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Question 1Anatomy
Which nerve directly innervates the deltoid muscle?
- Musculocutaneous nerve
- Suprascapular nerve
- Axillary nerve Correct answer.
- Radial nerve
Explanation
The deltoid is supplied by the axillary nerve, a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus that also carries sensation from the regimental badge area over the lateral shoulder. Radial nerve supplies posterior arm and forearm extensors, while the suprascapular nerve supplies supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 2Anatomy
The greater sciatic foramen is formed primarily by which ligament?
- Iliofemoral ligament
- Obturator membrane
- Inguinal ligament
- Sacrotuberous ligament Correct answer.
Explanation
The greater sciatic foramen is bounded by the greater sciatic notch and the sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments, with the sacrotuberous forming its major posterior boundary. Structures such as the sciatic nerve and piriformis pass through it.
Question 3Anatomy
Which carpal bone articulates with the base of the first metacarpal to form the saddle joint of the thumb?
- Hamate
- Scaphoid
- Trapezium Correct answer.
- Pisiform
Explanation
The first carpometacarpal joint is a saddle synovial joint between the trapezium and the base of the first metacarpal, permitting opposition and circumduction of the thumb. The scaphoid lies proximal to the trapezium and articulates with the radius.
Question 4Anatomy
Which muscle is the chief flexor of the hip joint?
- Piriformis
- Gluteus maximus
- Adductor magnus
- Iliopsoas Correct answer.
Explanation
Iliopsoas, formed by psoas major and iliacus, is the strongest hip flexor and is active in activities such as stair climbing and sit-ups. Gluteus maximus is a powerful extensor, while piriformis and adductor magnus contribute to external rotation and adduction respectively.
Question 5Anatomy
The apex of the lung projects above the medial third of the clavicle. This region is best described as which of the following?
- Suprapleural area
- Pulmonary hilum
- Pleural cupula Correct answer.
- Costomediastinal recess
Explanation
The dome of cervical pleura covering the lung apex is termed the pleural cupula, reinforced by Sibson's fascia. It extends approximately 2.5 cm above the medial third of the clavicle, and injury here risks pneumothorax.
Question 6Anatomy
Which cranial nerve supplies the muscles of mastication?
- Mandibular division of trigeminal Correct answer.
- Facial nerve
- Maxillary division of trigeminal
- Hypoglossal nerve
Explanation
The mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve is the motor supply to masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid, plus mylohyoid and the anterior belly of digastric. The facial nerve supplies muscles of facial expression.
Question 7Anatomy
A patient cannot abduct the shoulder beyond 15 degrees but has intact deltoid bulk. Which structure is most likely injured?
- Teres major tendon
- Latissimus dorsi tendon
- Long head of biceps tendon
- Supraspinatus tendon Correct answer.
Explanation
Initiation of abduction (first 15 degrees) requires the supraspinatus, which is commonly torn in rotator cuff injuries. After this range, the deltoid takes over; isolated supraspinatus lesions therefore produce a painful abduction arc with initial weakness.
Question 8Anatomy
Injury to the common fibular (peroneal) nerve at the neck of the fibula will most directly impair which movement?
- Plantarflexion of the foot
- Inversion of the foot
- Flexion of the great toe
- Dorsiflexion of the foot Correct answer.
Explanation
The common fibular nerve winds around the fibular neck in a superficial position, making it vulnerable to compression and trauma. It supplies the anterior and lateral compartments, so injury causes foot drop with loss of dorsiflexion and eversion.
Question 9Anatomy
Blockage of the artery of Adamkiewicz during thoracoabdominal aortic surgery would most likely cause ischaemia of which spinal cord region?
- Lower thoracic and lumbar cord Correct answer.
- Upper cervical cord
- Sacral cord only
- Medulla oblongata
Explanation
The artery of Adamkiewicz is the largest radiculomedullary artery, typically arising from the lower thoracic or upper lumbar levels and supplying the anterior spinal artery to the lower thoracic and lumbar cord. Its occlusion predisposes to anterior spinal artery syndrome with paraplegia.
Question 10Anatomy
Which structure lies immediately posterior to the medial malleolus within the tarsal tunnel?
- Flexor digitorum longus tendon
- Tibialis posterior tendon Correct answer.
