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CAA NZ CPL Air Law study materials
CAA NZ CPL Air Law study resources

CAA NZ CPL Air Law practice questions

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Question 1Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Under the Civil Aviation Act 1990, which person holds the ultimate responsibility for the safety and security of civil aviation in New Zealand?

  1. The Director of Civil Aviation
  2. The Secretary for Transport
  3. The Authority (Civil Aviation Authority board)
  4. The Minister of Transport Correct answer.

Explanation

The Act vests responsibility for civil aviation safety and security in the Minister, who exercises it through the Ministry and the CAA. The Director and the Authority carry out delegated regulatory functions but do not hold the ultimate statutory responsibility. The Secretary for Transport supports the Minister rather than owning the aviation safety mandate.

Question 2Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which document issued by the Director of Civil Aviation sets out rules that have the force of law for participants in the New Zealand aviation system?

  1. Civil Aviation Rules (Parts) Correct answer.
  2. Acceptable means of compliance
  3. Pilot operating handbooks
  4. Advisory circulars

Explanation

The Civil Aviation Rules are made as secondary legislation and bind participants; each Part covers a topic such as operations, airworthiness or licensing. Advisory circulars and acceptable means of compliance explain ways of meeting the rules but are not themselves law. Pilot operating handbooks are operator documents approved under the rules, not legislation.

Question 3Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

What is the primary function of the Civil Aviation Authority of New Zealand as established under the Civil Aviation Act 1990?

  1. Investigating accidents and incidents for the Transport Accident Investigation Commission
  2. Carrying out regulatory functions relating to civil aviation safety and security Correct answer.
  3. Negotiating international air service agreements
  4. Operating regional airports on behalf of the Crown

Explanation

The CAA is a Crown entity whose core function is to undertake the regulatory functions given to it under the Act, including safety and security oversight. Airport operation, accident investigation and air service negotiations sit with other bodies. Keeping these roles distinct is a recurring exam point.

Question 4Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which body conducts independent inquiries into aviation accidents and incidents in New Zealand?

  1. The Transport Accident Investigation Commission Correct answer.
  2. The Ministry of Transport
  3. The Aviation Security Service
  4. The Civil Aviation Authority

Explanation

The Transport Accident Investigation Commission is an independent Crown entity that investigates accidents and incidents to determine causes and make safety recommendations. Its independence from the regulator is deliberate, so that safety findings are not compromised by regulatory interests. The CAA may investigate for regulatory purposes but does not conduct the independent inquiry.

Question 5Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

A pilot is issued with a medical certificate by a designated medical examiner. Which statement best describes the status of that certificate under the Civil Aviation Act framework?

  1. It is a document issued by the Director (or a delegate) and may be suspended or revoked under the Act Correct answer.
  2. It is a private medical opinion with no regulatory standing
  3. It is valid only if countersigned by the pilot's employer
  4. It automatically lapses whenever the pilot changes employer

Explanation

Medical certificates are regulatory documents issued under delegated authority and carry the same vulnerability to suspension, revocation or conditions as other aviation documents. They are not mere private opinions, and employment changes do not affect their validity. The Director retains powers to act where safety is affected.

Question 6Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

What is the legal effect of an advisory circular issued by the CAA?

  1. It overrides any conflicting provision in the Civil Aviation Rules
  2. It creates new offence provisions enforceable in court
  3. It applies only to holders of airline transport licences
  4. It provides guidance on how to comply with the rules but is not itself binding law Correct answer.

Explanation

Advisory circulars explain, interpret and give examples of acceptable ways to meet the rules, but compliance with them is not mandatory in itself. The binding requirements are found in the Act and the Civil Aviation Rules. A circular cannot create offences or override a rule.

Question 7Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

A person who breaches a provision of the Civil Aviation Rules may face which of the following under the Act?

  1. Only a written warning from the Director
  2. Automatic loss of all aviation documents without any hearing
  3. Infringement offences and, for more serious matters, prosecution for an offence Correct answer.
  4. Referral to the Transport Accident Investigation Commission for penalty

Explanation

The Act provides for infringement notices for certain breaches and for prosecution where an offence is alleged, with penalties set by legislation. Enforcement is not limited to warnings, and documents are not automatically cancelled without process. The TAIC does not impose penalties.

Question 8Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Under the Civil Aviation Act, what power does the Director have when satisfied that an aviation document holder poses a risk to safety?

