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NCAA CPL Air Law Exam study materials
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NCAA CPL Air Law Exam practice questions

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Question 1Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under the ICAO Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention), which document is carried by an aircraft to prove its nationality and registration?

  1. The operations manual
  2. The certificate of registration Correct answer.
  3. The certificate of airworthiness
  4. The journey logbook

Explanation

Article 29 of the Chicago Convention lists the documents every aircraft engaged in international navigation must carry, and the certificate of registration is the document that evidences nationality and registration. The certificate of airworthiness proves fitness for flight, not identity, and the journey logbook and operations manual serve operational record-keeping purposes.

Question 2Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which body of the International Civil Aviation Organization formally adopts International Standards and Recommended Practices as Annexes to the Chicago Convention?

  1. The ICAO Council Correct answer.
  2. The Air Navigation Commission
  3. The Assembly
  4. The Legal Committee

Explanation

Under Article 90 of the Chicago Convention, Annexes are adopted by the ICAO Council and then transmitted to contracting states, taking effect unless a majority of states disapprove. The Assembly is the sovereign body but does not adopt Annexes, the Air Navigation Commission only develops and recommends technical proposals, and the Legal Committee addresses legal questions.

Question 3Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft registered in State A is operated by a company established in State B and flies into State C. Which state is responsible for the aircraft's airworthiness certification under the Chicago Convention?

  1. State A, the state of registry Correct answer.
  2. State C, the state of entry
  3. The state that issued the airline's operating licence
  4. State B, the state of the operator

Explanation

Article 31 of the Chicago Convention makes the state of registry responsible for issuing or validating the certificate of airworthiness, and Article 33 obliges other states to recognise it. The operator's home state and the destination state do not certify the aircraft's airworthiness for international navigation.

Question 4Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A pilot holds a licence issued by one contracting state and wishes to fly an aircraft registered in another contracting state on international flights. Under Article 32 of the Chicago Convention, what is required?

  1. The pilot must hold a licence issued by the state of registry
  2. The pilot must obtain a separate licence from every state overflown
  3. The licence must be rendered valid by the state of registry Correct answer.
  4. The licence must be endorsed by ICAO headquarters

Explanation

Article 32 allows a state of registry to render valid, for its own aircraft, licences issued or validated by another contracting state, provided the original licensing requirements meet or exceed the minimum standards. A new licence from the state of registry is not mandatory, and ICAO does not endorse individual licences.

Question 5Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which freedom of the air permits an airline of one state to carry traffic between two points within the territory of another state on a service that originates or terminates in the airline's home state?

  1. The eighth freedom Correct answer.
  2. The third freedom
  3. The fourth freedom
  4. The seventh freedom

Explanation

The eighth freedom, or consecutive cabotage, permits an airline to carry traffic between two points within another state on a service that originates or terminates in its home state. Fifth-freedom traffic instead travels between different foreign states as part of a service connected to the home state.

Question 6Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the primary purpose of ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air)?

  1. To regulate the commercial terms of airline tickets
  2. To set the standards for licensing of air traffic controllers
  3. To establish the rules governing flight over the high seas and within contracting states Correct answer.
  4. To prescribe the technical requirements for aircraft maintenance

Explanation

Annex 2 sets out the general rules of the air, including those applicable over the high seas, and provides the framework that contracting states incorporate into their national regulations. Maintenance, controller licensing and commercial ticketing are addressed by other Annexes or by national law.

Question 7Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under the rules of the air, when two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, which aircraft has the right of way?

  1. The aircraft that has the other on its left must give way
  2. The aircraft that has the other on its right must give way Correct answer.
  3. The faster aircraft must give way
  4. The larger aircraft must give way

Explanation

Annex 2 requires the aircraft that has the other on its right to give way, which means the aircraft on the left has the right of way. Speed and size are not criteria for right of way in converging traffic.

Question 8Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is on final approach to land and another aircraft is taxiing on the runway. Who has the right of way?

  1. The aircraft with the higher maximum take-off mass
  2. The aircraft that first announced its intention on the radio
  3. The aircraft on final approach Correct answer.
  4. The aircraft taxiing on the runway

Explanation

Annex 2 gives right of way to an aircraft on final approach to land over aircraft on the ground, including those taxiing. Radio call order and aircraft mass do not override the landing priority rule.

Question 9Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What does the term 'controlled flight into terrain (CFIT)' describe in the context of air law and safety regulation?

