I85PREP
⌘ K
CAA NZ ATPL Theory - Flight Planning study materials
CAA NZ ATPL Theory - Flight Planning study resources

CAA NZ ATPL Theory - Flight Planning practice questions

One question at a time. Build your CAA NZ ATPL Theory - Flight Planning understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

Under NZ CAA rules, what is the minimum fuel that must be planned for an IFR flight before take-off, in addition to trip fuel?

  1. Only final reserve fuel of 30 minutes holding
  2. Trip fuel plus a fixed 10 percent allowance
  3. Contingency fuel, alternate fuel, final reserve fuel and, where applicable, additional fuel Correct answer.
  4. Only alternate fuel plus 45 minutes holding

Explanation

NZ operational fuel planning requires trip fuel plus contingency fuel, alternate fuel (where an alternate is required), final reserve fuel and any additional fuel needed for the specific operation. Final reserve is not simply 30 minutes holding for all aircraft, and a fixed percentage is not the regulatory standard.

Question 2Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

For a flight departing from an aerodrome where the destination forecast indicates an approach and landing will be possible, when is a destination alternate aerodrome normally required on the operational flight plan?

  1. Only when the flight exceeds four hours duration
  2. Whenever the destination forecast includes any cloud below 5,000 feet
  3. Never, provided the destination has a published instrument approach
  4. When the destination weather at the expected time of arrival is below the specified planning minima Correct answer.

Explanation

An alternate is required when the forecast conditions at the destination at the expected time of arrival are at or below the planning minima specified for that aerodrome and approach. A published approach does not by itself remove the alternate requirement.

Question 3Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

In the operational flight plan, what does the term 'trip fuel' represent?

  1. Fuel reserved solely for holding at the destination
  2. Fuel from engine start to engine shutdown including taxi
  3. Fuel burned during the approach and missed approach
  4. Fuel required from take-off to landing at the destination, allowing for the planned route and forecast conditions Correct answer.

Explanation

Trip fuel is the fuel needed to fly from take-off at the departure aerodrome to landing at the destination, using the planned route, levels and forecast conditions. Taxi fuel is accounted for separately, as are reserves.

Question 4Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

A pilot is completing a flight plan and must state the true airspeed for the cruise segment. Which document provides the authoritative basis for the planned TAS and fuel flow?

  1. The airway low-level chart legend
  2. The departure aerodrome's meteorological report
  3. The aerodrome chart for the destination
  4. The aircraft flight manual or approved performance data for the planned configuration and level Correct answer.

Explanation

Planned TAS and fuel flow must come from the aircraft flight manual or approved performance data for the actual configuration, mass and planned level. Charts and weather reports do not supply aircraft performance figures.

Question 5Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

What is the purpose of the 'final reserve fuel' in an IFR operational flight plan?

  1. To account for increased fuel burn during climb
  2. To allow a diversion to a take-off alternate
  3. To cover taxiing at the departure aerodrome
  4. To provide fuel for holding at 1,500 feet above the alternate aerodrome for a specified period Correct answer.

Explanation

Final reserve fuel is a fixed holding allowance, typically expressed as time holding at a specified altitude above the alternate or destination. It is a last-resort reserve and is not planned for normal use.

Question 6Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

Which of the following best describes the role of the operational flight plan in regulatory compliance?

  1. It records the fuel, route, alternate and performance planning that the commander uses to confirm the flight can be conducted safely Correct answer.
  2. It is a commercial document used only for billing passengers
  3. It replaces the need for a load sheet
  4. It is filed only when the flight crosses an international boundary

Explanation

The operational flight plan documents the planning basis: route, levels, fuel, alternates, masses and performance. The commander uses it to verify the flight can be safely completed within the regulations.

Question 7Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

An aircraft has a maximum take-off mass of 78,000 kg and a maximum landing mass of 66,000 kg. Planned trip fuel is 12,000 kg and taxi fuel is 500 kg. What is the maximum traffic load that can be carried if the planned landing mass equals the maximum landing mass?

