NCAA CPL Air Law Exam cheat sheet

Chicago Convention (1944) Article 1: each State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory, including territorial waters.

Territorial sea is 12 NM measured from the baseline; the airspace over it is sovereign, so overflight requires permission unless a treaty or clearance exists.

Annex 2 Rules of the Air: VFR minima in Class C airspace are 3 km flight visibility and 1500 m horizontal / 300 m (1000 ft) vertical distance from cloud; the ceiling must be at least 1500 ft.

Right of innocent passage does not exist for aircraft over territorial airspace; the first freedom of the air covers only transit without landing, granted by bilateral agreement.

Aircraft nationality is determined by registration; an aircraft may be registered in only one State at a time (Chicago Convention Article 17-18).

The pilot-in-command is responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft, and may deviate from rules to the extent necessary in an emergency (Annex 2).

Aircraft must carry a certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness, crew licences and journey log; the PIC must produce them on demand.

Collision avoidance: an aircraft has the right of way over another when it is on the right; head-on both turn right; overtaking passes on the right.

Aircraft categories for wake turbulence separation: Light (MTOW up to 7000 kg), Medium (7000-136000 kg), Heavy (above 136000 kg); a Super category applies to the A380.

Medical certificate validity for a Class 1: 12 months for single-pilot commercial operations, 6 months for pilots over 40 in single-pilot ops, and 12 months for multi-crew.

Licence privileges are limited to the ratings held and remain valid only if the medical certificate and recent experience requirements are met.

Aircraft must be equipped with a functioning ELT for operations over water or remote areas, and with survival equipment appropriate to the route.

The PIC must report an accident or serious incident to the nearest authority without delay and file a written report within the period prescribed by the State.

Dangerous goods may only be carried by passengers in quantities and packaging permitted by the Technical Instructions; the operator must provide written notice.

A flight plan must be filed for IFR flights and for VFR flights crossing international borders; it must be closed on arrival or the alerting service is activated.

Class A airspace is IFR only; Class B permits VFR and IFR with ATC clearance; Class C requires clearance for both; Class D requires clearance and provides traffic information; Class E and F are controlled/uncontrolled with advisory service; Class G is uncontrolled.

VFR flight is not permitted in Class A airspace and requires an ATC clearance in Classes B, C and D.

Squawk codes: 7500 unlawful interference, 7600 radio failure, 7700 general emergency.

Radio failure in IMC: continue on the last assigned route and level, maintain the last assigned speed for 7 minutes, then follow the filed flight plan.

Position reports must include aircraft identification, position, time, flight level, next position and ETA, and the following significant point.

Separation minima: 1000 ft vertical below FL290 and 2000 ft above in non-RVSM airspace; RVSM reduces the upper limit to 1000 ft between FL290 and FL410.

A clearance must be read back in full when it contains a route, altitude, heading or frequency instruction; 'line up and wait' and 'cleared for take-off' require explicit read-back.

Aerodrome traffic circuit: all turns are made to the left unless otherwise published; the circuit is at 1000 ft above aerodrome elevation unless published.

Runway markings: threshold bars, touchdown zone markings, centreline, aiming point; displaced threshold means landing is not permitted before the displaced point.

Aerodrome beacon flashes white and green; a rotating beacon at a military aerodrome flashes white-white-green.

Aircraft on final approach and landing have right of way over aircraft on the ground; an aircraft taxiing gives way to one taxiing from the right.

Aircraft must not fly over a congested area below 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m, or elsewhere below 500 ft, except for take-off and landing.

The journey log, technical log and certificate of airworthiness must be kept on board; the minimum equipment list defines dispatch with inoperative items.

A State may prohibit or restrict flight over its territory for reasons of military necessity or public safety, and must publish the restriction.

The Warsaw Convention and Montreal Convention govern carrier liability for passenger injury, baggage and cargo; Montreal 1999 uses a two-tier liability system.

The Tokyo Convention addresses offences committed on board aircraft and the powers of the aircraft commander to restrain a person.

The Hague Convention 1970 and Montreal Convention 1971 address unlawful seizure of aircraft and acts of aviation sabotage.

The Rome Convention governs liability for damage caused to third parties on the surface by foreign aircraft.

Annex 13 requires the State of Occurrence to institute an investigation; the State of Registry, Operator, Design and Manufacture may participate as accredited representatives.

Annex 14 sets aerodrome standards including obstacle limitation surfaces, runway strip dimensions and rescue and firefighting category requirements.

Annex 19 establishes the State Safety Programme and requires operators to implement a Safety Management System with a formal safety risk assessment process.

IFR flights must comply with the cruising level table; VFR flights use the same semicircular rule unless regional rules specify otherwise.

An ATC clearance does not relieve the pilot of responsibility for terrain clearance or for avoiding other traffic in VMC.

A clearance to 'hold short' must be read back; a clearance to cross a runway must be explicitly issued and read back.

Special VFR may be granted in controlled airspace when the pilot requests it and the aircraft remains clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.

Aircraft must maintain the last assigned altitude until cleared to a new level; a 'descend when ready' instruction permits descent at the pilot's discretion.

The minimum fuel requirement for IFR is fuel to destination plus alternate plus 45 minutes at normal cruise; for VFR it is the same plus 30 minutes.

In the event of an emergency, the PIC may deviate from rules and must notify ATC as soon as practicable.

A commercial pilot licence requires a Class 1 medical, a minimum of 200 hours total time and the relevant type rating for the aircraft flown.

An ATPL requires 1500 hours total time, including 250 hours as PIC, and a Class 1 medical.

A type rating is required for multi-crew aircraft and for aircraft with a maximum take-off mass above 5700 kg; it is entered on the licence.

Recent experience: three take-offs and landings in the preceding 90 days for passenger-carrying flights; night currency requires three night landings.

A pilot must not act as PIC if aware of any condition that would impair the ability to operate safely, including fatigue, illness or medication.

Logbooks must record date, aircraft type, registration, route, flight time and pilot function; entries must be retained for the period required by the licensing authority.

A licence may be suspended or revoked for a breach of the rules, and the holder must surrender it on demand.

Annex 17 requires each State to establish a national civil aviation security programme and to designate an appropriate authority.

The operator must ensure that baggage and cargo are screened and that access to the aircraft is controlled at all times.

A pilot may refuse to carry a passenger who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs or who poses a threat to safety.

The aircraft commander may take reasonable measures against a person who commits an offence on board, including restraint, and may disembark the person.

A bomb threat or act of unlawful interference must be reported immediately to ATC and to the operator; the aircraft may be diverted to the nearest suitable aerodrome.

Cockpit door locking and crew compartment access rules must be followed; the PIC controls access to the flight deck.

Annex 9 sets facilitation rules including passenger and crew documentation, and requires States to accept a valid passport or an approved travel document.

An accident is an occurrence involving death, serious injury or substantial damage to the aircraft; an incident is any other occurrence affecting safety.

