial air transport flight
  2. Flying for remuneration on a scheduled air service
  3. Receiving payment for flight instruction
  4. Acting as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers non-commercially Correct answer.

Explanation

The PPL permits the holder to act as pilot-in-command of aircraft in non-commercial operations, including carrying passengers without remuneration. Commercial air transport and paid instruction require higher or additional qualifications.

Question 9Air Law and ATC Procedures

How long is a Class 2 medical certificate normally valid for a private pilot licence holder under 40 years of age?

  1. 24 months Correct answer.
  2. 12 months
  3. 60 months
  4. 6 months

Explanation

Under the ICAO Annex 1 framework, a Class 2 medical certificate for a licence holder under 40 is typically valid for 24 months, reducing to 12 months at age 40 and above. Shorter periods apply to Class 1 certificates.

Question 10Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot's licence is endorsed with a type rating. Which statement best describes a type rating for an aeroplane?

  1. It replaces the need for a valid medical certificate
  2. It authorises the holder to act as pilot on that specific aircraft type Correct answer.
  3. It authorises instruction on any aircraft in the same class
  4. It authorises flight only in visual meteorological conditions

Explanation

A type rating is a specific authorisation entered on a licence permitting the holder to act as pilot on a particular aircraft type requiring one. It is separate from class ratings and from instrument or instructor privileges.

Question 11Air Law and ATC Procedures

For a flight under visual flight rules in controlled airspace, when is a continuous listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency required?

  1. Only when flying above 3 000 ft
  2. Only when carrying passengers
  3. At all times while in controlled airspace Correct answer.
  4. Only when the aircraft is within 5 NM of an aerodrome

Explanation

A continuous listening watch on the relevant frequency is required for VFR flights in controlled airspace so that clearances and traffic information can be received without delay. Altitude, distance from aerodromes, and passenger carriage do not remove this requirement.

Question 12Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does a clearance issued by an air traffic controller signify to a pilot?

  1. Authorisation to proceed under specified conditions, with the pilot still responsible for safety Correct answer.
  2. Authority to deviate from the rules of the air at the pilot's discretion
  3. Permission that relieves the pilot of responsibility for terrain clearance
  4. A guarantee that no other traffic will be encountered

Explanation

An ATC clearance authorises a flight to proceed under specified conditions, but it does not relieve the pilot-in-command of responsibility for the safety of the aircraft. The pilot must still comply with the rules of the air and remain vigilant for traffic and terrain.

Question 13Air Law and ATC Procedures

When an aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft, what should the intercepted pilot do first?

  1. Squawk 7700 and turn away from the interceptor
  2. Immediately descend to the nearest aerodrome
  3. Follow the intercepting aircraft's signals and attempt to establish radio contact Correct answer.
  4. Continue on the current heading regardless of signals

Explanation

The intercepted aircraft should follow the visual signals of the intercepting aircraft and try to establish radio communication on the designated emergency frequency, while continuing to comply with the intercepting aircraft's instructions. Deviation should be limited and coordinated as far as possible.

Question 14Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which transponder code is used to indicate a general emergency to air traffic control?

  1. 7000
  2. 7500
  3. 7700 Correct answer.
  4. 7600

Explanation

Code 7700 is the standard transponder code for a general emergency. Codes 7500 and 7600 denote unlawful interference and radio failure respectively, while 7000 is used for VFR operations in certain regions.

Question 15Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard altimeter setting used above the transition level in the Mozambique flight information region?

  1. Standard pressure 1013.25 hPa Correct answer.
  2. QFE at the destination
  3. QNH of the departure aerodrome
  4. QNH of the nearest aerodrome

Explanation

Above the transition level, aircraft set the standard pressure of 1013.25 hPa so that all aircraft use a common reference for flight levels, ensuring vertical separation. QNH settings are used at or below the transition altitude.

Question 16Air Law and ATC Procedures

When may an aircraft fly in the vicinity of an aerodrome at a height below 500 ft above the ground in a non-congested area?

  1. Whenever the pilot considers it safe
  2. Only when flying above 150 knots
  3. Only when taking off or landing, or with the permission of the competent authority Correct answer.
  4. Only during daylight hours

Explanation

Except for take-off and landing, aircraft may not be flown closer than 500 ft to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure, unless authorised by the competent authority. This protects people and property on the surface.