  1. 11,500 kg Correct answer.
  2. 12,000 kg
  3. 12,500 kg
  4. 66,000 kg

Explanation

Take-off mass equals landing mass plus trip fuel (ignoring taxi for the airborne figure). With landing mass at 66,000 kg and trip fuel 12,000 kg, take-off mass is 78,000 kg, which equals the maximum take-off mass, so the limiting case is the landing mass. Traffic load is the difference between take-off mass and operating mass empty; here the allowable payload is constrained by the landing mass, giving 66,000 minus operating mass empty. Numerically the take-off mass limit permits 78,000 minus 12,000 equals 66,000 kg landing mass, and the traffic load is the amount above operating mass empty, which is 11,500 kg when taxi fuel of 500 kg is deducted from the take-off allowance.

Question 8Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

A flight is planned along a route of 900 nm. The forecast wind gives a headwind component of 40 kt and the aircraft's TAS is 420 kt. Ignoring climb and descent, what is the approximate still-air distance equivalent used to compute trip fuel?

  1. 820 nm
  2. 900 nm
  3. 945 nm
  4. 986 nm Correct answer.

Explanation

Ground speed is 420 minus 40 equals 380 kt. The air distance is the still-air distance flown in the same time, so air distance equals route distance times TAS divided by ground speed: 900 times 420 divided by 380, approximately 995 nm. The closest figure reflects the increased air distance due to the headwind.

Question 9Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

Why is contingency fuel included in the operational flight plan?

  1. To cover deviations from the planned fuel consumption caused by forecast, routing or level variations Correct answer.
  2. To allow for the APU running on the ground
  3. To cover the fuel used during taxi-out
  4. To provide fuel for a diversion to a take-off alternate

Explanation

Contingency fuel covers unplanned increases in consumption such as different winds, temperatures, routing or levels from those forecast. It is not intended for diversions, APU use or taxi, which have their own allowances.

Question 10Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

An aerodrome is listed as an en-route alternate on the operational flight plan. What planning minima must be satisfied for that aerodrome at the expected time of use?

  1. No minima are required for en-route alternates
  2. The same minima as the destination aerodrome at the expected time of arrival
  3. The specified en-route alternate planning minima for the approach available Correct answer.
  4. Only the published circling minima

Explanation

En-route alternates must satisfy the specified planning minima for the approach expected to be used, considering the forecast at the expected time of use. They are not automatically governed by destination minima.

Question 11Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

Which item is normally NOT part of the operational flight plan documentation?

  1. Fuel breakdown including reserves
  2. Mass and balance summary
  3. Planned route and cruising levels
  4. Aircraft maintenance release certificate Correct answer.

Explanation

The operational flight plan covers route, levels, fuel, masses and related planning data. The maintenance release is a separate airworthiness document and is not part of the flight plan itself.

Question 12Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

A flight is planned at FL350 with a TAS of 460 kt. The wind at that level is forecast as 270/60, and the true track is 090. What is the approximate ground speed?

  1. 490 kt
  2. 520 kt Correct answer.
  3. 400 kt
  4. 460 kt

Explanation

The wind is from 270, so with a track of 090 the wind is directly behind the aircraft, giving a full tailwind component of 60 kt. Ground speed is therefore 460 plus 60 equals 520 kt.

Question 13Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

When planning a flight, what is the purpose of a take-off alternate?

  1. An aerodrome to which the aircraft can proceed if it cannot land back at the departure aerodrome after take-off Correct answer.
  2. The aerodrome used if the destination is closed after arrival
  3. An aerodrome used only for refuelling en route
  4. The aerodrome used for crew rest during a long flight

Explanation

A take-off alternate is designated so the aircraft has a suitable landing option if it cannot return to the departure aerodrome after take-off, for example due to an engine failure or weather. It must satisfy the specified planning minima and distance requirements.

Question 14Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

A pilot plans a flight with a landing mass of 62,000 kg. The maximum landing mass is 64,000 kg and the maximum zero-fuel mass is 58,000 kg. If operating mass empty is 40,000 kg, what limits the traffic load?

  1. The operating mass empty
  2. The maximum take-off mass
  3. The maximum zero-fuel mass Correct answer.
  4. The maximum landing mass

Explanation

Traffic load equals zero-fuel mass minus operating mass empty. The maximum zero-fuel mass of 58,000 kg is lower than the landing mass limit allows, so it constrains the payload to 18,000 kg. The landing mass of 62,000 kg is below its limit and does not govern.

Question 15Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

What is the significance of the 'point of no return' (PNR) in flight planning?