  1. To refer the matter to the Minister, who alone may act
  2. To cancel the document only with the consent of the holder
  3. To suspend or revoke the document after following the statutory process Correct answer.
  4. To suspend the document only after a court conviction

Explanation

The Act gives the Director power to suspend or revoke aviation documents where the safety criteria are met, subject to the procedural requirements such as notice and rights of review. Consent of the holder is not required, and a conviction is not a precondition. The Director acts personally under delegated statutory power rather than only through the Minister.

Question 9Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

A pilot who is dissatisfied with a decision of the Director to suspend a licence may seek which remedy in the first instance?

  1. An appeal to the High Court
  2. An appeal to the District Court Correct answer.
  3. A review by the Transport Accident Investigation Commission
  4. A complaint to the Aviation Security Service

Explanation

The Act provides a right of appeal to the District Court against specified decisions of the Director, giving an accessible first-instance review. The TAIC and Aviation Security Service have no appellate role, and the High Court is not the first-instance appeal forum for these decisions.

Question 10Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the Minister of Transport and the Civil Aviation Authority?

  1. The Authority appoints the Minister
  2. The Director of Civil Aviation appoints the Minister's advisers
  3. The Authority is a division of the Ministry of Transport
  4. The Authority reports to the Minister, who appoints its board members Correct answer.

Explanation

The CAA is a Crown entity governed by a board appointed by the responsible Minister, to whom it is accountable. It is separate from the Ministry, which provides policy advice. The Authority does not appoint the Minister, and the Director does not appoint ministerial advisers.

Question 11Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Civil Aviation Act 1990 as stated in the Act?

  1. To establish a framework for civil aviation safety and security consistent with New Zealand's international obligations Correct answer.
  2. To set airfares for domestic routes
  3. To promote maximum commercial competition among airlines
  4. To manage all Crown-owned airports

Explanation

The Act establishes the regulatory framework for civil aviation safety and security, reflecting New Zealand's obligations as a party to the Chicago Convention. It is not a competition, pricing or airport-ownership statute. Those matters are dealt with by other legislation and bodies.

Question 12Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

A person operates an aircraft without the required aviation document. Under the Civil Aviation Act, this conduct is best described as:

  1. A civil contract breach only
  2. An offence against the Act Correct answer.
  3. An administrative error with no consequence
  4. A matter for the insurer to resolve

Explanation

Operating without a required document is an offence under the Act, and the person may be prosecuted or dealt with by infringement where applicable. It is not merely a contractual or administrative matter. Insurance arrangements do not determine regulatory liability.

Question 13Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

What is the status of the Civil Aviation Rules in New Zealand law?

  1. They are recommendations issued by industry associations
  2. They are contractual terms between operators and the CAA
  3. They are international standards with no domestic force
  4. They are secondary legislation made under the Civil Aviation Act Correct answer.

Explanation

The Rules are secondary legislation made under the Act and have binding legal force on participants. They are not industry recommendations or mere contracts, and international standards only bind domestically once incorporated. This distinction underpins much of the regulatory framework.

Question 14Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which person is responsible for certifying that an organisation meets the requirements for an air operator certificate under the Civil Aviation Rules?

  1. The operator's chief executive
  2. The airport operator
  3. The insurer of the aircraft
  4. The Director of Civil Aviation, acting through delegated CAA staff Correct answer.

Explanation

Certification is a regulatory function exercised by the Director, usually through delegated CAA personnel who assess the applicant against the rules. The operator's own management and third parties such as airports or insurers have no certification authority.

Question 15Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

A pilot holds a current licence but has not maintained the recent flight experience required by the rules. What is the regulatory position?

  1. The pilot may not exercise the privileges of the licence until the requirement is met Correct answer.
  2. The licence remains valid and the pilot may exercise all privileges
  3. The licence is automatically revoked by the CAA computer system
  4. The pilot may continue if the employer approves

Explanation

Recent experience requirements are conditions of exercising licence privileges, so a pilot who falls short cannot lawfully act under the licence until the requirement is restored. The licence itself is not automatically revoked, and employer approval cannot override the rules. This is a common practical trap.

Question 16Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

What role does the Ministry of Transport play in the New Zealand aviation regulatory system?

  1. It provides policy advice to the Government and supports the Minister Correct answer.
  2. It investigates accidents
  3. It provides airport security screening
  4. It issues air operator certificates

Explanation

The Ministry is the government's principal transport policy adviser and supports the Minister in the aviation portfolio. Certification and accident investigation belong to the CAA and TAIC respectively, and screening is done by the Aviation Security Service. Understanding these boundaries avoids confusion in exam scenarios.