The PIC must report an accident to the nearest authority immediately and file a written report within the time set by the State of Occurrence.

Annex 13 requires the State of Occurrence to investigate and to publish a final report; the sole objective is prevention, not apportioning blame.

A serious incident includes near collisions, runway incursions, engine failure in flight and loss of separation.

The operator must keep records of accidents and incidents and make them available to the investigating authority.

Voluntary reporting systems protect the reporter from enforcement action when the report is made in good faith and promptly.

The aircraft must not be moved after an accident except to rescue persons, prevent further damage or with the authority's permission.

A certificate of airworthiness is issued by the State of Registry and must be renewed at the interval specified by that State.

The aircraft must be maintained in accordance with an approved maintenance programme, and maintenance records must be retained.

A certificate of release to service must be issued after maintenance before the aircraft returns to service.

The minimum equipment list allows dispatch with specific inoperative items; the master minimum equipment list is the basis for the operator's MEL.

An airworthiness directive is mandatory; compliance must be recorded and the aircraft must not fly until the directive is complied with.

The PIC must confirm that the aircraft is airworthy and that the required documents are on board before flight.

Modifications and repairs must be approved by the State of Design or Registry and recorded in the aircraft records.

The Nigerian Civil Aviation Authority (NCAA) is the civil aviation regulator established under the Civil Aviation Act and administers the Nigerian Civil Aviation Regulations (NCARs).

The NCAA Air Operator Certificate is required for commercial air transport; the operator must hold the certificate and comply with its operations specifications.

The Nigerian Airspace Management Agency (NAMA) provides air navigation services, and the Federal Airports Authority of Nigeria (FAAN) manages aerodromes.

The Accident Investigation Bureau (AIB) investigates accidents and serious incidents in Nigeria, independent of the NCAA.

The NCAA-AC-PEL 018 advisory circular sets the syllabus for personnel licensing examinations, including the Air Law paper.

The NCAA issues licences and ratings to pilots, engineers and air traffic controllers, and may suspend or revoke a licence for a breach of the regulations.

Operators must submit occurrence reports to the NCAA and comply with the NCAR requirements on safety management and dangerous goods.

Transition altitude is the altitude at which the pilot changes from local QNH to standard pressure 1013.25 hPa; the transition level is the lowest usable flight level above it.

When descending through the transition level, the pilot sets the QNH of the aerodrome or the nearest reporting station.

A flight level is a pressure altitude referenced to 1013.25 hPa; an altitude is referenced to QNH; a height is referenced to QFE.

Semicircular rule: for magnetic tracks 000-179 use odd flight levels, for 180-359 use even flight levels, unless regional rules differ.

A SIGMET warns of significant meteorological conditions such as thunderstorms, icing, turbulence or volcanic ash; a SPECI is a special aerodrome observation.

Aerodrome warnings and wind shear alerts must be passed to the pilot; the PIC decides whether to commence or continue an approach.

Aircraft must not fly in a prohibited area; restricted areas require permission and danger areas require caution.

Aircraft navigation lights: red on the left wingtip, green on the right wingtip, white at the tail; anti-collision lights must be on when the engines are running.

A steady red light directed at an aircraft in flight means give way and continue circling; a steady green light means cleared to land or cleared for take-off.

A red flare means do not land for the time being; a green flare means cleared to land.

A series of red flashes from the tower means the aerodrome is unsafe, do not land; a series of green flashes means return for landing.

A white flashing light means land at this aerodrome and proceed to the apron; a red flashing light means taxi clear of the landing area.

Aircraft on the ground must display navigation lights at night and must use anti-collision lights when taxiing.

A distress signal may be a MAYDAY call, a red flare, or an SOS; an urgency signal is PAN-PAN.

A flight plan must be filed at least 30 minutes before departure for IFR flights and before departure for VFR flights crossing borders.

The pilot must request a clearance before entering controlled airspace and must read back the clearance in full.

A position report is required at compulsory reporting points; the report includes identification, position, time, level and next position.

The pilot must advise ATC of any deviation from the clearance, of any change in the flight plan, and of any emergency.

A flight plan is closed when the aircraft lands and the pilot reports arrival; failure to close activates the alerting service.

Aircraft must maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency and must not change frequency without notifying ATC.

The PIC must ensure that the aircraft carries the required charts and that the flight plan is consistent with the aircraft performance.

The five freedoms of the air: overflight, technical stop, carriage of traffic to the home State, carriage from the home State, and carriage between third States.

The first two freedoms are technical and do not involve commercial traffic; the remaining freedoms require bilateral agreement.

A State may designate the routes and aerodromes to be used by foreign aircraft and may require prior permission for non-scheduled flights.

Cabotage, the carriage of traffic between two points within the same State by a foreign carrier, is reserved to the national carrier unless agreed.

The State of Registry has jurisdiction over the aircraft and its crew; the State of Occurrence has jurisdiction over the investigation.

A State must ensure that aircraft registered in its territory comply with the Standards of the Annexes, and may grant exemptions with notification.

Disputes between States over the Convention are settled by negotiation, arbitration or the Council of ICAO.

Dangerous goods are classified into nine classes; lithium batteries are Class 9 and are subject to quantity and packaging limits for passengers.

The operator must provide passengers with written notice of the dangerous goods they may not carry, and must ensure that carry-on baggage is screened.

The shipper is responsible for classification, packing, marking and labelling; the operator is responsible for acceptance checks and loading.

Dangerous goods must be loaded so that access is possible in flight and must be separated from foodstuffs and animals.

A dangerous goods incident must be reported to the authority and to the operator, and the report must be retained.

The Technical Instructions of ICAO are the basis for national dangerous goods regulations; the operator must hold an approved training programme.

Carriage of weapons and ammunition is prohibited unless authorised by the State and stowed securely.

Obstacle limitation surfaces include the approach surface, take-off climb surface, inner horizontal, conical and outer horizontal surfaces.

The runway strip must be clear of obstacles and must extend at least 30 m each side of the runway centreline for a precision approach runway.

Runway end safety area extends at least 90 m beyond the runway end for code 3 and 4 runways.

Aerodrome reference code is based on the runway length and the wingspan and outer main gear wheel span of the critical aircraft.

Rescue and firefighting category is determined by the length and width of the largest aircraft using the aerodrome.

A displaced threshold reduces the landing distance available; the take-off run available may remain unchanged.

Aerodrome operating minima are established by the operator and approved by the State, taking into account the approach aid and crew qualification.

An ATC clearance is an authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions; it does not authorise flight into terrain or into other traffic.

If a clearance is not understood, the pilot must request clarification and must not proceed on the assumption of the clearance.

A clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is cleared; if no delay is expected, the pilot may proceed to the limit and hold.

A 'hold short' instruction must be read back and the aircraft must stop before the runway holding position marking.

A conditional clearance, such as 'behind the landing aircraft', must be read back and the condition monitored by the pilot.

An amended clearance supersedes the previous clearance; the pilot must read back the amended portion.