Question 17Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the purpose of a Flight Information Service provided by air traffic services units?

  1. To allocate parking stands on arrival
  2. To provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights Correct answer.
  3. To provide separation between all IFR and VFR flights
  4. To issue binding clearances to all aircraft in the area

Explanation

A Flight Information Service provides advice and information useful for safe and efficient flight conduct, including weather, traffic, and aerodrome information, without providing separation. Separation is provided by air traffic control to controlled flights.

Question 18Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure in instrument meteorological conditions should normally do what?

  1. Squawk 7600 and continue at the last assigned level indefinitely
  2. Land immediately at the nearest available field
  3. Circle overhead the destination until fuel is exhausted
  4. Follow the published communication failure procedures, including the designated route and timing Correct answer.

Explanation

On radio failure in IMC, the pilot should comply with the published communication failure procedures, which typically specify the route, level, and timing to be followed before landing. This allows ATC to predict the aircraft's position.

Question 19Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the meaning of the instruction 'cleared for take-off' issued by a tower controller?

  1. Aircraft may line up but must await a further clearance
  2. Aircraft may taxi onto the runway but must hold
  3. Aircraft is authorised to begin the take-off roll Correct answer.
  4. Aircraft may take off only when the windsock indicates a tailwind

Explanation

A take-off clearance authorises the aircraft to begin the take-off roll. It is distinct from a line-up clearance, which only permits the aircraft to enter the runway.

Question 20Air Law and ATC Procedures

In which circumstances may a private pilot deviate from the rules of the air?

  1. When flying at night in uncontrolled airspace
  2. When instructed to do so by any air traffic controller
  3. When necessary to avoid immediate danger, to the extent required Correct answer.
  4. When carrying a passenger who is a licensed pilot

Explanation

The rules of the air permit deviation only to the extent necessary to avoid immediate danger, and the pilot must resume compliance as soon as possible. A controller's instruction does not override this, and the pilot remains responsible for safety.

Question 21Air Law and ATC Procedures

How does a pilot acknowledge a clearance that requires a read-back?

  1. By squawking the assigned code only
  2. By repeating the relevant elements of the clearance to the controller Correct answer.
  3. By flashing landing lights twice
  4. By sending a text message to the tower

Explanation

Read-back requires the pilot to repeat the relevant elements of the clearance so the controller can verify that it was correctly received. This is particularly important for clearances relating to runway use, levels, and headings.

Question 22Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the definition of the transition altitude?

  1. The altitude at which the aircraft changes from standard pressure to QNH
  2. The altitude at which the landing gear must be retracted
  3. The altitude at which the aircraft changes from QNH to standard pressure Correct answer.
  4. The altitude at which an aircraft must contact approach control

Explanation

The transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes on the local QNH. Above it, the standard pressure setting is used and flight levels apply.

Question 23Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard emergency frequency used for air-to-ground communication in distress?

  1. 123.45 MHz
  2. 121.5 MHz Correct answer.
  3. 118.0 MHz
  4. 122.8 MHz

Explanation

121.5 MHz is the international aeronautical emergency frequency, monitored for distress and urgency communications. Other frequencies serve specific purposes such as aerodrome control or air-to-air communication.

Question 24Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot on a VFR flight in controlled airspace encounters deteriorating weather and cannot maintain VMC. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Squawk 7600 and proceed as filed
  2. Continue at the current level and hope the weather improves
  3. Descend below the cloud base and continue under VFR
  4. Request an amended clearance or special VFR, or turn back to maintain VMC Correct answer.

Explanation

A VFR pilot who cannot maintain VMC must take prompt action to remain in visual conditions, such as requesting an amended clearance, a special VFR clearance where available, or turning back. Continuing into IMC without an instrument rating is hazardous.

Question 25Human Performance and Limitations

At sea level, approximately what proportion of the air's oxygen partial pressure is present compared with the oxygen partial pressure at 10 000 feet in the standard atmosphere?

  1. About one half
  2. About two thirds Correct answer.
  3. About three quarters
  4. About nine tenths

Explanation

In the standard atmosphere pressure falls roughly to two thirds of sea-level value near 10 000 ft, and since oxygen fraction stays constant at about 21%, the oxygen partial pressure falls in the same proportion. This reduction is why hypoxia can begin at relatively modest altitudes in unacclimatised pilots.