- Posterior tibial artery
- Flexor hallucis longus tendon
Explanation
The tarsal tunnel contents from anterior to posterior are remembered as 'Tom, Dick and Harry': tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery, tibial nerve and flexor hallucis longus. The tibialis posterior tendon is therefore the most anterior structure, lying immediately behind the medial malleolus.
Question 11Anatomy
A patient presents with winging of the scapula and weakness in pushing against a wall. Which nerve is affected?
- Long thoracic nerve Correct answer.
- Accessory nerve
- Thoracodorsal nerve
- Dorsal scapular nerve
Explanation
The long thoracic nerve (C5-C7) supplies serratus anterior, which protracts and stabilises the scapula against the chest wall. Its injury produces medial winging, exaggerated when the patient pushes forward against resistance.
Question 12Anatomy
The coronary sinus drains most of the cardiac venous blood into which chamber?
- Left atrium
- Right atrium Correct answer.
- Left ventricle
- Right ventricle
Explanation
The coronary sinus opens into the right atrium just above and medial to the opening of the inferior vena cava, guarded by the valve of Thebesius. It receives the great, middle and small cardiac veins, draining the majority of the myocardium.
Question 13Anatomy
Which muscle forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?
- Inguinal ligament
- External oblique aponeurosis
- Internal oblique muscle
- Transversalis fascia Correct answer.
Explanation
The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by transversalis fascia, reinforced medially by the conjoint tendon. The anterior wall is formed by the external oblique aponeurosis, reinforced laterally by internal oblique fibres.
Question 14Anatomy
A crush injury to the mid-shaft of the humerus with wrist drop most likely involves which nerve?
- Median nerve
- Axillary nerve
- Ulnar nerve
- Radial nerve Correct answer.
Explanation
The radial nerve runs in the spiral groove of the humerus, making it vulnerable in mid-shaft fractures. Injury produces wrist drop, loss of finger extension and sensory loss over the dorsum of the first web space.
Question 15Anatomy
Which structure passes through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid bone?
- Maxillary nerve
- Middle meningeal artery
- Optic nerve
- Mandibular nerve Correct answer.
Explanation
The foramen ovale transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve with the lesser petrosal nerve and accessory meningeal artery. The maxillary nerve passes through the foramen rotundum, and the middle meningeal artery through the foramen spinosum.
Question 16Anatomy
A lesion of the superior gluteal nerve after intramuscular injection will most likely produce which deficit?
- Loss of knee extension
- Sensory loss over the medial thigh
- Foot drop
- Trendelenburg sign on the ipsilateral side Correct answer.
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve supplies gluteus medius, minimus and tensor fasciae latae, which stabilise the pelvis in single-leg stance. Its injury causes contralateral pelvic drop, the positive Trendelenburg sign.
Question 17Anatomy
Which statement best explains why the femoral triangle is clinically important for cannulation?
- The femoral nerve lies superficial to the fascia lata
- The femoral artery lies within the triangle and is palpable below the inguinal ligament Correct answer.
- The great saphenous vein enters the triangle superiorly
- The adductor canal forms its lateral boundary
Explanation
The femoral triangle is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, sartorius laterally and adductor longus medially, with a floor of iliopsoas and pectineus. The femoral artery and vein lie within it, and their superficial position and palpable pulse make this the standard site for arterial puncture and venous access.
Question 18Anatomy
Which feature distinguishes a true from a false rib in the thoracic cage?
- True ribs articulate only with the vertebra above
- True ribs articulate directly with the sternum via their own costal cartilage Correct answer.
- True ribs are always the first seven and lack a tubercle
- True ribs lack a costal groove on their inferior surface
Explanation
Ribs 1 to 7 are true ribs because each attaches directly to the sternum through its own costal cartilage. Ribs 8 to 10 are false ribs with indirect cartilaginous attachment, and ribs 11 and 12 are floating ribs with no anterior attachment.
Question 19Anatomy
In a lesion of the median nerve at the wrist, which combination of findings is expected?
- Wrist drop with sensory loss over the first web space
- Clawing of the ring and little fingers with sensory loss over the medial hand
- Loss of thumb opposition with sensory loss over the lateral three and a half digits Correct answer.