The pilot must advise ATC when unable to comply with a clearance and must request an alternative.

A distress call is MAYDAY, repeated three times, followed by identification, position, nature of distress and intentions.

An urgency call is PAN-PAN, repeated three times, used when a situation is serious but not immediately dangerous.

The PIC may deviate from the rules in an emergency and must notify ATC as soon as practicable and file a report if required.

In the event of radio failure, the pilot must follow the published procedures and may use light signals or relay through another aircraft.

An aircraft in distress has priority over all other traffic; other aircraft must give way and avoid the area.

The emergency locator transmitter must be activated after a crash and must be tested only in the first five minutes of each hour.

The PIC must ensure that passengers are briefed on emergency procedures and that the aircraft carries the required emergency equipment.

The Civil Aviation Act gives effect to the Chicago Convention in Nigerian law and empowers the NCAA to make regulations.

Where the NCARs differ from the Annexes, the more restrictive requirement applies to operations in Nigerian airspace.

A foreign aircraft operating in Nigeria must comply with Nigerian rules and with the rules of its State of Registry.

The PIC is subject to the laws of the State in which the aircraft is operating, including customs, immigration and health rules.

Aircraft must land at a designated customs aerodrome when entering or leaving the country, unless exempted.

The carriage of passengers and cargo for remuneration requires an operating licence and, for international operations, traffic rights.

The NCAA may inspect an aircraft and its documents at any time and may ground an aircraft that does not comply.

Class A: IFR only, all aircraft separated by ATC, no VFR permitted.

Class B: IFR and VFR, all aircraft separated, ATC clearance required for all flights.

Class C: IFR and VFR, IFR separated from IFR and VFR, VFR separated from IFR and given traffic information about other VFR.

Class D: IFR and VFR, IFR separated from IFR, VFR given traffic information, ATC clearance required.

Class E: IFR and VFR, IFR separated from IFR, VFR not separated and only given traffic information where practicable.

Class F: advisory service, IFR and VFR may participate, separation provided only where practicable.

Class G: uncontrolled, no ATC service, flight information and alerting service only.

'Aircraft' includes any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air, other than reactions against the earth's surface.

'Pilot-in-command' is the pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of general aviation the owner, as being in command of the flight.

'Flight time' is the total time from the moment the aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until it comes to rest at the end of the flight.

'Commercial air transport' means the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.

'Aerodrome' is a defined area on land or water intended to be used for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

'Controlled airspace' is airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided.

'Serious injury' means an injury that requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours or involves a fracture, a laceration or burns.

The PIC has final authority over the operation of the aircraft and may take any action necessary in an emergency.

The PIC must ensure that the aircraft is airworthy, that the documents are on board and that the flight can be completed safely.

The PIC must not permit a person to act as a crew member if that person is unfit for duty.

The PIC must report any incident that affects the safety of the flight to the operator and to the authority.

The PIC must ensure that passengers are seated and briefed before take-off and landing.

The PIC must comply with the rules of the air and with ATC instructions, unless an emergency requires deviation.

The PIC must ensure that the aircraft is not operated in a negligent or reckless manner likely to endanger persons or property.

The certificate of registration must be carried on board and must show the nationality and registration marks.

The certificate of airworthiness must be carried on board and must be valid for the flight.

The crew licences and medical certificates must be carried on board or be available for inspection.

The journey log must record the flight details and must be retained by the operator.

The technical log must record defects and maintenance actions and must be signed by the certifying engineer.

The aircraft radio station licence must be carried on board.

The operations manual and the minimum equipment list must be available to the crew.

A prohibited area is airspace within which flight is prohibited; a restricted area is airspace within which flight is subject to conditions.

A danger area is airspace within which activities dangerous to flight may exist at specified times.

Temporary reserved airspace may be established for a specific event and must be notified by NOTAM.

A NOTAM is a notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information on the establishment, condition or change of any facility or procedure.

AIP is the Aeronautical Information Publication issued by the State and contains permanent information essential to air navigation.

AIP supplements contain temporary changes of long duration; NOTAMs contain short-notice changes.

Aircraft must not enter a prohibited area and must obtain permission to enter a restricted area.

Air traffic control service is provided to prevent collisions, expedite and maintain an orderly flow of traffic, and provide information and alerts.

Flight information service provides advice and information useful for the safe conduct of flights.

Alerting service notifies the appropriate organisations when an aircraft is in distress or overdue.

Separation is provided by vertical, horizontal or radar means; the minimum radar separation is normally 5 NM.

A radar controller may provide separation based on observed positions; the pilot remains responsible for collision avoidance in VMC.

A clearance to maintain a level does not guarantee separation from unknown traffic unless the airspace class provides it.

The pilot must notify ATC when unable to maintain the assigned level or speed.

The Air Law examination covers the Convention, Annexes, national regulations, licensing, airworthiness, operations and accident investigation.

Candidates must demonstrate knowledge of the privileges and limitations of the licence and ratings held.

Candidates must know the rules of the air, including right-of-way, lights, signals and flight plan requirements.

Candidates must know the requirements for medical certificates and recent experience.

Candidates must know the operator's responsibilities for safety management and dangerous goods.

Candidates must know the process for accident and incident notification and investigation.

Candidates must know the role of ICAO and the NCAA in regulating civil aviation.

Annex 1 Personnel Licensing; Annex 2 Rules of the Air; Annex 3 Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation.

Annex 4 Aeronautical Charts; Annex 5 Units of Measurement; Annex 6 Operation of Aircraft.

Annex 7 Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks; Annex 8 Airworthiness of Aircraft.

Annex 9 Facilitation; Annex 10 Aeronautical Telecommunications; Annex 11 Air Traffic Services.

Annex 12 Search and Rescue; Annex 13 Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation.

Annex 14 Aerodromes; Annex 15 Aeronautical Information Services; Annex 16 Environmental Protection.

Annex 17 Security; Annex 18 The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air; Annex 19 Safety Management.

Standard pressure is 1013.25 hPa; standard temperature at sea level is 15 degrees Celsius.

Altimeter setting is QNH for altitude above mean sea level, QFE for height above aerodrome, and QNE for pressure altitude at 1013.25 hPa.

One flight level equals 100 ft of pressure altitude.

Time is expressed in Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in aviation documents and communications.

Distances are expressed in nautical miles and speeds in knots for navigation and ATC purposes.

Vertical distances below the transition altitude are expressed in feet; above it in flight levels.

The transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.

Annex 12 requires each State to establish a search and rescue service and to designate a SAR coordinator.

A distress phase is declared when an aircraft is known or believed to be in serious and imminent danger.

An alerting phase is declared when an aircraft is overdue or has not reported as expected.

The pilot must transmit a distress message on the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz if able.

The ELT transmits on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz; the 406 MHz signal is detected by the COSPAS-SARSAT system.

The rescue coordination centre coordinates the search and rescue operation and notifies the State of Registry.

Aircraft must render assistance to persons in distress at sea if able, and must report the position of any vessel in distress.