Question 26Human Performance and Limitations

A pilot breathing 100% oxygen at 30 000 feet is protected against hypoxia because the oxygen partial pressure in the lungs is approximately equal to that of breathing air at which altitude?

  1. Sea level Correct answer.
  2. 10 000 feet
  3. 25 000 feet
  4. 18 000 feet

Explanation

Breathing pure oxygen raises the inspired oxygen fraction to 1.0, so even though total pressure is low the oxygen partial pressure is restored to roughly the sea-level air value. This is the principle behind supplemental oxygen systems used at high altitude.

Question 27Human Performance and Limitations

Which symptom is most characteristic of the early stage of hypoxia in a pilot?

  1. Impaired judgement and a sense of well-being Correct answer.
  2. Sharp chest pain on breathing
  3. Sudden loss of vision in one eye
  4. Severe joint pain

Explanation

Early hypoxia typically produces euphoria, reduced self-criticism and impaired judgement before the pilot notices physical symptoms. Because insight is degraded, the pilot may not recognise the danger without training or a warning device.

Question 28Human Performance and Limitations

A pilot hyperventilates while anxious during a long cruise. Which effect is most likely?

  1. Raised blood pressure causing nosebleed
  2. Reduced carbon dioxide in the blood causing dizziness and tingling Correct answer.
  3. Increased carbon dioxide in the blood causing drowsiness
  4. Increased oxygen saturation causing visual sharpening

Explanation

Hyperventilation blows off carbon dioxide faster than it is produced, causing hypocapnia with cerebral vasoconstriction. The result is dizziness, tingling in the extremities and a feeling of unreality that can mimic hypoxia.

Question 29Human Performance and Limitations

How does the eye's sensitivity to dim light change with increasing altitude?

  1. It improves only above 20 000 feet
  2. It improves because the air is clearer
  3. It remains unchanged until 10 000 feet
  4. It deteriorates, requiring more time to adapt to darkness Correct answer.

Explanation

Hypoxia impairs the highly oxygen-dependent rod cells of the retina, so night vision degrades with altitude and dark adaptation takes longer. This is why supplemental oxygen is recommended for night flying at moderate altitudes.

Question 30Human Performance and Limitations

During a descent from bright sunlight into a cloud layer, a pilot's eyes take time to adjust. Which statement best describes the practical consequence?

  1. Adaptation is immediate because the pupils dilate instantly
  2. The pilot should focus on the instruments until adaptation occurs Correct answer.
  3. Colour vision is lost permanently at low light
  4. Central vision is least affected so the pilot should look straight ahead

Explanation

Dark adaptation takes several minutes because it depends on regenerating visual pigment in the rods. Relying on instruments during that interval avoids the reduced acuity of the peripheral and central visual field in low light.

Question 31Human Performance and Limitations

A pilot who has been exposed to loud engine noise for several hours may experience which temporary effect?

  1. Reduced ability to hear radio transmissions Correct answer.
  2. Increased sensitivity to low-pitched sounds
  3. Improved hearing at high frequencies
  4. No change in hearing until hearing loss becomes permanent

Explanation

Prolonged noise exposure causes temporary threshold shift, in which hearing acuity is reduced and speech and radio intelligibility suffer. This is why good headsets and hearing protection are essential in light aircraft.

Question 32Human Performance and Limitations

What is the main danger of spatial disorientation during flight in cloud without visual reference?

  1. The pilot may misperceive the aircraft's attitude and apply inappropriate control inputs Correct answer.
  2. The aircraft's instruments will fail
  3. The pilot will always lose consciousness
  4. The aircraft will automatically enter a spin

Explanation

Without external visual cues the vestibular system can give false sensations of pitch, bank or turn, leading the pilot to correct in the wrong direction. Trusting instruments rather than sensations is the primary defence.

Question 33Human Performance and Limitations

After a sustained coordinated turn, a pilot levels the wings but feels a sensation of turning in the opposite direction. This is best explained by which illusion?

  1. The Coriolis illusion
  2. The leans Correct answer.
  3. The somatogravic illusion
  4. The graveyard spiral

Explanation

The leans occur when the semicircular canals adapt to a sustained turn and, on roll-out, signal a false turn in the opposite direction. The pilot must ignore the sensation and confirm level flight on the attitude indicator.