  1. The point where the aircraft changes from IFR to VFR
  2. The point beyond which the aircraft cannot return to the departure aerodrome with the fuel available Correct answer.
  3. The point where the alternate aerodrome becomes the destination
  4. The point at which the aircraft must begin descent

Explanation

The PNR is the furthest point along track from which the aircraft can return to the departure aerodrome with the fuel available, accounting for the return wind and fuel burn. It is a fuel and time calculation, not a descent or airspace boundary.

Question 16Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the equal time point (ETP) and the critical point (CP) in flight planning?

  1. The CP is the point where the aircraft reaches its maximum altitude
  2. The ETP is the point from which the time to two aerodromes is equal, while the CP is the point from which the fuel to two aerodromes is equal Correct answer.
  3. The ETP and CP are always the same point
  4. The ETP applies only to VFR flights and the CP only to IFR flights

Explanation

The equal time point is where the flight time to either of two aerodromes is the same, while the critical point is where the fuel required to reach either aerodrome is the same. They differ because fuel flow and reserves may differ between the two diversion options.

Question 17Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

An aircraft is planned to divert from a point along track to an alternate 300 nm away. The aircraft has 6,000 kg of usable fuel, a diversion fuel flow of 2,500 kg/h and a diversion ground speed of 400 kt. What is the approximate fuel remaining on arrival at the alternate if the diversion starts immediately?

  1. 1,875 kg
  2. 3,750 kg
  3. 4,125 kg Correct answer.
  4. 5,625 kg

Explanation

Diversion time is 300 divided by 400, which is 0.75 hours. Fuel used is 2,500 times 0.75, which is 1,875 kg. Remaining fuel is 6,000 minus 1,875, which is 4,125 kg.

Question 18Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

When completing a flight plan, a pilot must consider the effect of temperature on performance. Which statement best reflects the planning consideration for a high-altitude departure on a hot day?

  1. Higher temperature increases air density, improving take-off performance
  2. Temperature has no effect on take-off performance if the mass is below maximum
  3. Temperature affects only cruise fuel flow and not take-off distance
  4. Higher temperature reduces air density, increasing take-off distance and reducing climb performance, so performance data must be checked against the actual temperature Correct answer.

Explanation

Higher temperature lowers air density, which increases take-off distance and reduces climb gradient. The flight plan must be based on the actual forecast temperature and the associated performance data to ensure obstacle clearance and regulatory gradients are met.

Question 19Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

A flight plan shows a planned landing mass of 65,000 kg, a maximum landing mass of 66,000 kg and an actual landing mass at destination of 66,800 kg after a stronger than forecast headwind. What is the correct regulatory position?

  1. The maximum landing mass applies only to the take-off aerodrome
  2. The flight must not land at the destination with a mass above the maximum landing mass, so fuel must be jettisoned or the flight diverted Correct answer.
  3. The flight may land overweight and record the exceedance after landing
  4. The flight may continue because the excess is within 5 percent of maximum landing mass

Explanation

The maximum landing mass is a hard structural and performance limit. If the actual landing mass will exceed it, the commander must reduce mass, for example by holding and burning fuel, jettisoning where approved, or diverting. It cannot be exceeded on the basis of a percentage tolerance.

Question 20Flight planning fundamentals and regulatory requirements

What does the term 'still-air distance' represent in fuel and time planning?

  1. The distance flown through the air mass, which is used with TAS to compute time and fuel Correct answer.
  2. The distance remaining after the top of descent
  3. The distance over the ground measured by radar
  4. The distance from the departure aerodrome to the destination along the track

Explanation

Still-air distance is the distance the aircraft moves through the air mass, independent of wind. It is used with TAS to calculate flight time and fuel burn, while ground distance and ground speed account for wind.

Question 21Route planning and navigation data

Under the standard grid used on NZ IFR planning charts, what does a line of latitude of 40 degrees South indicate?

  1. The aircraft is 40 nautical miles south of the equator
  2. The magnetic variation is 40 degrees east
  3. The position is 40 degrees of arc south of the equator Correct answer.
  4. The local mean time offset is 40 minutes

Explanation

Latitude is measured in degrees of arc north or south of the equator, so 40 degrees South places the position 40 degrees of arc south of that reference line. One degree of latitude approximates 60 nautical miles, which is why latitude also relates to distance but never to variation or time offset directly.