The operator must ensure that the aircraft is maintained and operated in accordance with the operations manual and the certificate of airworthiness.

The operator must provide training and checking for crew members and must keep records of training and proficiency checks.

The operator must establish a safety management system and a quality assurance programme.

The operator must ensure that crew members are adequately rested and comply with flight time and duty time limitations.

The operator must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with the required instruments and equipment for the intended operation.

The operator must ensure that dangerous goods are carried in accordance with the Technical Instructions.

The operator must report accidents and incidents to the authority and cooperate with the investigation.

ICAO is a specialised agency of the United Nations established by the Chicago Convention and headquartered in Montreal.

The ICAO Council adopts Standards and Recommended Practices as Annexes to the Convention.

IATA is a trade association of airlines and publishes the Dangerous Goods Regulations and the IATA Operational Safety Audit.

The FAA is the United States civil aviation regulator; EASA is the European Union Aviation Safety Agency.

The African Civil Aviation Commission (AFCAC) coordinates civil aviation matters in Africa.

The NCAA represents Nigeria at ICAO and implements the Standards in national regulations.

The Convention on International Civil Aviation has 19 Annexes as of current publication.

The NCAA may issue a warning, suspend or revoke a licence, or impose a financial penalty for a breach of the regulations.

Enforcement action may follow an inspection, an audit, an accident investigation or a report of a violation.

The holder of a licence must surrender it on suspension or revocation and must not exercise the privileges.

A person who operates an aircraft without a valid licence or certificate commits an offence under the Civil Aviation Act.

The NCAA may detain an aircraft that does not comply with the regulations until the defect is rectified.

The operator must ensure that crew members comply with the regulations and must take action against a crew member who breaches them.

A person may appeal against an enforcement decision through the procedure established by the NCAA.

The certificate of airworthiness is issued when the aircraft complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements of the State of Design and Registry.

The State of Registry may issue a certificate on the basis of a certificate issued by another State, subject to conditions.

The aircraft must be maintained in accordance with a maintenance programme approved by the State of Registry.

The operator must ensure that the aircraft is inspected before flight and that defects are recorded and rectified.

An airworthiness directive must be complied with within the specified time and the compliance must be recorded.

The aircraft must not be operated beyond the limitations in the flight manual.

The certificate of airworthiness may be suspended if the aircraft is damaged or modified without approval.

VFR flights must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface, with the visibility and distance from cloud required by the airspace class.

VFR flights must not operate above FL195 unless authorised; IFR flights must comply with the cruising level table.

An IFR flight must be conducted in accordance with the instrument approach and departure procedures published for the aerodrome.

A pilot may cancel an IFR flight plan in VMC and continue under VFR if the VFR minima are met.

A pilot must not commence a VFR flight if the weather is below the VFR minima for the route.

Special VFR requires an ATC clearance and must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.

A pilot must advise ATC when changing from IFR to VFR or vice versa.

The standard read-back requirement applies to clearances and instructions that affect safety, including runway and altitude instructions.

The word 'cleared' indicates an authorisation; 'expect' indicates a conditional instruction that is not yet valid.

'Standby' means the controller will call back; it is not an approval.

'Roger' means the message was received; 'wilco' means the instruction will be complied with.

'Affirm' and 'negative' are used instead of 'yes' and 'no' in radiotelephony.

The emergency frequency is 121.5 MHz; the distress and urgency signals are MAYDAY and PAN-PAN.

The pilot must use the aircraft registration or call sign in all communications.

The circuit direction is left unless published otherwise; the circuit height is published in the AIP or on the chart.

An aircraft joining the circuit must give way to aircraft already in the circuit and on final approach.

An aircraft must not enter the runway without a clearance from the aerodrome control tower.

An aircraft must vacate the runway as soon as practicable after landing and must not stop on the runway.

Aircraft must follow the taxi instructions and must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The aerodrome controller is responsible for the separation of aircraft on the runway and in the circuit.

Aircraft must display lights at night and must use anti-collision lights when the engines are running.

The operator must hold insurance covering liability for passengers, baggage, cargo and third parties.

The Montreal Convention 1999 sets the limit for passenger death or injury at 128,821 Special Drawing Rights, subject to review.

The carrier is liable for damage to baggage up to 1,288 SDR and for cargo up to 19 SDR per kilogram, subject to review.

The carrier may be exonerated if the damage was caused by the negligence of the passenger or by an inherent defect in the goods.

The operator must carry proof of insurance on board and produce it on demand.

The State may require a higher limit of liability for its national carriers.

The Warsaw Convention applies to international carriage and the Montreal Convention has largely superseded it among ratifying States.

A clearance is a permission to proceed; an instruction is a direction that must be complied with unless safety requires otherwise.

A pilot must read back an instruction that assigns a runway, an altitude, a heading or a frequency.

A pilot must not accept a clearance that would compromise safety and must advise ATC if unable to comply.

A clearance to land or take off is issued by the aerodrome controller and must be read back.

A clearance to cross a runway must be explicitly issued and read back.

A pilot must advise ATC of any change in the ability to comply with a clearance.

A pilot must not deviate from a clearance without advising ATC, except in an emergency.

Annex 3 requires States to provide meteorological services for international air navigation and to issue forecasts and warnings.

A METAR is a routine aerodrome weather report; a SPECI is issued when conditions change significantly.

A TAF is an aerodrome forecast valid for a specified period, normally 9 to 30 hours.

A SIGMET is issued for significant meteorological phenomena that may affect the safety of flights.

An AIRMET is issued for phenomena of lesser severity than a SIGMET.

A wind shear warning must be passed to the pilot without delay.

The pilot must report any hazardous weather encountered to ATC for dissemination to other aircraft.

Annex 4 specifies the aeronautical charts to be provided, including the world aeronautical chart, the aerodrome obstacle chart and the instrument approach chart.

The scale of the world aeronautical chart at 1:1,000,000 is used for navigation; the 1:500,000 chart is used for terminal areas.

The aeronautical chart must show prohibited, restricted and danger areas, and the minimum safe altitude.

The instrument approach chart shows the approach procedure, minima, and the missed approach procedure.

The aerodrome chart shows the layout, taxiways, aprons and the declared distances.

The pilot must use current charts and must check the effective date before flight.

The minimum safe altitude shown on the chart provides 1000 ft clearance above the highest obstacle within a specified distance.

Article 1: sovereignty of States over their airspace.

Article 5: non-scheduled flights may cross the territory of another State without prior permission, subject to the right of the State to require landing.

Article 6: scheduled international air services require special permission or authorisation.

Article 9: States may establish prohibited areas and must publish them.

Article 12: each State must ensure that aircraft under its jurisdiction comply with the rules of the air.

Article 13: entry and clearance regulations of the State must be complied with on arrival and departure.

Article 26: the State of Occurrence must institute an investigation into an accident.

Annex 19 requires States to establish a State Safety Programme and operators to implement a Safety Management System.