Question 17Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which of the following is an aviation document within the meaning of the Civil Aviation Act?

  1. An aircraft maintenance invoice
  2. An airline's marketing brochure
  3. A company's internal safety poster
  4. A pilot licence Correct answer.

Explanation

The Act defines aviation documents to include licences, certificates, ratings and similar instruments issued under the rules. Invoices, posters and brochures are ordinary commercial or informational items with no regulatory status. The definition matters because the Director's suspension and revocation powers attach to aviation documents.

Question 18Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

An operator wishes to vary the conditions of its air operator certificate to add a new aircraft type. What is the correct regulatory approach?

  1. Apply to the Director for the variation and obtain approval before operating Correct answer.
  2. Ask the manufacturer to amend the certificate
  3. Begin operations and notify the CAA afterwards
  4. Record the change in the maintenance log only

Explanation

Changes to the scope or conditions of an aviation document require application to and approval by the Director before the new activity is undertaken. Operating first and notifying later is non-compliant, and neither manufacturers nor logbook entries can amend a certificate. This reflects the principle that privileges follow certification.

Question 19Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which statement about the Director of Civil Aviation's delegation powers is correct?

  1. The Director may delegate functions to CAA employees and specified persons but remains accountable for their exercise Correct answer.
  2. The Director may delegate all functions to any member of the public
  3. Delegation removes the Director's statutory accountability
  4. Only the Minister may exercise the Director's functions

Explanation

The Act permits delegation of specified functions, typically to CAA staff or other suitable persons, while the Director remains accountable for how those functions are performed. Delegation is not open to arbitrary members of the public and does not erase accountability. The Minister does not take over the Director's operational functions.

Question 20Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

A safety issue arises that is not expressly covered by an existing rule. Which approach best reflects the framework of the Civil Aviation Act?

  1. Only the Transport Accident Investigation Commission can act
  2. No action is possible until a new rule is made
  3. The matter must be referred to the insurer
  4. The Director may exercise general safety powers under the Act to address the risk Correct answer.

Explanation

The Act contains general safety powers enabling the Director to act where a risk exists, even if no specific rule squarely covers the situation. This avoids a regulatory vacuum and allows interim measures while rules are developed. The TAIC and insurers have no such regulatory power.

Question 21Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which statement correctly describes the effect of New Zealand's obligations under the Chicago Convention within the domestic framework?

  1. The Convention's standards are given effect through the Act and Rules and related instruments Correct answer.
  2. The Convention automatically overrides the Civil Aviation Rules
  3. The Convention applies only to foreign-registered aircraft
  4. The Convention has no relevance to New Zealand domestic operations

Explanation

International obligations are implemented domestically through legislation, the Rules and associated instruments such as the New Zealand register and licensing system. The Convention does not automatically override domestic rules, and its standards influence domestic operations as well as international ones. This is a key framework concept.

Question 22Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

What is the principal purpose of the New Zealand aircraft register maintained under the Civil Aviation Act framework?

  1. To record the commercial value of aircraft
  2. To record air traffic clearances
  3. To provide a public record of aircraft nationality and ownership for regulatory purposes Correct answer.
  4. To list all licensed pilots

Explanation

The register records aircraft and their nationality and ownership details, supporting regulatory oversight and international recognition of nationality. It is not a valuation list, pilot register or record of clearances. Registration is a precondition for operating many aircraft types under the rules.

Question 23Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

A person is convicted of an offence under the Civil Aviation Act involving knowingly operating an unsafe aircraft. Which statement best reflects the Act's approach to such conduct?

  1. The matter is dealt with solely by the insurer
  2. The Act provides for penalties including imprisonment for serious offences Correct answer.
  3. Only a civil penalty applies
  4. The person is automatically barred from all employment in aviation

Explanation

Serious offences under the Act carry penalties that can include imprisonment, reflecting the public safety interest in compliance. Lesser matters may be dealt with by infringement, but the most serious conduct attracts criminal sanction. Insurance and employment consequences are separate from the statutory penalty.

Question 24Civil Aviation Act and regulatory framework

Which of the following best describes the principle of 'just culture' as it relates to the Civil Aviation Act framework?