Question 22Route planning and navigation data

On a Mercator projection used for route planning, what happens to the scale as latitude increases?

  1. Scale stays constant everywhere on the chart
  2. Scale increases toward the poles Correct answer.
  3. Scale is only correct along the standard parallel
  4. Scale decreases toward the poles

Explanation

A Mercator chart is constructed so that the spacing between parallels increases with latitude to preserve the rhumb line as a straight line. Consequently the scale expands toward the poles and is correct only at the latitude for which the chart is drawn.

Question 23Route planning and navigation data

An airway is published with a minimum en-route altitude (MEA) of 9,500 ft. Which statement best describes the operational meaning of this value?

  1. The optimum altitude for fuel economy on the segment
  2. The lowest altitude providing terrain and obstacle clearance along the airway segment Correct answer.
  3. The altitude at which the aircraft must fly to obtain standard radio coverage
  4. The maximum altitude approved for the airway

Explanation

The minimum en-route altitude is the lowest published altitude that guarantees terrain and obstacle clearance within the airway structure. It is a safe lower limit rather than an optimum or maximum, and it does not by itself guarantee navigation or communication coverage.

Question 24Route planning and navigation data

A waypoint is defined by a bearing and distance from a VOR/DME station. What type of waypoint is this?

  1. A phantom waypoint
  2. A latitude/longitude waypoint
  3. A fly-by waypoint
  4. A VOR/DME radial-distance waypoint Correct answer.

Explanation

Waypoints defined relative to a ground-based navigation aid are known as VOR/DME radial-distance fixes, expressed as a radial and a distance. Fly-by and phantom terms describe flyability behaviour, not the underlying position definition.

Question 25Route planning and navigation data

Which reference does a GNSS-based RNAV route use for its published track and waypoint positions?

  1. True tracks referenced to the WGS-84 datum Correct answer.
  2. Grid tracks referenced to the chart graticule
  3. Magnetic bearings referenced to the local variation
  4. Relative bearings referenced to the aircraft heading

Explanation

RNAV routes are published in true track and positions are referenced to the WGS-84 geodetic datum, which is the standard for GNSS navigation. Magnetic variation is applied by the aircraft systems for display, not embedded in the route definition.

Question 26Route planning and navigation data

What is the primary purpose of a standard instrument departure (SID) chart in route planning?

  1. To provide the takeoff performance data for the runway
  2. To define the obstacle clearance and track from the runway to the en-route structure Correct answer.
  3. To specify the holding pattern at the destination
  4. To list the fuel required for the departure phase

Explanation

A SID provides the published track, altitude constraints and obstacle clearance from the runway environment to the en-route structure. Performance data and fuel planning are separate documents, and holding is associated with arrival or destination procedures.

Question 27Route planning and navigation data

On an IFR en-route chart, a minimum crossing altitude (MCA) at a fix indicates what?

  1. The altitude at which the fix must be reported to ATC
  2. The lowest altitude at which the aircraft may cross the fix in the specified direction Correct answer.
  3. The altitude at which a turn at the fix must begin
  4. The altitude below which the aircraft must not descend after the fix

Explanation

A minimum crossing altitude specifies the lowest altitude at which an aircraft may cross a fix when proceeding in the stated direction, ensuring obstacle clearance beyond that point. It is a crossing restriction rather than a post-fix floor or a reporting trigger.

Question 28Route planning and navigation data

A route is planned along a great circle between two points in the southern hemisphere. Compared with the rhumb line between the same points, how does the great circle appear on a Mercator chart?

  1. As a straight line identical to the rhumb line
  2. As a curve concave toward the nearer pole
  3. As a series of straight segments with no curvature
  4. As a curve concave toward the equator Correct answer.

Explanation

On a Mercator chart the great circle appears as a curve that bulges toward the pole of the hemisphere containing the route, which means it is concave toward the equator. The rhumb line remains the straight line, so the great circle is shorter but curved.

Question 29Route planning and navigation data

When converting a true track of 135 degrees to a magnetic track with a variation of 12 degrees West, what is the magnetic track?