  1. A collision between two aircraft in flight
  2. An accident in which an airworthy aircraft is flown into terrain without prior awareness by the crew Correct answer.
  3. A loss of control caused by wake turbulence
  4. An accident caused by an in-flight structural failure

Explanation

CFIT refers to an accident in which an aircraft is flown unintentionally into terrain, water or an obstacle while under crew control and without the crew being aware of the impending collision. It is distinct from mid-air collision, wake turbulence events and structural failure.

Question 10Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which ICAO Annex contains the Standards and Recommended Practices for Personnel Licensing?

  1. Annex 8
  2. Annex 6
  3. Annex 1 Correct answer.
  4. Annex 11

Explanation

Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention contains the Standards and Recommended Practices for Personnel Licensing, including flight crew, air traffic controllers and maintenance personnel. Annex 6 covers operation of aircraft, Annex 8 airworthiness and Annex 11 air traffic services.

Question 11Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under Annex 1, what is the minimum age for the issue of a private pilot licence?

  1. 21 years
  2. 18 years
  3. 17 years Correct answer.
  4. 16 years

Explanation

Annex 1 specifies a minimum age of 17 years for a private pilot licence, while a commercial pilot licence requires 18 years. Sixteen years applies to some other categories such as student or glider privileges, and 21 years is not a licensing age for a PPL.

Question 12Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the validity period of a Class 1 medical assessment for a pilot who is under 40 years of age and is engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers?

  1. 24 months
  2. 36 months
  3. 12 months Correct answer.
  4. 6 months

Explanation

Annex 1 sets the validity of a Class 1 medical assessment at 12 months for pilots under 40 years of age, with a shorter period of 6 months for those engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport carrying passengers. The 24 and 36 month periods apply to other medical classes and age groups.

Question 13Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which document issued by a state authorises an airline to perform scheduled international air services?

  1. The certificate of airworthiness
  2. The air operator certificate and the operating authorisation Correct answer.
  3. The certificate of registration
  4. The noise certificate

Explanation

An air operator certificate, together with the operating authorisation or permit granted under bilateral agreements, authorises the conduct of scheduled international air services. Registration, airworthiness and noise certificates relate to the individual aircraft rather than the commercial service.

Question 14Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under Annex 13, which state is responsible for instituting an investigation into an aircraft accident?

  1. The state of manufacture
  2. The state in which the accident occurred Correct answer.
  3. The state of the operator
  4. The state of registry of the aircraft

Explanation

Annex 13 places the responsibility for instituting an investigation on the state in which the accident occurred, known as the state of occurrence. The state of registry, state of the operator and state of manufacture may participate as accredited representatives but do not hold the primary responsibility.

Question 15Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of an accident investigation under Annex 13?

  1. To determine which party should pay compensation
  2. To determine the cause and prevent future accidents, not to apportion blame or liability Correct answer.
  3. To establish criminal liability for the accident
  4. To decide whether the operator's certificate should be revoked

Explanation

Annex 13 states that the sole objective of an investigation is the prevention of accidents and incidents, and it is not the purpose to apportion blame or liability. Criminal liability, compensation and certificate action are matters for other legal and regulatory processes.

Question 16Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under Annex 13, what is the definition of a 'serious incident'?

  1. Any incident involving a delay of more than two hours
  2. An incident that results in damage to cargo only
  3. An incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred Correct answer.
  4. Any incident that causes minor injury to a passenger

Explanation

Annex 13 defines a serious incident as an incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred, and it provides a list of examples. Minor injuries, delays and cargo damage alone do not meet the definition.

Question 17Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is being operated over the high seas. Which rules of the air apply?

  1. The rules established under the Chicago Convention as set out in Annex 2, without local modification Correct answer.
  2. The rules of the nearest coastal state, as determined by the crew
  3. The rules of the state of registry only, regardless of Annex 2
  4. The rules of the state of the operator, as agreed by the crew

Explanation

Article 12 of the Chicago Convention requires states to apply the rules in force over the high seas as established under the Convention, and Annex 2 contains those rules. Coastal states may not unilaterally impose differing rules over the high seas, and the state of registry or operator does not substitute its own rules.

Question 18Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under the Chicago Convention, what is the status of the territory of a contracting state with respect to sovereignty?