  1. No enforcement action is ever taken against professionals
  2. Only intentional breaches are ever investigated
  3. Honest errors are distinguished from reckless or intentional breaches when deciding regulatory response Correct answer.
  4. All errors are punished equally regardless of intent

Explanation

Just culture supports open reporting by distinguishing inadvertent errors from reckless or deliberate non-compliance, so that the regulatory response is proportionate. It does not mean no enforcement, nor that all errors are treated alike. This principle underpins safety reporting and investigation practice.

Question 25Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

Under the Civil Aviation Rules, what is the minimum height an aircraft must maintain above any congested area of a city, town or settlement when flying over it?

  1. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a 600 metre radius
  2. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 1 km radius
  3. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 600 metre radius Correct answer.
  4. 1,500 feet above ground level in all cases

Explanation

CAR 91.227 sets the minimum height for flight over congested areas at 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 metres of the aircraft. This protects people and property on the ground from low overflight.

Question 26Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

Except when taking off or landing, what is the general minimum height above ground or water that an aircraft must be flown under CAR 91.227?

  1. 500 feet Correct answer.
  2. 1,500 feet
  3. 200 feet
  4. 1,000 feet

Explanation

The general minimum height rule requires an aircraft to be flown at least 500 feet above the surface except during take-off and landing, or where a specific rule permits otherwise. Congested areas carry the higher 1,000 foot obstacle-based standard.

Question 27Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the minimum distance an aircraft must keep from any person, vessel or structure when flying over water or open country, unless the operation is a take-off or landing?

  1. 50 metres
  2. 100 metres
  3. 300 metres
  4. 150 metres Correct answer.

Explanation

The rule requires a horizontal separation of at least 150 metres from persons, vessels and structures when operating at low level over water or open country. This prevents nuisance and injury while preserving a safe margin.

Question 28Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

An aircraft is operating under VFR in controlled airspace and encounters deteriorating weather. What is the required action when the flight cannot continue in VMC?

  1. Continue on the VFR clearance until reaching the destination
  2. Request a special VFR clearance or an amended clearance before entering IMC Correct answer.
  3. Squawk 7700 and continue the flight without notifying ATC
  4. Descend below the cloud base to maintain visual reference

Explanation

A VFR flight that cannot remain in VMC must obtain an amended clearance or a special VFR clearance before entering instrument meteorological conditions. Continuing into cloud without a clearance is a serious breach and creates collision risk.

Question 29Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at or below 3,000 feet AMSL in Class G airspace under CAR 91?

  1. 1,500 metres
  2. 5 km Correct answer.
  3. 8 km
  4. 3,000 metres

Explanation

CAR 91 VFR meteorological minima require at least 5 km flight visibility at or below 3,000 feet AMSL in Class G airspace. The associated cloud clearance requirement must also be satisfied simultaneously.

Question 30Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

Which document must the pilot-in-command ensure is on board an aircraft operating under a New Zealand air operator certificate?

  1. The aircraft technical log only
  2. The operator's maintenance schedule only
  3. The flight manual and the appropriate charts for the route Correct answer.
  4. The company's safety management manual only

Explanation

The pilot-in-command must ensure the aircraft carries the documents specified in the rules, including the flight manual and the charts appropriate to the route to be flown. These support safe navigation and operation of the aircraft.

Question 31Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the maximum period an aircraft may be operated without a maintenance release being issued, where the rules require one?

  1. Up to 7 days after the last inspection
  2. Up to 24 hours after the last inspection
  3. Only after the annual review is completed
  4. The aircraft must have a valid maintenance release before flight Correct answer.

Explanation

Where the rules require a maintenance release, the aircraft may not be operated unless a valid maintenance release is in force. The release certifies that maintenance has been completed and the aircraft is airworthy for the intended flight.

Question 32Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is airworthy before a flight is commenced?

  1. The operator's chief executive only
  2. The maintenance engineer only
  3. The air traffic controller on duty
  4. The pilot-in-command Correct answer.

Explanation

The pilot-in-command is responsible for ensuring the aircraft is airworthy and that all required maintenance has been certified before flight. This responsibility cannot be delegated to maintenance staff or management.

Question 33Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

An aircraft is being operated on a flight where a passenger becomes seriously ill. May the pilot deviate from the rules to the extent necessary to deal with the emergency?

  1. No, the rules must be followed in all circumstances
  2. Yes, the pilot may deviate to the extent necessary and must report the deviation if required Correct answer.
  3. Only if the operator gives prior written approval
  4. Only if the deviation is approved by air traffic control

Explanation

The rules permit the pilot-in-command to deviate from a rule to the extent necessary to deal with an emergency involving the safety of the aircraft or persons on board. The deviation may need to be reported to the Director afterwards.