  1. 147 degrees Correct answer.
  2. 159 degrees
  3. 135 degrees
  4. 123 degrees

Explanation

The rule is variation east, magnetic least; variation west, magnetic best. With 12 degrees West, add 12 to the true track, giving 147 degrees magnetic. Applying the opposite correction would give the wrong answer.

Question 30Route planning and navigation data

An aircraft is cleared to route via a VOR/DME radial of 090 degrees at 40 DME. The station is 20 NM from a restricted area boundary along that radial. What is the distance from the waypoint to the boundary?

  1. 40 NM
  2. 20 NM Correct answer.
  3. 80 NM
  4. 60 NM

Explanation

The waypoint lies at 40 DME and the boundary is 20 NM further along the same radial, so the remaining distance is 20 NM. Distances along a single radial add and subtract directly without any angular correction.

Question 31Route planning and navigation data

Which item of navigation data is essential before a GNSS-equipped aircraft can legally fly an RNAV (GNSS) approach at a remote aerodrome?

  1. A radar service from an approach controller
  2. A current database containing the approach procedure and a valid RAIM prediction Correct answer.
  3. A published ILS localiser frequency for the runway
  4. A separate DME receiver tuned to a co-located beacon

Explanation

RNAV (GNSS) approaches require a current navigation database containing the coded procedure and, where specified, a receiver autonomous integrity monitoring prediction for the approach. Terrestrial aids and radar services are not prerequisites for the GNSS procedure itself.

Question 32Route planning and navigation data

What does the term 'fly-by waypoint' mean in an RNAV route description?

  1. The aircraft must overfly the waypoint before turning
  2. The waypoint must be crossed at a specified altitude
  3. The waypoint is used only for position reporting
  4. The aircraft anticipates the turn and rolls out on the next leg before reaching the waypoint Correct answer.

Explanation

A fly-by waypoint permits turn anticipation so the aircraft begins the turn before the waypoint and rolls out on the new track, smoothing the path. Overflying the point describes a fly-over waypoint, which is used where terrain or airspace demands it.

Question 33Route planning and navigation data

A route segment is 320 NM long and the aircraft groundspeed is 400 kt. What is the planned segment time?

  1. 36 minutes
  2. 80 minutes
  3. 60 minutes
  4. 48 minutes Correct answer.

Explanation

Segment time equals distance divided by groundspeed, so 320 divided by 400 gives 0.8 hours, or 48 minutes. Using groundspeed rather than true airspeed accounts for wind along the segment.

Question 34Route planning and navigation data

An airway is designated as an RNAV 5 (B-RNAV) route. What navigation performance does this designation require?

  1. Total system error within 5 NM for 95 percent of the flight time Correct answer.
  2. Lateral accuracy within 0.3 NM for 95 percent of the flight time
  3. Vertical accuracy within 50 ft during the entire route
  4. Position integrity monitoring every 5 minutes

Explanation

RNAV 5 requires the total system error in the lateral dimension to remain within 5 NM for 95 percent of the flight time. Tighter values such as 0.3 NM apply to PBN specifications like RNP 0.3, which are different designations.

Question 35Route planning and navigation data

On an arrival chart, a speed restriction of 'Max 250 kt below FL100' is shown. How should the planner treat this in the descent profile?

  1. Ignore it because it applies only to departures
  2. Plan to cross FL100 at exactly 250 kt groundspeed
  3. Apply it only if ATC issues a specific instruction
  4. Plan the descent so the aircraft is at or below 250 kt by the time it reaches FL100 Correct answer.

Explanation

A published maximum speed restriction is a planning constraint, so the descent profile must ensure the aircraft is at or below 250 kt when passing FL100. It is a maximum, not a target groundspeed, and it applies regardless of a specific ATC transmission.

Question 36Route planning and navigation data

A NOTAM closes a VOR on the planned route for the planned period of flight. What is the most appropriate planning response?

  1. File the original route and advise ATC in flight
  2. Assume the VOR will be serviceable when the flight departs
  3. Re-plan onto an alternative published route not reliant on that aid Correct answer.
  4. Continue planning as the NOTAM does not affect navigation

Explanation

A NOTAM that withdraws a navigation aid invalidates any route segment dependent on it, so the planner must select an alternative published route that does not require the affected aid. Assuming serviceability or deferring the decision to flight is not acceptable planning.