Question 34Human Performance and Limitations

During a rapid acceleration on take-off, a pilot may feel the aircraft is pitching up steeply. This sensation is known as which illusion?

  1. The autokinetic illusion
  2. The somatogravic illusion Correct answer.
  3. The oculogyral illusion
  4. The leans

Explanation

Linear acceleration stimulates the otolith organs in a way that mimics a pitch-up sensation, known as the somatogravic illusion. The pilot may then push forward and descend dangerously, particularly after a go-around or night take-off.

Question 35Human Performance and Limitations

Which statement correctly describes the effect of alcohol on a pilot's performance?

  1. Alcohol impairs judgement and coordination even at low blood levels Correct answer.
  2. Alcohol only affects performance above 5 000 feet
  3. Moderate alcohol improves reaction time by reducing tension
  4. Alcohol effects are eliminated once the pilot feels sober

Explanation

Alcohol depresses the central nervous system, degrading judgement, coordination and vigilance at blood levels well below those that produce obvious intoxication. Its effects persist for hours and are worsened by altitude and fatigue.

Question 36Human Performance and Limitations

A pilot has taken a sedating antihistamine the evening before an early morning flight. What is the safest course of action?

  1. Fly normally because the dose was taken many hours earlier
  2. Fly only if the flight is shorter than one hour
  3. Drink coffee before flight to counteract drowsiness
  4. Do not fly until the medication's effects have fully worn off Correct answer.

Explanation

Sedating medications can impair alertness and reaction time well beyond the apparent duration of their effects, and residual drowsiness is dangerous in the cockpit. The pilot should not fly until the drug's effects have fully resolved.

Question 37Human Performance and Limitations

Which of the following is a recognised symptom of fatigue in a pilot?

  1. Reduced need for sleep
  2. Improved tolerance to altitude
  3. Difficulty concentrating and slowed reactions Correct answer.
  4. Increased vigilance and faster decision-making

Explanation

Fatigue degrades attention, slows reactions and impairs decision-making, often without the pilot recognising it. It is a significant contributor to human-error accidents and should be managed with proper rest.

Question 38Human Performance and Limitations

A pilot flying a long duty day begins making small errors in radio frequency selection and altitude checks. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

  1. These are early signs of degraded performance from fatigue and require action Correct answer.
  2. They are normal and can be ignored until landing
  3. They indicate the aircraft radios are malfunctioning
  4. They show the pilot is becoming more alert

Explanation

Small, repetitive errors in routine tasks are a classic early indicator of fatigue-related performance degradation. The pilot should take corrective action such as rest, or reconsider continuing the flight.

Question 39Human Performance and Limitations

In the context of aviation decision-making, what does the term 'press-on-itis' describe?

  1. A technique for maintaining pressurisation
  2. A tendency to continue a flight despite deteriorating conditions or increasing risk Correct answer.
  3. A requirement to file a flight plan
  4. A method of calculating fuel reserves

Explanation

Press-on-itis is the hazardous attitude of continuing toward a destination despite warning signs such as weather, fuel or fatigue. Recognising and countering it with a firm decision to divert or turn back is essential for safety.

Question 40Human Performance and Limitations

How does the body's tolerance to hypoxia change after a period of acclimatisation to high altitude?

  1. Tolerance is unaffected by acclimatisation
  2. Tolerance decreases because the body becomes less efficient
  3. Tolerance improves through increased breathing rate and red blood cell production Correct answer.
  4. Tolerance improves only for night vision

Explanation

Acclimatisation increases ventilation and red blood cell production, improving oxygen transport and raising tolerance to altitude. However, acclimatisation is gradual and does not remove the need for supplemental oxygen at high cabin altitudes.

Question 41Meteorology

In the standard atmosphere at sea level, what are the approximate values of pressure and temperature?

  1. 1013.25 hPa and 0 °C
  2. 1000 hPa and 20 °C
  3. 1013.25 hPa and 15 °C Correct answer.
  4. 950 hPa and 15 °C

Explanation

The International Standard Atmosphere fixes sea-level pressure at 1013.25 hPa and sea-level temperature at 15 °C, with a lapse rate of about 2 °C per 1000 ft in the lower layers. These reference values are the basis for pressure altitude and density altitude calculations.

Question 42Meteorology

What is the average environmental lapse rate of temperature in the troposphere?