An SMS has four components: safety policy and objectives, safety risk management, safety assurance, and safety promotion.

Safety risk management involves hazard identification, risk assessment and risk mitigation.

Safety assurance involves monitoring, measurement and continuous improvement of safety performance.

A safety performance indicator is a measure of the safety performance of the organisation.

A just culture encourages the reporting of errors without fear of punishment while maintaining accountability for gross negligence.

The operator must conduct internal audits and reviews as part of the SMS.

An air operator certificate is issued by the NCAA to an operator that meets the requirements of the NCARs.

The operator must submit an operations manual, a maintenance programme and a training programme for approval.

The operator must demonstrate financial viability and hold insurance for the intended operations.

The certificate specifies the types of aircraft and the areas of operation authorised.

The operator must maintain a quality system and a safety management system.

The certificate may be varied, suspended or revoked by the NCAA for non-compliance.

The operator must notify the NCAA of any change in the organisation or the fleet.

The operator must ensure that each passenger is briefed on the use of safety belts, exits and oxygen equipment.

The operator must ensure that passengers are seated with belts fastened for take-off and landing.

The operator must not permit a passenger to occupy a seat that interferes with the crew or the emergency exits.

The operator must ensure that carry-on baggage is stowed so that it does not obstruct the aisle or exits.

The operator must ensure that passengers with reduced mobility are assisted and that the aircraft is equipped for their carriage.

The operator must ensure that a passenger who is unruly is restrained if necessary and reported to the authority.

The operator must ensure that the number of passengers does not exceed the seating capacity of the aircraft.

The operator must establish flight time and duty time limitations that ensure crew members are adequately rested.

The limitations must be approved by the NCAA and must be based on scientific principles.

The maximum flight time in any 24-hour period and in any 28-day period is specified in the regulations.

The crew member must have a minimum rest period before reporting for duty.

The operator must keep records of flight time and duty time for each crew member.

A crew member must not act if fatigued or if the rest period has been insufficient.

The operator must ensure that the flight time limitations are not exceeded in unforeseen circumstances without a report to the NCAA.

The controller must coordinate with the adjacent unit before issuing a clearance that affects the adjacent unit's airspace.

The pilot must advise ATC when entering or leaving a control area and must obtain a clearance before entering.

The pilot must maintain a continuous listening watch on the assigned frequency.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the flight plan or the aircraft's performance.

The controller must pass traffic information to the pilot when the airspace class requires it.

The pilot must advise ATC when unable to maintain the assigned speed or level.

The pilot must report any failure of the radio or navigation equipment to ATC.

The aircraft commander may take reasonable measures, including restraint, against a person who commits an offence on board.

The commander may disembark a person who is a threat to safety and may deliver the person to the authorities.

The commander may refuse to carry a person who is intoxicated or who refuses to comply with instructions.

The commander may search a person or baggage if there are reasonable grounds to believe that a weapon or dangerous item is carried.

The commander has final authority over the aircraft and may deviate from the rules in an emergency.

The commander must report the restraint or disembarkation to the authorities.

The commander must ensure that the flight deck is secure and that access is controlled.

The Paris Convention 1919 established the principle of sovereignty over airspace and the first international aviation rules.

The Chicago Convention 1944 established ICAO and the framework for international civil aviation.

The Warsaw Convention 1929 established the liability of the carrier for international carriage.

The Montreal Convention 1999 modernised the Warsaw system and introduced a two-tier liability regime.

The Tokyo Convention 1963 addresses offences on board aircraft.

The Montreal Convention 1971 addresses unlawful acts against the safety of civil aviation.

The Cape Town Convention 2001 addresses international interests in mobile equipment, including aircraft.

A flight information region is an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information and alerting services are provided.

A control area is a controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.

A control zone is a controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit around an aerodrome.

A terminal control area is established at the confluence of routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.

The lower limit of a control area is normally 700 ft or 2000 ft above the surface, depending on the terrain.

The boundary of a flight information region is established by agreement between adjacent States.

The pilot must obtain information about the airspace classification before the flight.

An airworthiness directive is issued by the State of Design and adopted by the State of Registry.

Compliance with an airworthiness directive is mandatory and must be recorded in the aircraft records.

The aircraft must not be flown if an airworthiness directive is overdue.

The maintenance programme must be approved by the State of Registry and must be based on the manufacturer's recommendations.

The operator must ensure that maintenance is performed by qualified personnel and that a certificate of release to service is issued.

The operator must keep maintenance records for the period specified by the State.

The operator must report any defect that could affect airworthiness to the State of Registry.

The alerting service is provided to notify the appropriate organisations when an aircraft is in distress or overdue.

The uncertainty phase is declared when an aircraft has not reported within 30 minutes of the expected time.

The alerting phase is declared when an aircraft is overdue or its operating efficiency is impaired.

The distress phase is declared when an aircraft is known or believed to be in serious and imminent danger.

The rescue coordination centre is notified when the distress phase is declared.

The pilot must transmit a distress message on 121.5 MHz if able.

The alerting service is terminated when the aircraft is accounted for.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency and the assistance required.

The controller must give priority to an aircraft in emergency and must provide all available assistance.

The pilot may deviate from the rules in an emergency and must notify ATC as soon as practicable.

The controller must inform the pilot of the available aerodromes and the weather conditions.

The controller must coordinate with the rescue services and the operator.

The pilot must report the emergency to the authority after the flight.

The controller must keep a record of the emergency and the actions taken.

Vertical separation is 1000 ft between aircraft below FL290 and 2000 ft above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace.

RVSM airspace is between FL290 and FL410 and requires 1000 ft vertical separation and approved equipment.

Horizontal separation is provided by time, distance or radar.

The minimum radar separation is normally 5 NM, reduced to 3 NM in terminal areas.

Wake turbulence separation is applied based on the categories of the leading and following aircraft.

The controller must apply separation between IFR flights and between IFR and VFR flights in controlled airspace.

The pilot must advise ATC if the separation appears to be inadequate.

The pilot must use standard phraseology and must read back clearances and instructions.

The pilot must not use the frequency for other than operational communications.

The pilot must advise ATC when changing frequency and must maintain a listening watch.

The pilot must use the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz for distress and urgency communications.

The pilot must use the aircraft call sign in all communications.

The pilot must advise ATC of any radio failure and must follow the published procedures.

The pilot must use the correct signal for radio failure, including the light signals if able.

A flight plan must be filed for IFR flights and for VFR flights crossing international borders.

The flight plan must contain the aircraft identification, type, wake turbulence category, equipment, departure and destination aerodromes, route, level and endurance.

The flight plan must be filed at least 30 minutes before departure for IFR flights.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change to the flight plan.

The flight plan is closed when the aircraft lands and the pilot reports arrival.

The alerting service is activated if the flight plan is not closed.

The pilot must ensure that the flight plan is consistent with the aircraft performance and the weather.

A position report must be made at compulsory reporting points and when requested by ATC.

