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NUST Mature Age Entry study materials
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NUST Mature Age Entry practice questions

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Question 1Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a mature age entry reasoning test, a passage states that all applicants who score above 70 on the numeracy paper are invited to interview, and that Tariro was invited to interview. Which conclusion follows with certainty?

  1. Every invited applicant scored exactly 70.
  2. Tariro did not score above 70 on the numeracy paper.
  3. Tariro scored above 70 on the numeracy paper.
  4. Nothing certain follows about Tariro's numeracy score. Correct answer.

Explanation

The premise runs one way only: a high score guarantees an invitation, but an invitation does not guarantee a high score, since other routes to interview may exist. Affirming the consequent is a logical fallacy, so no definite conclusion about Tariro's score can be drawn.

Question 2Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate's written response must avoid sentence fragments. Which of the following sentences from an entrance essay is a complete sentence rather than a fragment?

  1. After submitting the form and paying the fee.
  2. Because the library closes early during examination week.
  3. The committee reviewing mature age applications.
  4. The admissions office extended its deadline by two weeks. Correct answer.

Explanation

A complete sentence needs a subject and a finite verb forming an independent clause. Option D supplies both ('office' plus 'extended') and expresses a finished thought, whereas the others are subordinate or verbless groups.

Question 3Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A test item asks candidates to identify the relationship in the pair HAND : GLOVE. Which pair shows the same relationship?

  1. Arm : sleeve
  2. Head : hat
  3. Finger : ring
  4. Foot : shoe Correct answer.

Explanation

A glove is a covering worn on the hand, so the relation is body part to the garment that encloses it. A shoe is the covering worn on the foot, matching that relation most closely.

Question 4Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

Read the sequence: 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ... What is the next term?

  1. 129
  2. 126
  3. 95
  4. 127 Correct answer.

Explanation

Each term equals double the previous term plus one: 3×2+1=7, 7×2+1=15, and so on. Applying the rule to 63 gives 63×2+1=127.

Question 5Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A mature age applicant writes: 'The tutors whom I consulted were helpful.' Which grammatical description of 'whom' is correct in this entrance-test sentence?

  1. It is a relative pronoun acting as the object of 'consulted'. Correct answer.
  2. It is a relative pronoun acting as the subject of 'were'.
  3. It is a conjunction joining two independent clauses.
  4. It is a demonstrative pronoun modifying 'tutors'.

Explanation

In the relative clause 'whom I consulted', the pronoun is the object of the verb 'consulted', with 'I' as the subject. Object relative pronouns take 'whom' in formal written English.

Question 6Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A passage in a comprehension test states: 'Although the new timetable reduced waiting times, it increased the number of missed connections.' Which statement best captures the writer's point?

  1. The timetable had no measurable effect on passengers.
  2. The timetable improved one measure while worsening another. Correct answer.
  3. The timetable reduced both waiting times and missed connections.
  4. The timetable increased waiting times and reduced missed connections.

Explanation

The concessive 'although' sets up a contrast: one outcome improved (waiting times fell) while another deteriorated (missed connections rose). The correct option preserves both halves of that contrast.

Question 7Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate must choose the correctly spelled word to complete a sentence in the written paper: 'The committee will ___ the final list tomorrow.' Which spelling is standard?

  1. anounce
  2. announs
  3. annouce
  4. announce Correct answer.

Explanation

The standard spelling is 'announce', with a double 'n' and the 'ou' digraph before the final 'nce'. The other forms miss one of these elements.

Question 8Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a data-interpretation item, a table shows that 40 of 200 mature age candidates chose the science stream. What percentage of the candidates chose the science stream?

  1. 20% Correct answer.
  2. 40%
  3. 25%
  4. 10%

Explanation

Percentage is the part divided by the whole, multiplied by 100. Here 40 ÷ 200 = 0.2, and 0.2 × 100 = 20%, so one fifth of the candidates chose science.

Question 9Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A comprehension passage notes that a university 'waived' the mathematics requirement for applicants with relevant work experience. In this context, what does 'waived' mean?

  1. Increased in weight
  2. Enforced strictly
  3. Set aside or not applied Correct answer.
  4. Postponed to a later year

Explanation

To waive a requirement is to refrain from applying or enforcing it, so the requirement is set aside for that group. This is the standard meaning in admissions contexts.