Question 34Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What must a pilot do before operating an aircraft that has been involved in an accident or incident that may affect its airworthiness?

  1. Have it inspected and, if required, a maintenance release issued before further flight Correct answer.
  2. Record the event in the technical log after the next flight
  3. Notify the operator only after landing at the destination
  4. Operate it normally if no damage is visible

Explanation

An aircraft involved in an accident or incident that may affect airworthiness must be inspected and any required maintenance certified before further flight. Operating without that assurance risks continuing an unsafe condition.

Question 35Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the requirement for the use of safety belts and harnesses by passengers during taxiing, take-off and landing?

  1. Belts are required only above 10,000 feet
  2. Each passenger must occupy a seat with the belt properly fastened Correct answer.
  3. Only the flight crew must wear restraints
  4. Passengers may leave belts unfastened if seated

Explanation

The rules require each passenger to occupy a seat and to have the safety belt properly fastened during taxiing, take-off and landing, and when directed by the pilot. This reduces injury risk during critical phases of flight.

Question 36Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

Before take-off, what must the pilot-in-command ensure regarding passengers and the briefing required by the rules?

  1. The briefing may be replaced by a written notice left in the seat pocket
  2. The briefing is given only to passengers seated in exit rows
  3. Only the emergency exits are pointed out
  4. Passengers receive a briefing on the use of safety belts, exits and emergency equipment as applicable Correct answer.

Explanation

The pilot-in-command must ensure passengers are briefed before take-off on matters such as the use of safety belts, the location of exits and the use of emergency equipment. The briefing must be given in a manner passengers can understand.

Question 37Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

An aircraft is to be flown at night. What is the minimum requirement for a pilot to be able to operate under VFR at night?

  1. A current aerobatic rating
  2. A current day VFR rating only
  3. A current night rating or a valid instrument rating Correct answer.
  4. A current instructor rating

Explanation

Night VFR operations require the pilot to hold a current night rating or a valid instrument rating, depending on the licence privileges. Operating at night without the appropriate rating is not permitted.

Question 38Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the required action when an aircraft's radio fails in controlled airspace while operating under VFR?

  1. Continue to the destination at any altitude without notifying anyone
  2. Turn back only if the failure occurs below 1,000 feet
  3. Continue as cleared and squawk 7600, then land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report Correct answer.
  4. Immediately climb to the highest available level and circle

Explanation

On radio failure the pilot should squawk 7600, continue in accordance with the last clearance where practicable, and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, then report the failure. This gives ATC a predictable picture of the aircraft's intentions.

Question 39Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the requirement for a pilot to maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequency when operating in controlled airspace?

  1. A continuous listening watch must be maintained on the appropriate frequency Correct answer.
  2. Only when instructed by ATC
  3. Only when flying above 10,000 feet
  4. Only during the hours of darkness

Explanation

A continuous listening watch on the appropriate air-ground frequency is required when operating in controlled airspace so that clearances and traffic information can be received. Failure to maintain the watch undermines separation and situational awareness.

Question 40Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the minimum equipment required for an aircraft to be operated under VFR at night with respect to position lights?

  1. Only a landing light
  2. No lights are required if the aircraft is outside controlled airspace
  3. Navigation lights showing the correct colours and arcs Correct answer.
  4. A flashing anti-collision light only

Explanation

Night VFR operations require serviceable navigation lights that display the correct colours and arcs so other aircraft can determine the aircraft's position and heading. This is fundamental to collision avoidance at night.

Question 41Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

An aircraft is carrying dangerous goods. What must the pilot-in-command ensure before the flight?

  1. The goods are carried without documentation to save time
  2. The goods are loaded only if the flight is below 10,000 feet
  3. The goods are packaged and loaded in accordance with the applicable dangerous goods rules and the pilot is informed Correct answer.
  4. The goods are stowed in the passenger cabin for easy access

Explanation

Dangerous goods must be packaged, marked, labelled and loaded in accordance with the applicable dangerous goods requirements, and the pilot-in-command must be informed of what is carried. This ensures hazards are managed and emergency responders are aware.

Question 42Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the rule regarding the carriage of persons other than crew in a position that does not have a proper seat and restraint?

  1. It is prohibited unless the rules specifically allow it Correct answer.
  2. It is permitted if the flight is short
  3. It is permitted if the aircraft is below 1,000 feet
  4. It is permitted if the person is a qualified pilot

Explanation

Persons may not be carried in a position without a proper seat and restraint system unless the rules specifically permit it. This protects occupants from injury during turbulence or an accident.