The report must include the aircraft identification, position, time, level, next position and estimated time over.

The report must include the significant meteorological conditions encountered.

The report must be made on the appropriate frequency and must be acknowledged.

The pilot must advise ATC of any deviation from the planned route or level.

The pilot must report the position when entering or leaving a control area.

The pilot must report the position when crossing a boundary between flight information regions.

A clearance must be obtained before entering controlled airspace and before operating on a controlled aerodrome.

The clearance must be read back in full when it contains a route, altitude, heading or frequency instruction.

The pilot must not deviate from the clearance without advising ATC, except in an emergency.

The pilot must request an amended clearance if unable to comply.

The pilot must advise ATC when the clearance has been completed.

The pilot must not accept a clearance that would compromise safety.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the ability to comply with the clearance.

The aerodrome controller is responsible for the separation of aircraft on the runway and in the circuit.

The aerodrome controller issues clearances to land, take off, taxi and cross runways.

The pilot must read back a clearance to land, take off, taxi or cross a runway.

The pilot must not enter the runway without a clearance.

The pilot must vacate the runway as soon as practicable after landing.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions and must stop at the holding position marking.

The pilot must advise the controller when the runway has been vacated.

The approach controller is responsible for the separation of aircraft in the terminal area.

The approach controller issues clearances for the approach and for the descent.

The pilot must read back the approach clearance and the level instructions.

The pilot must advise the controller when the approach aid is not available or the approach cannot be completed.

The pilot must advise the controller when the aircraft is established on the approach.

The pilot must advise the controller when the aircraft has landed or has gone around.

The pilot must follow the published approach procedure unless cleared otherwise.

The area controller is responsible for the separation of aircraft in the control area.

The area controller issues clearances for the route and the level.

The pilot must read back the level instructions and the route clearance.

The pilot must advise the controller of any change in the flight plan or the aircraft performance.

The pilot must report the position at compulsory reporting points.

The pilot must advise the controller when the aircraft is unable to maintain the assigned level or speed.

The pilot must advise the controller of any emergency or deviation from the clearance.

The radar controller may provide separation based on observed positions.

The pilot must advise the controller if the radar identification is not correct.

The pilot must advise the controller if the aircraft is unable to comply with a radar instruction.

The pilot must advise the controller when the aircraft is established on the approach.

The pilot must advise the controller when the aircraft has landed or has gone around.

The pilot must follow the radar instructions unless safety requires otherwise.

The pilot must advise the controller of any emergency or deviation from the clearance.

ADS-B is a surveillance technology in which the aircraft broadcasts its position and other data.

ADS-B Out transmits the position, altitude and identification to the ground and to other aircraft.

ADS-B In receives the data from other aircraft and from the ground.

The pilot must ensure that the ADS-B equipment is operating correctly before flight.

The pilot must advise ATC if the ADS-B equipment fails.

The pilot must not use ADS-B data as the sole means of collision avoidance.

The pilot must maintain a visual lookout and use the radio for coordination.

PBN specifies the performance requirements for navigation in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity and availability.

RNAV and RNP are navigation specifications within PBN.

RNP requires on-board performance monitoring and alerting.

The pilot must ensure that the aircraft is approved for the navigation specification before the flight.

The pilot must advise ATC if the navigation performance is not met.

The pilot must follow the published routes and procedures.

The pilot must not use the navigation equipment beyond its approved limitations.

In the event of communication failure, the pilot must follow the published procedures.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7600.

The pilot must continue on the last assigned route and level and maintain the last assigned speed for 7 minutes.

The pilot must then follow the filed flight plan.

The pilot must attempt to communicate using the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.

The pilot must use light signals if able.

The pilot must land at the first suitable aerodrome and report the failure.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7500 in the event of unlawful interference.

The pilot must attempt to communicate with ATC using the standard phraseology.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must not disclose the nature of the interference on an open frequency.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if instructed.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7700.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended descent and the level.

The pilot must turn off the assigned route if necessary to avoid traffic.

The pilot must advise ATC when the emergency is over.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must report the emergency to the authority after the flight.

Wake turbulence is generated by the wingtips of an aircraft and is greatest when the aircraft is heavy, clean and slow.

The pilot must apply the wake turbulence separation minima specified by the authority.

The pilot must avoid the flight path of a preceding aircraft and land beyond its touchdown point.

The pilot must be aware of the wake turbulence of a preceding aircraft during take-off and landing.

The pilot must advise ATC if wake turbulence is encountered.

The pilot must use the correct phraseology to report wake turbulence.

The pilot must maintain the required separation from the preceding aircraft.

The pilot must report a bird strike to ATC and to the aerodrome operator.

The pilot must advise ATC of the position and the extent of the bird activity.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if the aircraft is damaged.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the damage.

The pilot must avoid volcanic ash clouds and must advise ATC of the position of the ash.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if the aircraft is damaged.

The pilot must report the encounter to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the damage.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for volcanic ash encounters.

The pilot must ensure that dangerous goods are carried in accordance with the Technical Instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the dangerous goods are loaded so that access is possible in flight.

The pilot must ensure that the dangerous goods are separated from foodstuffs and animals.

The pilot must report a dangerous goods incident to the authority and to the operator.

The pilot must ensure that the dangerous goods are documented and labelled.

The pilot must ensure that the crew is trained in the carriage of dangerous goods.

The pilot must not carry dangerous goods that are prohibited.

The pilot must ensure that the flight deck is secure and that access is controlled.

The pilot must ensure that the aircraft is searched if there is a bomb threat.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if instructed.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if necessary.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the fuel remaining.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must advise ATC of the diversion and the reason.

The pilot must obtain a new clearance for the diversion route and level.

The pilot must advise the operator of the diversion.

The pilot must ensure that the aircraft has sufficient fuel for the diversion.

The pilot must ensure that the destination aerodrome is suitable for the aircraft.

The pilot must advise ATC when the diversion is complete.

The pilot must report the diversion to the authority if required.

The pilot must enter the holding pattern in accordance with the published procedure.

The pilot must maintain the assigned level and speed in the hold.

The pilot must advise ATC of the time of arrival at the holding fix.

The pilot must advise ATC when leaving the hold.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC if the holding time is likely to exceed the fuel endurance.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the fuel becomes critical.

The pilot must follow the published approach procedure unless cleared otherwise.

The pilot must advise ATC when established on the approach.

The pilot must advise ATC if the approach cannot be completed.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must follow the missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the approach.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to land before landing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to land.

The pilot must vacate the runway as soon as practicable after landing.

The pilot must advise ATC when the runway has been vacated.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to take off before take-off.

The pilot must read back the clearance to take off.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must follow the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when airborne.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC if the take-off is aborted.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to taxi before taxiing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to taxi.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to push back before pushing back.

The pilot must read back the clearance to push back.

The pilot must follow the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the pushback is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the pushback instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area behind the aircraft is clear.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to start the engines if required by the aerodrome.

The pilot must read back the clearance to start.