- Loss of elbow flexion with sensory loss over the lateral forearm
Explanation
The median nerve at the wrist supplies the thenar muscles (opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis) and the palmar cutaneous branches to the lateral three and a half digits. Carpal tunnel syndrome therefore causes thenar wasting, weak opposition and numbness in this distribution, sparing the little finger.
Question 20Anatomy
The thoracic duct typically crosses from right to left at which vertebral level before entering the venous system?
- L1 to L2
- T4 to T6 Correct answer.
- C7 to T1
- T1 to T2
Explanation
The thoracic duct ascends in the posterior mediastinum, crossing the midline at approximately T4 to T6, then arches laterally to drain into the junction of the left subclavian and internal jugular veins. Its right-to-left crossing is important in surgical and oncological staging contexts.
Question 21Physiology
At the neuromuscular junction, which ion influx directly triggers the release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic terminal?
- Calcium Correct answer.
- Potassium
- Sodium
- Chloride
Explanation
Depolarisation of the presynaptic terminal opens voltage-gated calcium channels, and the resulting calcium influx is the direct trigger for vesicular fusion and acetylcholine release. Sodium entry causes the depolarisation itself but does not drive exocytosis. Potassium efflux and chloride influx do not initiate transmitter release.
Question 22Physiology
During a 100-metre sprint, which energy system supplies the majority of ATP during the first few seconds?
- Fatty acid oxidation
- Oxidative phosphorylation
- Phosphagen (ATP-Creatine phosphate) system Correct answer.
- Anaerobic glycolysis
Explanation
The phosphagen system uses stored ATP and creatine phosphate to regenerate ATP almost instantly, dominating the first 5 to 10 seconds of maximal effort. Anaerobic glycolysis becomes prominent after this initial burst, and oxidative metabolism contributes little at maximal sprint intensity.
Question 23Physiology
Which lung volume cannot be measured by simple spirometry and requires body plethysmography or gas dilution?
- Expiratory reserve volume
- Tidal volume
- Residual volume Correct answer.
- Inspiratory reserve volume
Explanation
Residual volume is the air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration, so a spirometer cannot record it because it is never exhaled. Tidal volume and the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes are all directly measurable by spirometry.
Question 24Physiology
Which part of the nephron is the primary site of glucose reabsorption under normal conditions?
- Collecting duct
- Descending limb of the loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
- Proximal convoluted tubule Correct answer.
Explanation
Glucose is reabsorbed almost entirely in the proximal convoluted tubule via sodium-glucose cotransporters, so none normally appears in urine. The descending limb is water-permeable but not a site of glucose reabsorption. The distal tubule and collecting duct handle fine-tuning of sodium, water and acid-base balance.
Question 25Physiology
Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary and increases water reabsorption in the collecting duct?
- Aldosterone
- Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
- Atrial natriuretic peptide
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Explanation
Antidiuretic hormone, released from the posterior pituitary, inserts aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting duct, increasing water reabsorption. Aldosterone acts mainly on sodium reabsorption, atrial natriuretic peptide promotes sodium and water loss, and ACTH controls adrenal cortisol secretion.
Question 26Physiology
Which blood cells are the principal mediators of the primary haemostatic plug at the site of a small vessel injury?
- Lymphocytes
- Platelets Correct answer.
- Neutrophils
- Erythrocytes
Explanation
Platelets adhere to exposed collagen, become activated and aggregate to form the primary haemostatic plug within seconds of injury. Erythrocytes are oxygen carriers, neutrophils are phagocytes, and lymphocytes mediate adaptive immunity; none of these forms the initial platelet plug.
Question 27Physiology
A patient has a stroke affecting the right cerebral hemisphere. Which finding would most be expected on examination?
- Isolated right facial weakness
- Right-sided hemiplegia
- Left-sided hemiplegia Correct answer.
- Bilateral lower limb weakness
Explanation
The motor pathways decussate, so a right hemisphere lesion produces contralateral, that is left-sided, motor deficit. Ipsilateral weakness would indicate a lesion below the decussation or a peripheral nerve problem. Bilateral and isolated facial patterns do not fit a single unilateral hemisphere lesion.
Question 28Physiology
A 24-year-old athlete hyperventilates before a breath-hold dive. Which change in blood chemistry best explains the prolonged breath-hold time?