Question 37Route planning and navigation data

What is the significance of the 'transition level' specifically for altimeter setting when planning a descent into a controlled aerodrome?

  1. It is the altitude at which the aircraft must contact approach control
  2. It is the lowest flight level available above the transition altitude
  3. It is the level at which the altimeter is set to the appropriate zone-area or aerodrome QNH Correct answer.
  4. It is the altitude at which speed restrictions begin

Explanation

On descent through the transition level, change the altimeter from the standard pressure setting to the appropriate zone-area or aerodrome QNH, in accordance with applicable AIP and ATC directions. This changes the vertical reference from flight levels to altitudes.

Question 38Route planning and navigation data

An aircraft must plan a route across an area with no published airways between two points. Which method is appropriate for defining the route?

  1. Following the nearest airway regardless of direction
  2. Direct routing using great circle track and distance between the points Correct answer.
  3. Using the magnetic track from the departure aerodrome indefinitely
  4. Routing via the closest VOR only

Explanation

Where no published airway exists, the route is defined by the great circle track and distance between the two points, with waypoints inserted as required. Following unrelated airways or a single VOR does not produce an efficient or valid direct route.

Question 39Route planning and navigation data

A planned leg has a true track of 090 degrees and the wind is 360 degrees at 40 kt. The aircraft true airspeed is 200 kt. Which statement about the resulting drift is correct?

  1. The wind produces a left drift and increases groundspeed
  2. The wind produces a right drift and increases groundspeed
  3. The wind produces a right drift and reduces groundspeed Correct answer.
  4. The wind is a pure headwind and drift is zero

Explanation

With a track of 090 and wind from 360, the wind is from the left of track, so the aircraft drifts to the right of its heading and the along-track component reduces groundspeed. Drift direction and groundspeed change must both be assessed from the wind vector relative to track.

Question 40Route planning and navigation data

An operator plans to use a PBN specification RNP 1 on an arrival. What distinguishes RNP from basic RNAV in this context?

  1. RNP requires on-board performance monitoring and alerting Correct answer.
  2. RNP requires DME/DME updating exclusively
  3. RNP requires a magnetic reference only
  4. RNP requires a ground-based radar service

Explanation

The defining feature of RNP specifications is on-board performance monitoring and alerting, which warns the crew if the navigation performance is not met. Basic RNAV does not carry this requirement, and the navigation source may be GNSS or other approved sensors.

Question 41Route planning and navigation data

On a Jeppesen-style en-route chart, a changeover point (COP) between two VORs is published. What is the purpose of this point?

  1. It marks the point where ATC handover occurs
  2. It marks the point where the aircraft must change frequency from one aid to the other Correct answer.
  3. It marks the boundary between two flight information regions
  4. It marks the point of no return for fuel planning

Explanation

A changeover point indicates where the aircraft should switch navigation frequency from the aid behind to the aid ahead, ensuring continuous guidance along the route. It is a navigation aid transition, not an FIR boundary, fuel point or ATC handover.

Question 42Route planning and navigation data

A route crosses from a region of 10 degrees East variation to 10 degrees West variation along a constant true track. How does the magnetic track change across the route?

  1. It changes by 20 degrees across the transition Correct answer.
  2. It remains constant because the true track is constant
  3. It reverses direction at the boundary
  4. It changes by 10 degrees only

Explanation

Magnetic track equals true track plus or minus the local variation, so moving from 10 East to 10 West changes the correction by 20 degrees in total. The true track stays constant while the magnetic track shifts accordingly.

Question 43Route planning and navigation data

An aircraft plans a long leg over the southern ocean where magnetic variation is large and unreliable. Which navigation reference should the route be planned on?

  1. True track referenced to the WGS-84 datum Correct answer.
  2. Relative bearing referenced to the aircraft nose
  3. Magnetic track referenced to the nearest compass rose
  4. Grid track referenced to the Greenwich meridian

Explanation

In areas of large or unreliable variation, planning should use true track referenced to WGS-84, as is standard for RNAV and oceanic operations. Grid navigation is used in polar regions where meridians converge, not as a general substitute at mid-latitudes.

Question 44Route planning and navigation data

A NOTAM raises the minimum en-route altitude on a segment from 8,000 ft to 11,000 ft due to a new obstacle. The aircraft's planned level was 9,000 ft. What is the correct planning action?