The pilot must follow the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the start-up is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the start-up instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area around the aircraft is clear.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must descend to a safe altitude.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended descent and the level.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must advise ATC of the icing conditions encountered.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must change level or route to avoid the icing conditions.

The pilot must report the icing conditions to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the icing conditions.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for icing encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the icing is severe.

The pilot must advise ATC of the turbulence encountered.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must change level or route to avoid the turbulence.

The pilot must report the turbulence to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the turbulence.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for turbulence encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the turbulence is severe.

The pilot must avoid thunderstorms and must advise ATC of the position of the storm.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must change level or route to avoid the storm.

The pilot must report the storm to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the storm.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for thunderstorm encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the storm is severe.

The pilot must advise ATC of the wind shear encountered.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must go around if the wind shear is encountered on the approach.

The pilot must report the wind shear to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the wind shear.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for wind shear encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the wind shear is severe.

The pilot must avoid microbursts and must advise ATC of the position of the microburst.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must go around if the microburst is encountered on the approach.

The pilot must report the microburst to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the microburst.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for microburst encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the microburst is severe.

The wake turbulence category of an aircraft is based on its maximum take-off mass.

Light aircraft have a maximum take-off mass of 7000 kg or less.

Medium aircraft have a maximum take-off mass between 7000 kg and 136000 kg.

Heavy aircraft have a maximum take-off mass of 136000 kg or more.

The Super category applies to the A380.

The pilot must include the wake turbulence category in the flight plan.

The pilot must apply the wake turbulence separation minima specified by the authority.

The emergency frequency is 121.5 MHz.

The pilot must use the emergency frequency for distress and urgency communications.

The pilot must monitor the emergency frequency if able.

The pilot must advise ATC of any communication on the emergency frequency.

The pilot must use the standard distress and urgency signals.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for the use of the emergency frequency.

The pilot must not use the emergency frequency for other than emergency communications.

The pilot must set the transponder to the code assigned by ATC.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7500 for unlawful interference.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7600 for radio failure.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7700 for a general emergency.

The pilot must operate the transponder in the mode assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if the transponder fails.

The pilot must not change the transponder code without advising ATC.

The pilot must set the altimeter to the QNH of the aerodrome or the nearest reporting station.

The pilot must set the altimeter to standard pressure 1013.25 hPa when passing the transition altitude.

The pilot must reset the altimeter to the QNH when descending through the transition level.

The pilot must advise ATC of the altimeter setting used.

The pilot must ensure that the altimeter is accurate before flight.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for altimeter setting.

The pilot must advise ATC if the altimeter is unreliable.

The pilot must maintain the speed assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to maintain the assigned speed.

The pilot must comply with the speed limits published for the airspace.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in speed.

The pilot must not exceed the maximum speed for the aircraft.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for speed control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the speed restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must maintain the level assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to maintain the assigned level.

The pilot must comply with the semicircular rule for the level.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in level.

The pilot must not change level without a clearance.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for level control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the level restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must maintain the heading assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to maintain the assigned heading.

The pilot must comply with the heading instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in heading.

The pilot must not change heading without a clearance.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for heading control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the heading restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must follow the route assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to follow the assigned route.

The pilot must comply with the route instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in route.

The pilot must not change route without a clearance.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for route control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the route restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must enter the holding pattern in accordance with the published procedure.

The pilot must maintain the assigned level and speed in the hold.

The pilot must advise ATC of the time of arrival at the holding fix.

The pilot must advise ATC when leaving the hold.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC if the holding time is likely to exceed the fuel endurance.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the fuel becomes critical.

The pilot must follow the published approach procedure unless cleared otherwise.

The pilot must advise ATC when established on the approach.

The pilot must advise ATC if the approach cannot be completed.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must follow the missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the approach.

The pilot must follow the published missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must advise ATC of the reason for the missed approach.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended action after the missed approach.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft is established on the next approach.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must follow the published missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC of the reason for the go-around.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended action after the go-around.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft is established on the next approach.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to land before landing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to land.

The pilot must vacate the runway as soon as practicable after landing.

The pilot must advise ATC when the runway has been vacated.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to take off before take-off.

The pilot must read back the clearance to take off.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must follow the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when airborne.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC if the take-off is aborted.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to taxi before taxiing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to taxi.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to push back before pushing back.

The pilot must read back the clearance to push back.

The pilot must follow the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the pushback is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the pushback instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area behind the aircraft is clear.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to start the engines if required by the aerodrome.

The pilot must read back the clearance to start.

The pilot must follow the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the start-up is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the start-up instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area around the aircraft is clear.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7700.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended descent and the level.

The pilot must turn off the assigned route if necessary to avoid traffic.

The pilot must advise ATC when the emergency is over.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must report the emergency to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7500 in the event of unlawful interference.

The pilot must attempt to communicate with ATC using the standard phraseology.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must not disclose the nature of the interference on an open frequency.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if instructed.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

In the event of communication failure, the pilot must follow the published procedures.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7600.

The pilot must continue on the last assigned route and level and maintain the last assigned speed for 7 minutes.

The pilot must then follow the filed flight plan.

The pilot must attempt to communicate using the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.

The pilot must use light signals if able.

The pilot must land at the first suitable aerodrome and report the failure.

Wake turbulence is generated by the wingtips of an aircraft and is greatest when the aircraft is heavy, clean and slow.

The pilot must apply the wake turbulence separation minima specified by the authority.

The pilot must avoid the flight path of a preceding aircraft and land beyond its touchdown point.

The pilot must be aware of the wake turbulence of a preceding aircraft during take-off and landing.

The pilot must advise ATC if wake turbulence is encountered.

The pilot must use the correct phraseology to report wake turbulence.

The pilot must maintain the required separation from the preceding aircraft.

The pilot must report a bird strike to ATC and to the aerodrome operator.

The pilot must advise ATC of the position and the extent of the bird activity.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if the aircraft is damaged.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the damage.

The pilot must avoid volcanic ash clouds and must advise ATC of the position of the ash.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if the aircraft is damaged.

The pilot must report the encounter to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the damage.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for volcanic ash encounters.

The pilot must ensure that dangerous goods are carried in accordance with the Technical Instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the dangerous goods are loaded so that access is possible in flight.

The pilot must ensure that the dangerous goods are separated from foodstuffs and animals.

The pilot must report a dangerous goods incident to the authority and to the operator.

The pilot must ensure that the dangerous goods are documented and labelled.

The pilot must ensure that the crew is trained in the carriage of dangerous goods.

The pilot must not carry dangerous goods that are prohibited.

The pilot must ensure that the flight deck is secure and that access is controlled.

The pilot must ensure that the aircraft is searched if there is a bomb threat.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if instructed.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome if necessary.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the fuel remaining.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must advise ATC of the diversion and the reason.

The pilot must obtain a new clearance for the diversion route and level.

The pilot must advise the operator of the diversion.