- Lowered oxygen and lowered pH
- Raised carbon dioxide and lowered pH
- Lowered carbon dioxide and raised pH Correct answer.
- Raised oxygen and raised carbon dioxide
Explanation
Hyperventilation lowers arterial carbon dioxide, raising pH and delaying the carbon dioxide-driven urge to breathe. The dangerous consequence is that oxygen may fall to critical levels before the breath-hold breaks. Raised carbon dioxide or lowered pH would shorten the breath-hold.
Question 29Physiology
A patient has a resting heart rate of 50 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 80 mL. What is the cardiac output?
- 6.5 L/min
- 2.5 L/min
- 4.0 L/min Correct answer.
- 5.0 L/min
Explanation
Cardiac output equals heart rate multiplied by stroke volume, so 50 times 80 mL gives 4000 mL, or 4.0 L per minute. This falls within the normal resting range and reflects a well-trained or vagally dominant individual. The other values arise from arithmetic errors.
Question 30Physiology
Which change in the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by a rise in temperature and 2,3-DPG in exercising muscle?
- A leftward shift with increased oxygen affinity
- No shift but increased haemoglobin concentration
- A leftward shift with decreased carbon dioxide carriage
- A rightward shift with decreased oxygen affinity Correct answer.
Explanation
Raised temperature, 2,3-DPG, carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion concentration shift the curve to the right, reducing haemoglobin affinity and favouring oxygen unloading to tissue. A leftward shift would mean tighter oxygen binding and reduced delivery. Haemoglobin concentration does not change acutely in this setting.
Question 31Physiology
A patient with a lesion of the cerebellum is most likely to show which combination of signs?
- Spasticity and hyperreflexia
- Intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesia Correct answer.
- Loss of pain and temperature sensation
- Resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity
Explanation
Cerebellar lesions produce ipsilateral incoordination, including intention tremor, dysmetria and dysdiadochokinesia. Resting tremor with rigidity is typical of basal ganglia disease such as Parkinsonism. Spasticity and hyperreflexia indicate upper motor neuron lesions, and sensory loss indicates a somatosensory pathway lesion.
Question 32Physiology
During the cardiac cycle, which event immediately follows the closure of the atrioventricular valves?
- Ventricular filling
- Aortic valve opening
- Atrial systole
- Isovolumetric ventricular contraction Correct answer.
Explanation
Closure of the atrioventricular valves marks the start of systole and is followed by isovolumetric contraction, during which pressure rises with no change in volume. The aortic valve opens only once ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure. Ventricular filling and atrial systole occur before this point.
Question 33Physiology
Which factor most increases airway resistance in a patient with asthma during an acute attack?
- Increased surfactant production
- Reduced lung compliance alone
- Decreased tidal volume alone
- Bronchial smooth muscle constriction and mucosal oedema Correct answer.
Explanation
Airway resistance rises when the bronchial lumen narrows, which in asthma results from smooth muscle constriction, mucosal oedema and mucus plugging. Compliance changes affect the work of expansion rather than airway calibre. Surfactant reduces surface tension and does not narrow airways.
Question 34Physiology
A person stands up quickly from lying. Which compensatory response maintains arterial pressure?
- Increased vagal discharge to the heart
- Baroreceptor-mediated sympathetic activation with vasoconstriction Correct answer.
- Reduced renin release
- Increased atrial natriuretic peptide secretion
Explanation
Standing reduces venous return and arterial pressure, unloading the baroreceptors and triggering sympathetic outflow with tachycardia and vasoconstriction. Vagal discharge would slow the heart further and worsen the fall in pressure. Reduced renin and increased atrial natriuretic peptide would both promote rather than oppose hypotension.
Question 35Physiology
Which mechanism best explains the increased ventilation seen at the start of moderate exercise?
- Rising arterial carbon dioxide alone
- Falling arterial oxygen alone
- Neural feed-forward from motor centres plus joint and muscle afferents Correct answer.
- Reduced body temperature
Explanation
Ventilation rises abruptly at exercise onset before arterial carbon dioxide changes appreciably, pointing to neural drive from higher motor centres and feedback from moving limbs. Arterial carbon dioxide and oxygen are tightly regulated and do not explain the immediate rise. Body temperature rises rather than falls during exercise.