  1. About 0.5 °C per 1000 ft
  2. About 10 °C per 1000 ft
  3. About 6 °C per 1000 ft
  4. About 2 °C per 1000 ft Correct answer.

Explanation

In the troposphere temperature normally decreases with height at roughly 2 °C per 1000 ft (about 6.5 °C per km). This lapse rate is used to estimate temperatures at flight levels and to assess stability.

Question 43Meteorology

Which instrument indicates the height of an aircraft above a standard pressure datum of 1013.25 hPa?

  1. The airspeed indicator
  2. The radio altimeter
  3. The vertical speed indicator
  4. The pressure altimeter Correct answer.

Explanation

The pressure altimeter converts static pressure into height using the standard pressure setting of 1013.25 hPa. Radio altimeters instead measure true height above terrain, and the VSI shows rate of climb or descent.

Question 44Meteorology

An aircraft flies from a high-pressure area into a low-pressure area without resetting the altimeter. What does the altimeter indicate relative to the true altitude?

  1. It over-reads, so the aircraft is lower than indicated Correct answer.
  2. It reads correctly because pressure changes do not affect it
  3. It over-reads only if temperature also rises
  4. It under-reads, so the aircraft is higher than indicated

Explanation

Flying from high to low pressure without adjusting the subscale causes the altimeter to indicate an altitude higher than the true altitude, so the aircraft is actually lower than shown. The mnemonic 'high to low, look out below' captures this hazard.

Question 45Meteorology

On a warm day, what is the effect on density altitude compared with a cold day at the same aerodrome and pressure?

  1. Density altitude is higher on the warm day Correct answer.
  2. Density altitude is lower on the warm day
  3. Density altitude depends only on the pressure setting
  4. Density altitude is unchanged because field elevation is fixed

Explanation

Warmer air is less dense, so the density altitude rises above the pressure altitude. High density altitude degrades engine power, propeller thrust and wing lift, increasing take-off and landing distances.

Question 46Meteorology

What does the QNH setting on an altimeter represent?

  1. The pressure at the aerodrome reference point
  2. The pressure reduced to mean sea level at the reporting station Correct answer.
  3. The pressure at the aircraft's current altitude
  4. The standard pressure of 1013.25 hPa

Explanation

QNH is the station pressure reduced to mean sea level using the standard atmosphere, so that on the ground at the aerodrome the altimeter reads elevation. QFE, by contrast, is set so the altimeter reads zero on the runway.

Question 47Meteorology

Which cloud type is most characteristic of strong vertical convection and can produce thunderstorms?

  1. Altostratus
  2. Cirrostratus
  3. Stratus
  4. Cumulonimbus Correct answer.

Explanation

Cumulonimbus clouds develop from strong convective updraughts and contain the greatest vertical extent, often producing thunderstorms, heavy showers, hail and icing. The other listed clouds are layered and generally non-convective.

Question 48Meteorology

What is the primary cause of cumuliform cloud development?

  1. Orographic descent of air
  2. Widespread subsidence of stable air
  3. Convective lifting of unstable air Correct answer.
  4. Advection of air over a cold surface

Explanation

Cumuliform clouds form when unstable air is lifted by convection, allowing parcels to rise freely and condense into heaped clouds. Stable lifting or subsidence produces layered stratiform cloud instead.

Question 49Meteorology

What weather conditions are typically associated with a cold front passage?

  1. Prolonged steady drizzle with slowly rising temperature
  2. Clear skies with light and variable winds
  3. A narrow band of heavy showers with a sharp wind veer and temperature fall Correct answer.
  4. Persistent fog with no wind change

Explanation

A cold front brings rapid lifting of warm air, producing a narrow band of heavy showers or thunderstorms, a marked wind veer, a temperature drop and improved visibility behind it. The passage is usually abrupt rather than gradual.

Question 50Meteorology

Which sequence of cloud and weather is typical as a warm front approaches?

  1. Stratus and fog, then clear skies
  2. Cirrus, then altostratus, then nimbostratus with steady rain Correct answer.
  3. Cumulonimbus with hail, then rapid clearing
  4. Isolated showers, then scattered cumulus

Explanation

A warm front has a gentle slope, so high cirrus appears first, followed by thickening altostratus and then nimbostratus with continuous steady precipitation. The gradual sequence reflects the shallow frontal surface.