Question 10Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

An argument in a reasoning passage runs: 'Every student who attended all tutorials passed. Chipo passed. Therefore Chipo attended all tutorials.' Which criticism best describes the flaw?

  1. It uses a term in two different senses.
  2. It generalises from too small a sample.
  3. It assumes what it sets out to prove.
  4. It treats a sufficient condition as a necessary one. Correct answer.

Explanation

Attending all tutorials is presented as sufficient for passing, but the argument reads it as necessary, so that passing implies attendance. Other routes to passing are compatible with the premise, making the inference invalid.

Question 11Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

Which sentence uses the semicolon correctly for an entrance-test writing task?

  1. The deadline is Friday; because the office closes.
  2. The deadline is Friday; and the office closes at noon.
  3. The deadline is Friday; but late applications may be considered.
  4. The deadline is Friday; late applications will not be considered. Correct answer.

Explanation

A semicolon joins two independent clauses that are closely related and not already linked by a coordinating conjunction. Option B has two complete clauses and no conjunction, which is the standard use.

Question 12Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A sequence of letters follows the pattern: A, C, F, J, O, ... Which letter comes next?

  1. S
  2. V
  3. U Correct answer.
  4. T

Explanation

The gaps between successive letters grow by one each time: +2, +3, +4, +5. The next gap is +6, and six letters after O is U.

Question 13Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate writes: 'Neither the tutor nor the students was aware of the change.' Which revision gives the standard subject-verb agreement?

  1. Neither the tutor nor the students is aware of the change.
  2. Neither the tutor nor the students was being aware of the change.
  3. Neither the tutor nor the students has been aware of the change.
  4. Neither the tutor nor the students were aware of the change. Correct answer.

Explanation

With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject. The nearer subject here is the plural 'students', so the plural verb 'were' is required.

Question 14Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A comprehension passage argues that mature age entrants often bring workplace discipline that school leavers lack. Which inference is best supported by that claim alone?

  1. Universities should admit only applicants with work experience.
  2. Workplace discipline may be an asset that mature age entrants contribute. Correct answer.
  3. School leavers cannot succeed at university.
  4. Mature age entrants are always academically stronger than school leavers.

Explanation

The passage makes a specific claim about a quality mature age entrants may possess, so the safest inference is that this quality can be an asset. Broader claims about overall ability or admissions policy go beyond the stated evidence.

Question 15Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a numerical reasoning item, a candidate's mark rises from 48 to 60. What is the percentage increase?

  1. 20%
  2. 25% Correct answer.
  3. 80%
  4. 12%

Explanation

Percentage increase is the change divided by the original value: (60 − 48) ÷ 48 = 12 ÷ 48 = 0.25, or 25%. The original mark, not the new one, is the denominator.

Question 16Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

Which word best completes the sentence in a formal application letter: 'The applicant was ___ to provide evidence of prior learning.'?

  1. requested
  2. insisted
  3. required Correct answer.
  4. demanded

Explanation

'Required' fits the passive construction 'was required to provide', meaning the applicant was obliged to supply evidence. It takes a to-infinitive and suits formal register.

Question 17Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A reasoning passage states that no candidate without a pass in English may enrol. Which situation is ruled out by that statement?

  1. A candidate without an English pass enrols. Correct answer.
  2. A candidate with an English pass does not enrol.
  3. A candidate with an English pass enrols.
  4. A candidate without an English pass is refused.

Explanation

The rule prohibits enrolment for anyone lacking an English pass, so a candidate without a pass enrolling would violate it. The statement does not require that every qualified candidate enrols.

Question 18Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A student must select the sentence with correct apostrophe use for an entrance essay. Which sentence is correct?

  1. The students' union building was closed for repairs. Correct answer.
  2. The students's union building was closed for repairs.
  3. The students union's building was closed for repairs.
  4. The student's union building were closed for repairs.

Explanation

'Students' union' is a plural noun phrase acting attributively, and the possessive apostrophe after the plural 's' is standard in 'students' union'. The verb 'was' also agrees with the singular 'building'.

Question 19Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a test of spatial reasoning, a square piece of paper is folded in half twice to form a smaller square, and a single hole is punched through all layers near one corner. When fully unfolded, how many holes appear?

  1. 2
  2. 4 Correct answer.
  3. 3
  4. 8

Explanation

Each fold doubles the number of layers at the punched point. Two successive folds give 2 × 2 = 4 layers, so a single punch produces four holes when the paper is opened.