Question 36Physiology
Which receptor type mediates the stretch reflex that underlies the knee-jerk response?
- Muscle spindle (Ia afferent) Correct answer.
- Golgi tendon organ (Ib afferent)
- Joint capsule mechanoreceptor
- Cutaneous nociceptor
Explanation
The knee-jerk is a monosynaptic stretch reflex: tap-induced stretch of the quadriceps excites muscle spindles whose Ia afferents synapse directly on alpha motor neurons. Golgi tendon organs sense tension and mediate inverse stretch reflexes. Joint and cutaneous receptors do not produce this monosynaptic reflex.
Question 37Physiology
A patient with severe chronic kidney disease develops metabolic acidosis. Which respiratory change is the appropriate compensation?
- Reduced tidal volume with normal rate
- Increased oxygen consumption without change in ventilation
- Hyperventilation to lower arterial carbon dioxide Correct answer.
- Hypoventilation to retain carbon dioxide
Explanation
In metabolic acidosis the fall in plasma bicarbonate lowers pH, and the respiratory system compensates by hyperventilating to blow off carbon dioxide, raising pH toward normal. Hypoventilation would retain carbon dioxide and worsen the acidosis. Changes in oxygen consumption do not compensate for a pH disturbance.
Question 38Physiology
Which statement about the countercurrent mechanism of the loop of Henle is correct?
- The ascending limb is water-permeable and secretes sodium
- Both limbs are equally permeable to water and solutes
- The ascending limb actively reabsorbs sodium chloride while remaining water-impermeable, creating a hypertonic medullary interstitium Correct answer.
- The descending limb actively reabsorbs sodium chloride
Explanation
The thick ascending limb actively transports sodium chloride out of the tubule but is impermeable to water, so the medullary interstitium becomes hypertonic while the tubular fluid becomes dilute. The descending limb is water-permeable and does not actively reabsorb sodium chloride. The unequal permeabilities of the two limbs are essential to the countercurrent multiplier.
Question 39Physiology
A drug blocks the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in a resting neuron. What is the most immediate consequence?
- Immediate reversal of the action potential threshold
- Immediate loss of the resting membrane potential
- Gradual dissipation of the ionic gradients and resting potential Correct answer.
- Enhanced repolarisation after each action potential
Explanation
The pump maintains the sodium and potassium gradients over time but contributes only a small direct electrogenic component, so blocking it causes the gradients and resting potential to run down gradually rather than instantly. The immediate resting potential depends mainly on potassium permeability through leak channels. Threshold and repolarisation are not immediately reversed or enhanced.
Question 40Physiology
Which combination of changes in a capillary bed favours net fluid reabsorption from the interstitial space into the plasma?
- Increased capillary permeability with normal oncotic pressure
- Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure and increased plasma oncotic pressure Correct answer.
- Arteriolar vasoconstriction with increased interstitial protein
- Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and decreased plasma oncotic pressure
Explanation
According to the Starling relationship, net filtration depends on the balance of hydrostatic and oncotic pressures. Lowering capillary hydrostatic pressure and raising plasma oncotic pressure both favour movement of fluid back into the capillary. The other combinations increase filtration or protein leakage and would promote oedema.
Question 41Biomechanics and Kinesiology
During the stance phase of normal gait, which kinematic event defines the moment of terminal stance (heel-off) at the ankle?
- The ankle passes through neutral dorsiflexion at initial contact
- The ankle reaches approximately 20 degrees of plantarflexion as the heel lifts Correct answer.
- The ankle rapidly dorsiflexes to 15 degrees during swing
- The ankle reaches approximately 10 degrees of dorsiflexion as the tibia advances
Explanation
Terminal stance begins when the heel rises off the ground, driven by the plantarflexor moment, and the ankle is already plantarflexing toward push-off. Peak plantarflexion near 20 degrees at heel-off is the accepted kinematic marker of this event.
Question 42Biomechanics and Kinesiology
A therapist measures knee flexion with a goniometer placed on the lateral femoral epicondyle, greater trochanter and lateral malleolus. What is the normal active range obtained for knee flexion in this position?
- 0 to 45 degrees
- 0 to 180 degrees
- 0 to 135 degrees Correct answer.