  1. Each state has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory Correct answer.
  2. Sovereignty extends only to the territorial sea and not to land
  3. Sovereignty over airspace is held jointly by neighbouring states
  4. The airspace is open to all states subject to ICAO approval

Explanation

Article 1 of the Chicago Convention recognises that every state has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. The Convention then grants specific privileges and freedoms for international services, but the underlying sovereignty remains with the state.

Question 19Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the function of a 'provisional certificate of airworthiness'?

  1. To certify the aircraft's compliance with noise standards
  2. To allow an aircraft to be flown for a limited period pending issue of a full certificate Correct answer.
  3. To authorise the carriage of dangerous goods
  4. To permit an aircraft to be operated indefinitely without further inspection

Explanation

A provisional certificate of airworthiness permits flight for a limited period, subject to conditions, while the full certificate is being processed. It is not an indefinite authority, and noise compliance and dangerous goods carriage are governed by other certificates and approvals.

Question 20Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under Annex 6, what is the purpose of an operator's safety management system?

  1. To satisfy insurance requirements only
  2. To replace the need for regulatory oversight
  3. To identify hazards and manage safety risks through a formal, systematic process Correct answer.
  4. To guarantee that no accident will occur

Explanation

Annex 6 requires operators to establish a safety management system that identifies hazards, assesses and mitigates risks, and monitors safety performance. It complements rather than replaces regulatory oversight and cannot guarantee the absence of accidents.

Question 21Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

In the context of the Chicago Convention, what does the term 'cabotage' refer to?

  1. The carriage of traffic between two points within the territory of the same state by an aircraft of another state Correct answer.
  2. The right to overfly a foreign state without landing
  3. The carriage of traffic between two states by an airline of a third state
  4. The right to make a technical stop for refuelling

Explanation

Cabotage is the carriage of traffic between points within the territory of a single state by an aircraft registered in another state. Article 7 of the Convention allows states to reserve cabotage to their own aircraft, and it is distinct from transit and traffic rights between states.

Question 22Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which ICAO Annex deals with the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air?

  1. Annex 18 Correct answer.
  2. Annex 14
  3. Annex 17
  4. Annex 16

Explanation

Annex 18 contains the Standards and Recommended Practices for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air, supported by the Technical Instructions. Annex 17 addresses security, Annex 14 aerodromes and Annex 16 environmental protection.

Question 23Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under Annex 14, what is the purpose of a runway strip?

  1. To serve as the main taxi route to the runway
  2. To house the aerodrome's rescue and firefighting equipment
  3. To provide a defined area around the runway to reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off the runway Correct answer.
  4. To provide parking space for aircraft awaiting departure

Explanation

A runway strip is a defined area including the runway and any stopway, intended to reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off the runway and to protect aircraft flying over it. Parking, taxiing and rescue facilities are provided in other designated areas.

Question 24Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A state wishes to impose restrictions on the carriage of munitions of war in foreign aircraft over its territory. Under the Chicago Convention, what is the position?

  1. The state may prohibit such carriage only for aircraft of states with which it is at war
  2. The state may not impose any restriction on such carriage
  3. The state must obtain ICAO Council approval before imposing such restrictions
  4. The state may regulate or prohibit such carriage subject to uniform conditions and without discrimination between its own and foreign aircraft Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 35 of the Chicago Convention permits a state to regulate or prohibit the carriage of munitions of war and implements of war, provided the rules are uniform for all aircraft and do not discriminate between its own and foreign aircraft. ICAO Council approval is not required for these national restrictions.

Question 25Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the role of the ICAO Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP)?

  1. To assess contracting states' implementation of safety-related ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices Correct answer.
  2. To certify airlines for commercial operation
  3. To approve the design of individual aircraft types
  4. To investigate individual aircraft accidents and issue findings

Explanation

USOAP assesses contracting states' capability for safety oversight and their implementation of the relevant ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices, using a continuous monitoring approach. It does not investigate accidents, certify airlines or approve aircraft designs.

Question 26Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under the Chicago Convention, an aircraft registered in State A and operated by a company whose principal place of business is in State A must display which nationality mark?

  1. The nationality mark of the state of the operator's choosing
  2. The nationality mark of the state where the flight terminates
  3. The nationality mark of State A Correct answer.
  4. The nationality mark of the state of manufacture

Explanation

Article 17 of the Chicago Convention provides that aircraft have the nationality of the state in which they are registered, and Article 20 requires the display of the appropriate nationality and registration marks. An aircraft cannot be validly registered in more than one state, so the marks must reflect the state of registry rather than the operator's preference or route.