Question 43Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What action must a pilot take on becoming aware of an in-flight emergency that may affect the safety of the aircraft or persons on board?

  1. Continue the flight and report at the destination
  2. Wait for ATC to notice the situation
  3. Notify ATC as soon as practicable and declare the emergency if required Correct answer.
  4. Only notify the operator after landing

Explanation

The pilot should notify ATC as soon as practicable and declare an emergency where necessary so assistance and priority can be provided. Early notification allows ATC to clear airspace and coordinate emergency services.

Question 44Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the requirement for an aircraft to be equipped with a serviceable transponder when operating in controlled airspace?

  1. A transponder is optional in all airspace
  2. A transponder is required only at night
  3. A transponder is required only above 10,000 feet
  4. A serviceable transponder is required as specified for the airspace and must be operated as directed Correct answer.

Explanation

The rules require a serviceable transponder for operations in specified controlled airspace, and it must be operated as directed by ATC. This supports radar identification and traffic separation.

Question 45Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

An aircraft is being operated on a flight over a congested area at 1,200 feet above the highest obstacle within 600 metres. A person on the ground is directly below. What minimum horizontal separation applies to that person under the low flying rule?

  1. 300 metres
  2. 50 metres
  3. No separation is required because the height rule is satisfied
  4. 150 metres Correct answer.

Explanation

Even where the congested-area height rule is satisfied, the low flying rule requires at least 150 metres horizontal separation from persons, vessels and structures. The two requirements operate together.

Question 46Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the pilot-in-command's responsibility regarding the loading of an aircraft before flight?

  1. The pilot is responsible only for the fuel load
  2. The pilot need only check the load if passengers are on board
  3. The pilot may rely on the loader's assurance without checking
  4. The pilot must ensure the load is within the mass and balance limits for the flight Correct answer.

Explanation

The pilot-in-command must ensure the aircraft's mass and balance remain within the approved limits for the intended flight, taking account of fuel, payload and loading distribution. Exceeding these limits degrades performance and controllability.

Question 47Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is required before an aircraft may be operated on a flight where the pilot does not hold a current medical certificate?

  1. The pilot may operate if the flight is within New Zealand
  2. The pilot may not exercise the privileges of the licence without a current medical certificate Correct answer.
  3. The pilot may operate for up to 30 days after expiry
  4. The pilot may operate if a colleague is on board

Explanation

A pilot may not exercise the privileges of a licence unless holding a current medical certificate appropriate to those privileges. Operating without one invalidates the licence privileges and is a safety and legal risk.

Question 48Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

What is the requirement for the pilot-in-command to ensure that a flight is not commenced unless the aircraft has sufficient fuel and oil?

  1. The pilot must ensure sufficient fuel and oil for the flight, including reserves required by the rules Correct answer.
  2. Reserves are required only for IFR flights
  3. Fuel planning is the operator's responsibility alone
  4. The pilot may depart with minimum fuel if the flight is short

Explanation

The pilot-in-command must ensure the aircraft carries sufficient fuel and oil for the planned flight plus the reserves required by the rules. Adequate reserves protect against delays, diversions and unexpected headwinds.

Question 49Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

An aircraft is operating under IFR in controlled airspace. What is the minimum fuel reserve that must be planned at the destination under normal conditions?

  1. A reserve sufficient for 10 minutes of holding at the destination
  2. A reserve sufficient for 30 minutes of holding at the destination
  3. A reserve sufficient for 45 minutes of holding at the destination Correct answer.
  4. No reserve is required if an alternate is nominated

Explanation

IFR fuel planning requires a reserve sufficient for 45 minutes of holding at the destination aerodrome under normal conditions. This provides a margin for delays, weather and traffic sequencing.

Question 50Civil Aviation Rules (CARs) - general operating rules

Under the Civil Aviation Rules, what is the minimum height above ground level that an aircraft must generally maintain when flying over a congested area of a city, unless it is taking off or landing?

  1. 1,500 feet
  2. 500 feet
  3. 1,000 feet Correct answer.
  4. 300 feet

Explanation

The general operating rules require an aircraft to be flown at a height that allows it to land clear of the congested area if an engine fails, and in practice this is expressed as a minimum of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a specified radius. Higher minima apply to congested areas than to open country. A pilot must also be able to comply with the emergency landing consideration.