- 0 to 90 degrees
Explanation
Normal knee flexion in the supine position is approximately 135 degrees, with extension to 0 degrees. The axis is the lateral epicondyle and the stationary arm follows the greater trochanter while the moving arm follows the lateral malleolus.
Question 43Biomechanics and Kinesiology
Which muscle acts as the primary decelerator of knee extension in the terminal swing phase of gait?
- Vastus medialis
- Iliopsoas
- Biceps femoris Correct answer.
- Rectus femoris
Explanation
The hamstrings, particularly biceps femoris, contract eccentrically in terminal swing to slow the extending knee and prepare the limb for loading. This prevents the knee from snapping into full extension at heel strike.
Question 44Biomechanics and Kinesiology
A patient stands with the anterior superior iliac spines level in the frontal plane. Which term correctly describes this pelvic position?
- Posterior pelvic tilt
- Anterior pelvic tilt
- Neutral pelvis Correct answer.
- Lateral pelvic tilt
Explanation
When the two ASIS are level in the frontal plane and the symphysis pubis lies in the same plane, the pelvis is described as neutral. Lateral tilt would show one ASIS higher than the other.
Question 45Biomechanics and Kinesiology
Which structure forms the primary restraint to anterior translation of the tibia on the femur at 30 degrees of knee flexion?
- Patellar tendon
- Anterior cruciate ligament Correct answer.
- Medial collateral ligament
- Posterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
The anterior cruciate ligament resists anterior tibial translation and limits internal rotation, and it is most reliably tested near 30 degrees of flexion. The posterior cruciate ligament addresses the opposite direction of translation.
Question 46Biomechanics and Kinesiology
In the screw-home mechanism of the knee, the terminal degrees of extension are accompanied by which tibial motion?
- Tibial internal rotation relative to the femur
- Tibial external rotation relative to the femur Correct answer.
- Tibial abduction relative to the femur
- Tibial anterior glide on the femur
Explanation
As the knee approaches full extension, the tibia externally rotates about 10 degrees on the femur, locking the joint and improving stability. This coupled rotation is the screw-home mechanism.
Question 47Biomechanics and Kinesiology
A patient with a tight hip flexor complex shows increased lumbar lordosis in standing. Which biomechanical explanation best accounts for this posture?
- Anterior pelvic tilt increases the lumbar lordotic curve Correct answer.
- Lateral pelvic tilt raises one hip and compresses the disc
- Pelvic rotation in the transverse plane reduces lordosis
- Posterior pelvic tilt flattens the lumbar spine
Explanation
Tight hip flexors pull the pelvis into anterior tilt, which increases the sacral base angle and exaggerates lumbar lordosis. This is a common compensatory posture in shortened iliopsoas or rectus femoris.
Question 48Biomechanics and Kinesiology
A therapist wants to strengthen the gluteus medius on the stance limb during single-leg stance. Which biomechanical principle best explains the pelvic drop on the opposite side when this muscle is weak?
- Trendelenburg sign results from hip adductor spasticity
- Trendelenburg sign results from quadriceps inhibition
- Trendelenburg sign results from loss of hip abductor control Correct answer.
- Trendelenburg sign results from hamstring weakness
Explanation
The gluteus medius abducts the hip and stabilizes the pelvis in the frontal plane during single-leg stance. When it is weak, the contralateral hemipelvis drops, producing a positive Trendelenburg sign.
Question 49Biomechanics and Kinesiology
During normal walking at a self-selected speed, what is the approximate percentage of the gait cycle occupied by the stance phase?
- 40 percent
- 80 percent
- 60 percent Correct answer.
- 20 percent
Explanation
In normal walking, stance occupies roughly 60 percent of the gait cycle while swing occupies about 40 percent. The overlap of stance between limbs creates the double-support periods.
Question 50Biomechanics and Kinesiology
A patient performs active shoulder abduction. Which scapulohumeral rhythm ratio describes the contribution of scapular upward rotation to humeral elevation beyond the setting phase?
- 4:1
- 3:1
- 1:1
- 2:1 Correct answer.
Explanation
The classic scapulohumeral rhythm is approximately 2:1, meaning 2 degrees of glenohumeral elevation for every 1 degree of scapular upward rotation. This yields about 120 degrees glenohumeral and 60 degrees scapular motion in total elevation.