Question 27Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A pilot's licence was issued by State A. The pilot now wishes to fly an aircraft registered in State B on an international flight. Under Annex 1, what is normally required?

  1. The pilot must always obtain a completely new licence issued by State B
  2. The pilot needs only a medical certificate issued by State B
  3. The licence must be rendered valid by State B, which may require additional evidence or checks Correct answer.
  4. The licence is automatically valid worldwide without any action by State B

Explanation

Annex 1 permits a contracting state to render valid, for use by its own or foreign licence holders, licences issued by another contracting state, subject to such conditions as it may impose. States commonly require verification, a validation check or a conversion process rather than treating a foreign licence as automatically effective.

Question 28Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

In the event that a pilot's medical assessment is not renewed before it expires, what is the effect on the privileges of the licence?

  1. The privileges are permanently revoked
  2. The privileges remain fully available for 30 days after expiry
  3. The privileges may not be exercised until a valid medical assessment is held Correct answer.
  4. The privileges remain available if the pilot self-declares fitness

Explanation

A medical assessment is a condition of the validity of the licence, so once it lapses the holder may not exercise the licence privileges. The privileges are suspended rather than permanently removed, and they are restored when a valid assessment is obtained.

Question 29Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What does an aircraft 'airworthiness certificate' certify under the Chicago Convention?

  1. That the aircraft meets the operational requirements of every state it may overfly
  2. That the aircraft has been sold to a new owner
  3. That the operator holds a valid air operator certificate
  4. That the aircraft is airworthy according to the requirements of the state of registry Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 31 of the Convention requires certificates of airworthiness to be issued or rendered valid by the state of registry, which certifies conformity with its own airworthiness requirements. The certificate is not a commercial licence and does not guarantee acceptance of the aircraft by every other state.

Question 30Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A pilot plans a flight that will cross an international boundary. Which of the following is a required element of the flight plan under the rules of the air?

  1. The maintenance release number
  2. The pilot's total flying hours
  3. The aircraft identification and type of aircraft Correct answer.
  4. The names of all passengers on board

Explanation

Annex 2 specifies the information a flight plan must contain, including aircraft identification and the type of aircraft, together with items such as departure aerodrome, route and cruising level. Passenger names and pilot experience are not standard flight plan contents.

Question 31Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is overtaking another aircraft in flight. Which aircraft must give way?

  1. The aircraft being overtaken must alter course to the right
  2. The overtaking aircraft must keep clear of the aircraft being overtaken Correct answer.
  3. Both aircraft must turn in the same direction
  4. The faster aircraft always has priority

Explanation

The rules of the air place the responsibility on the overtaking aircraft, which must keep clear of the aircraft being overtaken regardless of relative speed or position. The overtaken aircraft is entitled to maintain its course and speed.

Question 32Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

For the purpose of the rules of the air, what is the meaning of the term 'ceiling'?

  1. The upper limit of controlled airspace
  2. The height above ground of the lowest cloud layer reported as broken or overcast Correct answer.
  3. The maximum altitude the aircraft can attain
  4. The height of the highest cloud layer below the aircraft

Explanation

Annex 2 defines ceiling as the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 6 000 m reported as broken or overcast. It is a meteorological descriptor used in determining flight conditions, not an aircraft performance limit.

Question 33Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is being operated in visual meteorological conditions. Which statement correctly describes the pilot's responsibility for collision avoidance?

  1. Collision avoidance is required only in controlled airspace
  2. The pilot must maintain vigilance and take action to avoid collisions regardless of the type of flight Correct answer.
  3. Collision avoidance is the sole responsibility of air traffic control
  4. Collision avoidance is required only when flying at night

Explanation

The rules of the air require that nothing in the rules relieves a pilot from the responsibility of taking the best possible action to avoid a collision, and pilots must maintain a vigilant look-out. This duty applies in all conditions and airspace, including when a clearance has been issued.

Question 34Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A flight is to be conducted under instrument flight rules within controlled airspace. Which condition must be met before the flight may proceed?

  1. The pilot must hold a night rating
  2. An air traffic control clearance must be obtained Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft must be in visual meteorological conditions
  4. The aircraft must be equipped with weather radar

Explanation

Under the rules of the air, a controlled flight must comply with an air traffic control clearance, and an IFR flight in controlled airspace requires such a clearance before entering or operating there. Visual conditions, night ratings and radar are not the governing requirement.

Question 35Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of a 'minimum safe altitude' requirement in the rules of the air?