Question 20Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A comprehension passage states: 'The panel did not reject the proposal because it was costly; it rejected it because the evidence was thin.' Which statement is correct?

  1. Thin evidence was the reason for rejection. Correct answer.
  2. The panel accepted the proposal.
  3. Cost was the reason for rejection.
  4. The panel rejected the proposal for two reasons.

Explanation

The corrective structure 'not because... but because...' explicitly denies the first reason and affirms the second. The rejection is attributed to weak evidence, not to cost.

Question 21Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A numerical reasoning question gives a ratio: in an intake of 360 mature age students, the ratio of part-time to full-time is 5 : 4. How many are part-time?

  1. 180
  2. 200 Correct answer.
  3. 160
  4. 240

Explanation

The ratio has 5 + 4 = 9 parts, so each part is 360 ÷ 9 = 40 students. Part-time students take 5 parts, giving 5 × 40 = 200.

Question 22Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

An argument claims that because a new online revision course was followed by higher pass rates in one department, the course caused the improvement. Which additional fact would most weaken that causal claim?

  1. Students who enrolled in the course already had higher entry grades. Correct answer.
  2. The course was delivered by experienced tutors.
  3. The course materials were revised before the examination.
  4. The department's pass rate had risen in earlier years too.

Explanation

If course-takers were stronger students to begin with, the higher pass rate may reflect prior ability rather than the course, which is a confounding explanation. This directly undermines the causal inference.

Question 23Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A passage on academic honesty states that paraphrasing a source without acknowledgement is a form of plagiarism even when no words are copied. Which case best fits that definition?

  1. Restating an author's argument in your own words with no citation. Correct answer.
  2. Listing a source in the bibliography without quoting it.
  3. Quoting three sentences in quotation marks with a citation.
  4. Using a common definition such as 'photosynthesis' without citation.

Explanation

The definition targets unacknowledged reuse of ideas, not only copied wording. Restating an argument in new words without a citation is therefore plagiarism under that rule.

Question 24Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A sequence of figures is described in words: a triangle, then a square, then a pentagon, then a hexagon. If the pattern continues, what is the total number of sides in the first six figures?

  1. 30 Correct answer.
  2. 36
  3. 27
  4. 33

Explanation

The figures have 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 sides, forming an arithmetic series. Summing gives 3+4+5+6+7+8 = 33, so the correct total is 33.

Question 25Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a formal entrance-test essay, a candidate writes: 'Having reviewed the evidence, the conclusion was clear.' Which comment best identifies the structural problem?

  1. The participle 'having reviewed' dangles because the conclusion did not review the evidence. Correct answer.
  2. The tense shifts from past to present.
  3. The sentence lacks a main verb.
  4. The sentence contains a comma splice.

Explanation

An introductory participial phrase should describe the subject of the main clause. Here the subject is 'the conclusion', which cannot perform the reviewing, producing a dangling modifier.

Question 26Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In the written entrance paper, a candidate must choose the sentence in which the colon is used correctly to introduce a list. Which sentence is correct?

  1. The panel requested three documents; a birth certificate: a work reference and a certified transcript.
  2. The panel requested three documents, namely: a birth certificate, a work reference and a certified transcript.
  3. The panel requested three documents: a birth certificate, a work reference and a certified transcript. Correct answer.
  4. The panel requested: three documents, a birth certificate, a work reference and a certified transcript.

Explanation

A colon may introduce a list only after a complete main clause, and the items then follow in a simple series. The clause 'The panel requested three documents' is grammatically complete, so the colon is correctly placed at its end. Placing the colon after 'namely' or in the middle of the list breaks this rule.

Question 27Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A comprehension passage in the entrance paper contains the sentence: 'The dean, together with the admissions tutors, ___ reviewing the appeals.' Which verb form completes the sentence according to standard written English?

  1. have been
  2. is Correct answer.
  3. are
  4. were

Explanation

The subject of the sentence is the singular noun 'dean'. The phrase 'together with the admissions tutors' is a parenthetical addition and does not change the number of the subject, so a singular verb is required. 'Is' is the only singular present form among the options.

Question 28Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In the verbal reasoning section, a passage states: 'Only candidates who submit a portfolio are invited to interview.' A candidate is invited to interview. What may validly be concluded?

  1. The candidate submitted a portfolio. Correct answer.
  2. The candidate may or may not have submitted a portfolio.
  3. The candidate submitted a portfolio only after the interview.
  4. The candidate did not submit a portfolio.