The pilot must ensure that the aircraft has sufficient fuel for the diversion.

The pilot must ensure that the destination aerodrome is suitable for the aircraft.

The pilot must advise ATC when the diversion is complete.

The pilot must report the diversion to the authority if required.

The pilot must enter the holding pattern in accordance with the published procedure.

The pilot must maintain the assigned level and speed in the hold.

The pilot must advise ATC of the time of arrival at the holding fix.

The pilot must advise ATC when leaving the hold.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC if the holding time is likely to exceed the fuel endurance.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the fuel becomes critical.

The pilot must follow the published approach procedure unless cleared otherwise.

The pilot must advise ATC when established on the approach.

The pilot must advise ATC if the approach cannot be completed.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must follow the missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the approach.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to land before landing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to land.

The pilot must vacate the runway as soon as practicable after landing.

The pilot must advise ATC when the runway has been vacated.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to take off before take-off.

The pilot must read back the clearance to take off.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must follow the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when airborne.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC if the take-off is aborted.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to taxi before taxiing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to taxi.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to push back before pushing back.

The pilot must read back the clearance to push back.

The pilot must follow the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the pushback is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the pushback instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area behind the aircraft is clear.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to start the engines if required by the aerodrome.

The pilot must read back the clearance to start.

The pilot must follow the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the start-up is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the start-up instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area around the aircraft is clear.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must advise ATC of the assistance required.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must cooperate with the investigation.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must declare an emergency using MAYDAY and state the nature of the emergency.

The pilot must descend to a safe altitude.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended descent and the level.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

The pilot must report the incident to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the incident.

The pilot must advise ATC of the icing conditions encountered.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must change level or route to avoid the icing conditions.

The pilot must report the icing conditions to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the icing conditions.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for icing encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the icing is severe.

The pilot must advise ATC of the turbulence encountered.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must change level or route to avoid the turbulence.

The pilot must report the turbulence to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the turbulence.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for turbulence encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the turbulence is severe.

The pilot must avoid thunderstorms and must advise ATC of the position of the storm.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must change level or route to avoid the storm.

The pilot must report the storm to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the storm.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for thunderstorm encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the storm is severe.

The pilot must advise ATC of the wind shear encountered.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must go around if the wind shear is encountered on the approach.

The pilot must report the wind shear to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the wind shear.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for wind shear encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the wind shear is severe.

The pilot must avoid microbursts and must advise ATC of the position of the microburst.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must go around if the microburst is encountered on the approach.

The pilot must report the microburst to the authority after the flight.

The pilot must advise the operator of the microburst.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for microburst encounters.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the microburst is severe.

The wake turbulence category of an aircraft is based on its maximum take-off mass.

Light aircraft have a maximum take-off mass of 7000 kg or less.

Medium aircraft have a maximum take-off mass between 7000 kg and 136000 kg.

Heavy aircraft have a maximum take-off mass of 136000 kg or more.

The Super category applies to the A380.

The pilot must include the wake turbulence category in the flight plan.

The pilot must apply the wake turbulence separation minima specified by the authority.

The emergency frequency is 121.5 MHz.

The pilot must use the emergency frequency for distress and urgency communications.

The pilot must monitor the emergency frequency if able.

The pilot must advise ATC of any communication on the emergency frequency.

The pilot must use the standard distress and urgency signals.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for the use of the emergency frequency.

The pilot must not use the emergency frequency for other than emergency communications.

The pilot must set the transponder to the code assigned by ATC.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7500 for unlawful interference.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7600 for radio failure.

The pilot must set the transponder to code 7700 for a general emergency.

The pilot must operate the transponder in the mode assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if the transponder fails.

The pilot must not change the transponder code without advising ATC.

The pilot must set the altimeter to the QNH of the aerodrome or the nearest reporting station.

The pilot must set the altimeter to standard pressure 1013.25 hPa when passing the transition altitude.

The pilot must reset the altimeter to the QNH when descending through the transition level.

The pilot must advise ATC of the altimeter setting used.

The pilot must ensure that the altimeter is accurate before flight.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for altimeter setting.

The pilot must advise ATC if the altimeter is unreliable.

The pilot must maintain the speed assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to maintain the assigned speed.

The pilot must comply with the speed limits published for the airspace.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in speed.

The pilot must not exceed the maximum speed for the aircraft.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for speed control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the speed restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must maintain the level assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to maintain the assigned level.

The pilot must comply with the semicircular rule for the level.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in level.

The pilot must not change level without a clearance.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for level control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the level restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must maintain the heading assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to maintain the assigned heading.

The pilot must comply with the heading instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in heading.

The pilot must not change heading without a clearance.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for heading control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the heading restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must follow the route assigned by ATC.

The pilot must advise ATC if unable to follow the assigned route.

The pilot must comply with the route instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in route.

The pilot must not change route without a clearance.

The pilot must follow the published procedures for route control.

The pilot must advise ATC when the route restriction is no longer required.

The pilot must enter the holding pattern in accordance with the published procedure.

The pilot must maintain the assigned level and speed in the hold.

The pilot must advise ATC of the time of arrival at the holding fix.

The pilot must advise ATC when leaving the hold.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC if the holding time is likely to exceed the fuel endurance.

The pilot must declare an emergency if the fuel becomes critical.

The pilot must follow the published approach procedure unless cleared otherwise.

The pilot must advise ATC when established on the approach.

The pilot must advise ATC if the approach cannot be completed.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must follow the missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the approach.

The pilot must follow the published missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must advise ATC of the reason for the missed approach.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended action after the missed approach.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft is established on the next approach.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must advise ATC when going around.

The pilot must follow the published missed approach procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC of the reason for the go-around.

The pilot must advise ATC of the intended action after the go-around.

The pilot must follow the instructions of the controller if able.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft is established on the next approach.

The pilot must advise ATC when the aircraft has landed.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to land before landing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to land.

The pilot must vacate the runway as soon as practicable after landing.

The pilot must advise ATC when the runway has been vacated.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to take off before take-off.

The pilot must read back the clearance to take off.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must follow the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC when airborne.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the departure procedure.

The pilot must advise ATC if the take-off is aborted.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to taxi before taxiing.

The pilot must read back the clearance to taxi.

The pilot must follow the taxi instructions.

The pilot must stop at the holding position marking before entering the runway.

The pilot must advise ATC when ready for departure.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the taxi instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the taxi instructions.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to push back before pushing back.

The pilot must read back the clearance to push back.

The pilot must follow the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the pushback is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the pushback instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the pushback instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area behind the aircraft is clear.

The pilot must obtain a clearance to start the engines if required by the aerodrome.

The pilot must read back the clearance to start.

The pilot must follow the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC when the start-up is complete.

The pilot must advise ATC of any change in the start-up instructions.

The pilot must advise ATC if the aircraft is unable to comply with the start-up instructions.

The pilot must ensure that the area around the aircraft is clear.