  1. To define the lowest altitude at which an aircraft may be certified
  2. To ensure that an aircraft in flight maintains a height that allows it to avoid hazards and land without undue hazard in an emergency Correct answer.
  3. To set the altitude at which cabin pressurisation must begin
  4. To specify the lowest altitude for parachute dropping

Explanation

The rules require that aircraft be operated at a height that permits, in the event of a power unit failure, a safe emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. The concept protects those on the ground and the aircraft occupants, and is not a certification or pressurisation limit.

Question 36Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. According to Annex 2, what must the intercepted aircraft do?

  1. Follow the intercepting aircraft's instructions while maintaining its own safe flight and attempting to communicate Correct answer.
  2. Continue on its planned route without deviation
  3. Switch off all navigation lights to signal compliance
  4. Immediately descend to the surface

Explanation

Annex 2 contains interception procedures requiring the intercepted aircraft to comply with the intercepting aircraft's instructions, to attempt radio communication and to follow the prescribed visual signals. The pilot retains responsibility for the safety of the aircraft throughout.

Question 37Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which organisation is responsible for adopting Standards and Recommended Practices annexed to the Chicago Convention?

  1. The International Air Transport Association
  2. The Council of the International Civil Aviation Organization Correct answer.
  3. The national civil aviation authority of the state of registry
  4. The United Nations Security Council

Explanation

The Convention assigns ICAO's Council the function of adopting and amending the Annexes containing Standards and Recommended Practices, which are then notified to contracting states. IATA is an industry association without that treaty function.

Question 38Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the status of a Standard adopted by the ICAO Council with respect to a contracting state that finds it impracticable to comply?

  1. The state must notify ICAO of the difference between its practice and the Standard Correct answer.
  2. The state's failure to comply has no reporting consequence
  3. The state must withdraw its registration of all aircraft
  4. The state is automatically suspended from the Convention

Explanation

Under Article 38 of the Convention, a state that finds it impracticable to comply with a Standard must notify the organisation of the differences between its own practice and the Standard. This notification mechanism preserves transparency while allowing national discretion.

Question 39Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is registered in State A but operated under a lease, charter or interchange arrangement by an operator in State B. Under Article 83 bis, what may be transferred?

  1. Ownership of the aircraft to the operator's state
  2. The aircraft's nationality to the operator's state without re-registration
  3. The airworthiness certification to the manufacturer
  4. Certain functions and duties of the state of registry to the state of the operator Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 83 bis allows the state of registry to transfer to the state of the operator certain functions and duties relating to the aircraft, such as those concerning personnel licensing and airworthiness oversight, when the aircraft is operated under such arrangements. Ownership and nationality of the aircraft are unaffected.

Question 40Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What does 'special authorisation' or permission mean when a foreign aircraft wishes to operate over a state's territory?

  1. A document issued only to state aircraft
  2. A right that arises automatically from registration in any contracting state
  3. A certificate issued by the aircraft manufacturer
  4. A grant by the state concerned permitting the specific operation, where the Convention or national rules require it Correct answer.

Explanation

Although the Convention grants certain transit and non-traffic rights, particular operations such as non-scheduled flights for remuneration or hire, or flights into prohibited areas, may require special permission from the state concerned. Such authorisation is granted by the state whose territory is affected.

Question 41Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under the Chicago Convention, which aircraft are excluded from the provisions applying to civil aircraft?

  1. Aircraft registered to private individuals
  2. Aircraft used in military, customs and police services Correct answer.
  3. Aircraft operated for aerial work
  4. Aircraft engaged in international scheduled air transport

Explanation

Article 3 of the Convention states that the Convention applies only to civil aircraft and shall not apply to state aircraft, which are defined as aircraft used in military, customs and police services. Such aircraft require special arrangements for overflight.

Question 42Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of the 'Rules of the Air' being established in Annex 2 rather than left entirely to national discretion?

  1. To allow each state to apply its own rules to foreign aircraft in its territory
  2. To provide a common set of rules over the high seas and to facilitate uniformity and safety in international navigation Correct answer.
  3. To regulate the commercial terms of air service agreements
  4. To replace the need for air traffic control services

Explanation

The Convention requires the Council to adopt international standards and practices for the flight and manoeuvre of aircraft, and Annex 2 provides a uniform set of rules, including those applicable over the high seas where no national rules can apply. Commercial air service terms are governed elsewhere, such as in bilateral agreements.