Explanation

The statement makes portfolio submission a necessary condition for an interview invitation. Since the candidate was invited, the necessary condition must have been met, so the portfolio was submitted. This is the valid inference of affirming the antecedent through the necessary condition.

Question 29Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A mature age applicant must compute a weighted admission score. Written test 60%, interview 40%. The applicant scores 55 on the written test and 80 at interview. What is the weighted score?

  1. 65 Correct answer.
  2. 70
  3. 67
  4. 68

Explanation

Multiply each score by its weight and add the results: 55 x 0.6 = 33, and 80 x 0.4 = 32. The weighted total is 33 + 32 = 65. Weighting does not simply average the two raw scores, which would give 67.5.

Question 30Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a numerical reasoning item, an applicant's test score of 64 is increased by 25% after a remark, and the new score is then reduced by 20% following an appeal. What is the final score?

  1. 60
  2. 64 Correct answer.
  3. 72
  4. 68

Explanation

Increasing 64 by 25% gives 64 x 1.25 = 80. Reducing 80 by 20% gives 80 x 0.8 = 64. A rise of 25% followed by a fall of 20% returns the original value because 1.25 x 0.8 = 1.

Question 31Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A reasoning passage in the entrance paper argues: 'All students who completed the bridging course are eligible. Some eligible students are not yet enrolled.' Which conclusion follows necessarily?

  1. No student who completed the bridging course is enrolled.
  2. Some students who completed the bridging course may not be enrolled. Correct answer.
  3. Only enrolled students completed the bridging course.
  4. All students who completed the bridging course are enrolled.

Explanation

The passage establishes that bridging-course completers are eligible, and that some eligible students are unenrolled. It does not say which eligible students those are, so it remains possible that some bridging-course completers are among the unenrolled. The other options assert more than the premises support.

Question 32Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate writing a formal motivation letter must choose the word that best fits: 'The applicant was ___ to provide proof of residence within seven days.' Which word is correct?

  1. oblige
  2. obliged Correct answer.
  3. obliging
  4. obligated

Explanation

The sentence needs a past participle after 'was' to form a passive construction meaning 'required'. 'Obliged' fits this structure and is the standard British usage in formal correspondence. 'Obliging' is an active participle meaning helpful and does not fit the passive sense.

Question 33Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In the written paper, a candidate must identify the sentence that uses the apostrophe correctly for a formal report on mature age admissions. The files belong to several applicants. Which sentence is correct?

  1. The applicants' files were reviewed by the committee. Correct answer.
  2. The applicants files were reviewed by the committee.
  3. The applicant's files were reviewed by the committee.
  4. The applicants's files were reviewed by the committee.

Explanation

When a plural noun ending in -s possesses something, the apostrophe follows the s: 'applicants''. The singular possessive 'applicant's' would refer to only one applicant, which conflicts with the plural sense required here. Omitting the apostrophe or adding 's after a plural -s are both non-standard.

Question 34Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A comprehension passage for the entrance test argues that mature age applicants often bring workplace discipline that school leavers lack. Which statement best expresses the function of this claim in the passage's argument?

  1. It offers a counter-argument that the passage later endorses.
  2. It provides a reason supporting the case for admitting mature age applicants. Correct answer.
  3. It states the conclusion that the passage is trying to disprove.
  4. It describes a factual detail unrelated to the passage's main point.

Explanation

The claim about workplace discipline supplies evidence in favour of admitting mature age applicants, so it functions as a supporting reason. Recognising whether a sentence supports, opposes or merely illustrates the main claim is central to comprehension questions. The claim is not a conclusion to be disproved, nor is it irrelevant detail.

Question 35Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A sequence in the abstract reasoning section follows the pattern: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ... What is the next term?

  1. 44
  2. 40
  3. 42 Correct answer.
  4. 46

Explanation

The differences between successive terms are 4, 6, 8 and 10, increasing by 2 each time. The next difference is therefore 12, giving 30 + 12 = 42. Alternatively, each term is n(n+1): 5 x 6 = 30, so the next is 6 x 7 = 42.

Question 36Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a data-interpretation item, a table shows that of 250 mature age applicants, 150 chose the humanities stream, 60 chose science and 40 chose commerce. What is the ratio of humanities to science to commerce applicants in its simplest form?

  1. 25:10:5
  2. 5:2:1
  3. 3:1:1
  4. 15:6:4 Correct answer.