  1. File 9,000 ft and request a deviation in flight
  2. Descend to 8,000 ft to remain clear of the obstacle
  3. Re-plan the segment level to at least 11,000 ft or select an alternative route Correct answer.
  4. Retain 9,000 ft because the original chart is still valid

Explanation

The NOTAM supersedes the published chart value, so the planned level must be raised to at least the new minimum or the route changed. Retaining the old level or relying on an in-flight deviation does not satisfy the planning requirement.

Question 45Fuel planning and fuel management

Under NZ ATPL flight planning practice, the fuel loaded must include trip fuel, contingency fuel, alternate fuel, final reserve fuel and, where applicable, taxi fuel. What is the standard final reserve fuel requirement for a turbine-engine aeroplane?

  1. Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at cruising speed from the destination
  2. Fuel equal to 5% of the trip fuel for the planned route
  3. Fuel to hold for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the alternate aerodrome Correct answer.
  4. Fuel to hold for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the destination aerodrome

Explanation

For turbine-engine aeroplanes the final reserve is fuel to hold for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft above the alternate aerodrome in ISA conditions. It is a protected reserve and must remain on board on arrival at the alternate. It is not based on cruise speed or a percentage of trip fuel.

Question 46Fuel planning and fuel management

Contingency fuel for a flight planned under NZ ATPL rules is normally calculated as a percentage of the planned trip fuel. What is the standard percentage?

  1. 15%
  2. 3%
  3. 5% Correct answer.
  4. 10%

Explanation

Contingency fuel is normally 5% of the planned trip fuel, intended to cover unforeseen variations in consumption, routeing or weather. It may be reduced under approved procedures only when specific conditions such as a suitable en-route alternate are met. It is distinct from the final reserve and alternate fuel.

Question 47Fuel planning and fuel management

An aeroplane must carry alternate fuel. Which statement correctly describes the purpose of alternate fuel in the fuel plan?

  1. It replaces the final reserve when an alternate is nominated
  2. It allows the aircraft to divert from the destination to the alternate aerodrome Correct answer.
  3. It covers fuel burned during taxi at the departure aerodrome
  4. It covers holding delays expected at the destination before landing

Explanation

Alternate fuel is the fuel required to fly from the destination to the nominated alternate aerodrome, including an approach and landing. It is additional to trip fuel, contingency fuel and final reserve. It does not cover destination holding, taxi, or replace the final reserve.

Question 48Fuel planning and fuel management

A flight is planned with a take-off mass that includes taxi fuel. Which fuel component is normally excluded when calculating the take-off fuel figure?

  1. Trip fuel
  2. Taxi fuel Correct answer.
  3. Alternate fuel
  4. Contingency fuel

Explanation

Take-off fuel is the fuel on board at the start of the take-off roll, after taxi fuel has been burned. Taxi fuel is therefore excluded from the take-off fuel calculation but included in the block fuel. Trip, contingency and alternate fuel remain part of take-off fuel.

Question 49Fuel planning and fuel management

Which fuel quantity is defined as the total fuel required for the flight, including taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel, alternate fuel and final reserve?

  1. Take-off fuel
  2. Trip fuel
  3. Block fuel Correct answer.
  4. Reserve fuel

Explanation

Block fuel is the total fuel loaded before engine start and includes taxi, trip, contingency, alternate and final reserve fuel. Trip fuel covers only the flight from take-off to landing at the destination. Take-off fuel excludes taxi fuel, and reserve fuel covers only the contingency, alternate and final reserve components.

Question 50Fuel planning and fuel management

During flight, the crew must monitor fuel against the flight plan. What is the standard fuel management action when the actual fuel remaining falls below the planned figure by a significant margin?

  1. Immediately dump fuel to reduce mass
  2. Record the discrepancy, analyse the cause and consider a diversion or reduced endurance Correct answer.
  3. Increase power to burn the surplus fuel
  4. Continue and compare again at the next waypoint without any other action

Explanation

Fuel management requires the crew to record the discrepancy, identify its cause and assess the effect on endurance. If the shortfall threatens the reserves, the crew must consider diverting or reducing planned endurance. Simply continuing without action, dumping fuel or deliberately burning fuel are not correct responses.