Question 43Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft is in distress and the pilot wishes to indicate that it is being compelled to land or to comply with unlawful interference. Which signal is used?

  1. Squawking a specific code, setting transponder to the prescribed emergency code, and following the prescribed visual signals Correct answer.
  2. Rocking the wings while on the ground
  3. Extending the landing gear in flight
  4. Switching on landing lights only

Explanation

Annex 2 prescribes signals for distress and urgency, including the use of the designated SSR emergency codes and visual signals where radio communication is not possible. These signals are internationally recognised so that ground stations and other aircraft can identify the situation.

Question 44Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the meaning of 'unlawful interference' in the context of aviation security under Annex 17?

  1. Any breach of the rules of the air by a pilot
  2. Acts of violence, sabotage or threats against civil aviation, including unlawful seizure of aircraft Correct answer.
  3. A failure to renew an airworthiness certificate
  4. A dispute between two contracting states over traffic rights

Explanation

Annex 17 addresses acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation, such as unlawful seizure of aircraft, sabotage, and attacks on aviation facilities. It establishes security standards for states and operators to prevent and respond to such acts.

Question 45Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Which Annex contains the Standards and Recommended Practices relating to the safety of aircraft operations, including the operator's responsibilities?

  1. Annex 6 Correct answer.
  2. Annex 9
  3. Annex 11
  4. Annex 15

Explanation

Annex 6, Operation of Aircraft, contains standards for the operation of aircraft, including operator responsibilities, crew requirements and operational procedures. The other Annexes address facilitation, air traffic services and aeronautical information services respectively.

Question 46Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

Under Annex 6, what is the operator's responsibility regarding the flight time limitations and rest periods of crew members?

  1. The operator may allow crew members to determine their own rest periods without oversight
  2. The operator may disregard rest periods during peak season
  3. The operator must establish and apply limitations that ensure crew members are sufficiently rested to operate safely Correct answer.
  4. The operator need only comply with the limitations of the state of registry of the aircraft

Explanation

Annex 6 requires the operator to establish flight time limitations and rest schemes that are approved or accepted by the state of the operator and that ensure crew members are adequately rested. The responsibility rests with the operator and cannot be delegated to individual crew members.

Question 47Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What is the purpose of a 'dangerous goods transport document' accompanying a consignment by air?

  1. To provide information about the nature and handling of the dangerous goods to those involved in the transport Correct answer.
  2. To certify that the aircraft is airworthy
  3. To authorise the aircraft to enter controlled airspace
  4. To record the pilot's flight and duty time

Explanation

Annex 18 requires dangerous goods to be accompanied by a transport document containing information such as the proper shipping name, class or division, quantity and packing instruction. It informs acceptance staff, loading personnel and crew of the hazards and handling requirements.

Question 48Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

A runway is equipped with a displaced threshold. What does this indicate to a pilot?

  1. The approach lighting is out of service
  2. The runway is closed permanently
  3. The entire runway is unusable
  4. The landing portion of the runway begins at the displaced threshold, although the pavement before it may be used for taxiing or take-off Correct answer.

Explanation

A displaced threshold marks the beginning of the landing portion of the runway, which may have been moved because of obstacles, work or noise considerations. The pavement before the displaced threshold is not available for landing but may be used for taxiing or take-off, subject to the markings.

Question 49Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

What does a 'runway holding position' marking indicate to a pilot?

  1. The point at which the aircraft must stop unless otherwise cleared, to avoid entering the runway or protected area Correct answer.
  2. The boundary of the aerodrome perimeter
  3. The location of the touchdown zone
  4. The start of the take-off run

Explanation

Runway holding position markings identify where an aircraft must stop when it does not have a clearance to enter the runway or a protected area. They are essential for preventing runway incursions and for protecting the ILS sensitive area.

Question 50Air Law (syllabus per NCAA-AC-PEL 018)

An aircraft accident occurs in the territory of State A involving an aircraft registered in State B and operated by a company in State C. Under Annex 13, which state is entitled to appoint an accredited representative to participate in the investigation?

  1. The state of registry and the state of the operator, in addition to the state of occurrence Correct answer.
  2. Only the state that issued the pilot's licence
  3. Only the state where the flight originated
  4. Only the state of manufacture

Explanation

Annex 13 gives the state of registry and the state of the operator the right to appoint an accredited representative to participate in an investigation conducted by the state of occurrence. The state of manufacture and the state of design may also participate in certain circumstances.