Explanation

The ratio 150:60:40 simplifies by dividing all parts by their highest common factor of 10, giving 15:6:4. This cannot be reduced further because 15, 6 and 4 share no common factor greater than 1. Reducing only some parts or by an arbitrary number gives an incorrect ratio.

Question 37Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate's essay contains the sentence: 'Having reviewed the evidence, the conclusion was clear.' Which comment best identifies the grammatical problem in this entrance-test essay?

  1. The participial phrase dangles because the conclusion did not review the evidence. Correct answer.
  2. The sentence misplaces the adverb 'clear'.
  3. The sentence uses the wrong tense in the main clause.
  4. The sentence contains a comma splice between two independent clauses.

Explanation

A participial phrase at the start of a sentence must describe the subject of the main clause. Here the subject is 'the conclusion', which cannot perform the action of reviewing evidence, so the phrase dangles. The remedy is to name the reviewer as the subject, for example 'Having reviewed the evidence, the panel reached a clear conclusion'.

Question 38Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In the verbal reasoning section, a passage states: 'The panel did not reject the proposal because it was costly; it rejected it because the timetable was unrealistic.' What does the passage imply about the cost of the proposal?

  1. Cost was not considered at all by the panel.
  2. Cost was the only reason for rejection.
  3. Cost was the main reason for rejection.
  4. Cost was not the reason for rejection. Correct answer.

Explanation

The semicolon separates two balanced clauses that correct an assumed cause. The first clause denies that cost was the reason, and the second supplies the real reason: the unrealistic timetable. The implication is that cost was not the ground for rejection, not that cost was ignored entirely.

Question 39Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A mature age applicant must work out a schedule. Three tasks take 45 minutes, 1 hour 20 minutes and 55 minutes respectively. If the applicant starts at 08:30, at what time does the applicant finish?

  1. 11:45
  2. 12:00
  3. 11:20
  4. 11:30 Correct answer.

Explanation

The total duration is 45 + 80 + 55 = 180 minutes, which is exactly 3 hours. Adding 3 hours to 08:30 gives 11:30. Converting the 1 hour 20 minutes to 80 minutes first avoids errors when totalling mixed units.

Question 40Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A comprehension passage in the entrance paper notes that a university 'waived' the mathematics requirement for applicants with relevant work experience. Which word is closest in meaning to 'waived' as used in the passage?

  1. Enforced
  2. Relaxed Correct answer.
  3. Transferred
  4. Postponed

Explanation

In this context 'waived' means the requirement was set aside or no longer applied to those applicants, so 'relaxed' is the closest match. A waiver removes or eases an obligation rather than delaying it. 'Enforced' would mean the opposite, and 'transferred' changes the object entirely.

Question 41Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a formal entrance-test essay, a candidate writes: 'The committee has decided to accept the recommendation, it will meet again in June.' Which revision best corrects the punctuation?

  1. The committee has decided to accept the recommendation it will meet again in June.
  2. The committee has decided to accept the recommendation, and it will meet again in June,
  3. The committee has decided to accept the recommendation: it will meet again in June.
  4. The committee has decided to accept the recommendation; it will meet again in June. Correct answer.

Explanation

The original joins two independent clauses with only a comma, which is a comma splice. A semicolon correctly separates the two closely related independent clauses. A colon could introduce an explanation, but here the second clause adds a separate fact rather than defining the first, making the semicolon the safer standard choice.

Question 42Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A reasoning item states: 'If a candidate passes the numeracy test, they proceed to the interview. Thandi did not proceed to the interview.' What follows validly?

  1. Thandi did not pass the numeracy test. Correct answer.
  2. Thandi passed the numeracy test.
  3. Thandi passed the numeracy test but declined the interview.
  4. Nothing can be concluded about Thandi's numeracy result.

Explanation

This is a valid modus tollens inference: if passing implies an interview, and no interview occurred, then passing cannot have occurred. Denying the consequent allows us to deny the antecedent. Any conclusion that Thandi passed would contradict the rule.

Question 43Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate must identify the sentence in which the adverb 'only' is placed so that the meaning is 'the panel considered nothing except the evidence'. Which sentence conveys that meaning?

  1. The panel considered the evidence only.
  2. The panel only considered the evidence.
  3. The panel considered only the evidence. Correct answer.
  4. Only the panel considered the evidence.

Explanation

Placing 'only' immediately before 'the evidence' restricts what was considered to the evidence alone. Adverb placement in English changes the focus of the sentence, so position determines meaning. The other placements restrict the panel or the act of considering instead.

Question 44Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A comprehension passage describes a mature age entrant who 're-entered formal education after a decade in industry, bringing habits of punctuality and self-direction that shaped her study routine'. Which inference is best supported by the passage?

  1. She regretted the decade spent in industry.
  2. Her industrial experience influenced how she organised her studies. Correct answer.
  3. She found formal education easier than her industry work.
  4. Her study routine was shaped mainly by her tutors.

Explanation

The passage explicitly links her industry habits to the way she shaped her study routine, so the inference that her work experience influenced her organisation is directly supported. The other options add comparisons, emotions or causes that the passage does not mention. Good comprehension answers stay close to what the text states.

Question 45Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a numerical reasoning item, 15% of an intake of 480 mature age applicants are offered places, and 25% of those offered places decline. How many applicants accept their places?

  1. 72
  2. 54 Correct answer.
  3. 48
  4. 60

Explanation

First find the number offered places: 480 x 0.15 = 72. Of these, 25% decline, so 75% accept: 72 x 0.75 = 54. Combining the two steps as 480 x 0.15 x 0.75 gives the same result.

Question 46Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In the abstract reasoning section, a figure sequence is described as follows: a triangle with 3 dots, a square with 4 dots, a pentagon with 5 dots, a hexagon with 6 dots. Following the same rule, what should the next figure contain?

  1. An octagon with 8 dots
  2. A heptagon with 7 dots Correct answer.
  3. A hexagon with 7 dots
  4. A heptagon with 6 dots

Explanation

Two features change together: the number of sides increases by one at each step, and the number of dots matches the number of sides. The next figure therefore has 7 sides and 7 dots, that is, a heptagon with 7 dots. Keeping both rules in step is essential in figure-sequence items.

Question 47Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate must choose the sentence that uses the semicolon appropriately in a formal entrance-test essay. Which sentence is correct?

  1. The deadline was extended; few applications arrived; however.
  2. The deadline was extended; nevertheless, few applications arrived. Correct answer.
  3. The deadline was extended; and few applications arrived.
  4. The deadline was extended; because few applications arrived.

Explanation

A semicolon joins two independent clauses that are closely related, and a conjunctive adverb such as 'nevertheless' may follow it before a comma. In the correct sentence both sides are independent clauses and the linking adverb is correctly punctuated. Conjunctions and subordinators require different punctuation.

Question 48Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A reasoning passage argues that because a new online revision course was followed by higher pass rates in one department, the course should be adopted across the whole institution. Which criticism most directly weakens this argument?

  1. Some students prefer printed materials to online ones.
  2. The course was expensive to produce.
  3. The higher pass rates may have been caused by other changes in that department. Correct answer.
  4. The department is one of several in the institution.

Explanation

The argument moves from correlation in one department to a general recommendation. Its weakest point is the assumption that the course caused the higher pass rates, so pointing to other changes in the department undermines the causal link. Without causation, the case for institution-wide adoption is not established.

Question 49Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

In a verbal reasoning item, a passage states: 'No candidate may enrol without a pass in English, and every candidate who passes English must also pass numeracy.' A candidate has enrolled. Which conclusion follows?

  1. The candidate may have passed neither English nor numeracy.
  2. The candidate has passed numeracy but not necessarily English.
  3. The candidate has passed both English and numeracy. Correct answer.
  4. The candidate has passed English but not necessarily numeracy.

Explanation

Enrolment requires an English pass, so the enrolled candidate passed English. Since every English pass entails a numeracy pass, the candidate also passed numeracy. Chaining the two necessary conditions yields both results.

Question 50Written entrance tests (appropriate written entrance tests)

A candidate must choose the sentence that best avoids ambiguity in a formal entrance-test essay about admissions policy. Which sentence is clearest?

  1. The panel told the tutors they would review the files.
  2. The panel told the tutors that the panel would review the files. Correct answer.
  3. The panel told the tutors that they themselves would review the files.
  4. The panel told the tutors that they would review the files.

Explanation

The pronoun 'they' in the original can refer either to the panel or to the tutors, creating ambiguity. Replacing it with the explicit noun phrase 'the panel' removes the doubt. Clear formal writing replaces ambiguous pronouns with their referents.