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NCEA Level 2 Geography study materials
NCEA Level 2 Geography study resources

NCEA Level 2 Geography practice questions

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Question 1Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

In the Bradshaw model of river characteristics, how does channel depth change from the source to the mouth?

  1. It decreases downstream as gradient falls
  2. It stays constant because banks are fixed
  3. It increases upstream but decreases at the mouth
  4. It increases downstream as discharge rises Correct answer.

Explanation

The Bradshaw model describes downstream changes in a river's long profile. Depth increases toward the mouth because discharge grows through tributary inputs, so the channel must carry more water. Gradient, load size and bed roughness generally decrease in the same direction.

Question 2Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A river's velocity falls below the critical erosion velocity. What is the most likely result for the sediment previously in transport?

  1. A rise in the river's discharge
  2. Deposition of the coarser load first Correct answer.
  3. Increased bedload erosion downstream
  4. Complete dissolution of the sediment

Explanation

When velocity drops below the threshold needed to keep particles moving, competence falls and sediment settles. Larger, heavier particles require higher velocities, so they are deposited before finer material. This sorting explains downstream fining of river deposits.

Question 3Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which landform is produced by glacial plucking and abrasion on a mountain valley floor and walls?

  1. A U-shaped trough with truncated spurs Correct answer.
  2. A delta with distributaries
  3. A sand dune with a slip face
  4. A meander with a point bar

Explanation

Glaciers erode by plucking and abrasion, deepening and widening pre-glacial valleys into characteristic U-shaped troughs. Truncated spurs form where the ice cuts off interlocking valley spurs. Meanders, deltas and dunes are fluvial or aeolian features.

Question 4Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

What does a country's population pyramid with a broad base and narrow apex indicate?

  1. Low birth rates with high life expectancy
  2. High birth rates with lower life expectancy Correct answer.
  3. A stable population with zero growth
  4. A large elderly dependent population

Explanation

A broad base shows a large proportion of young children, reflecting high fertility. A narrow apex indicates relatively few people survive to old age, consistent with lower life expectancy. This is typical of many developing countries in Stage 2 or early Stage 3 of the demographic transition.

Question 5Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which statement best describes the concept of carrying capacity in population geography?

  1. The rate at which migrants leave a country
  2. The maximum population an environment can support sustainably Correct answer.
  3. The average household size in a region
  4. The total number of births in a given year

Explanation

Carrying capacity is the largest population that a given environment can sustain with available resources and technology without degradation. Exceeding it can cause resource depletion, food shortages or out-migration. It is not a simple count of births or household size.

Question 6Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which combination of factors most directly creates a natural hazard rather than a disaster?

  1. A government policy on land-use zoning
  2. A long-term change in average temperature
  3. A physical event with no human exposure or losses
  4. A physical event occurring where people and assets are exposed Correct answer.

Explanation

A hazard becomes a disaster when a physical event intersects with exposed, vulnerable populations or assets and causes significant loss. Without exposure or vulnerability, the same event remains a natural hazard. Policy and climate trends influence risk but are not the event itself.

Question 7Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

In a GIS, what is the main purpose of overlaying two spatial layers?

  1. To delete attribute tables permanently
  2. To convert raster data into text
  3. To identify where features from both layers coincide Correct answer.
  4. To increase the map's print resolution

Explanation

Overlay analysis combines spatial layers to reveal where their features intersect or share attributes. It is used for site suitability, risk mapping and land-use conflict analysis. Resolution and data deletion are unrelated to overlay operations.

Question 8Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which process transfers heat energy through the direct contact of particles, contributing to local temperature differences in a landscape?

  1. Condensation
  2. Advection
  3. Conduction Correct answer.
  4. Radiation

Explanation

Conduction transfers heat through direct contact between particles, such as warm ground heating the air immediately above it. Advection is horizontal air movement, radiation transfers energy by electromagnetic waves, and condensation is a phase change. Conduction helps explain microclimate variation near surfaces.

Question 9Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A river with a discharge of 120 cubic metres per second has a cross-sectional area of 60 square metres. What is its mean velocity?

  1. 2 metres per second Correct answer.
  2. 0.5 metres per second
  3. 60 metres per second
  4. 7200 metres per second

Explanation

Discharge equals cross-sectional area multiplied by mean velocity (Q = A × v). Rearranging gives v = Q ÷ A, so 120 ÷ 60 = 2 metres per second. This relationship links channel form to flow energy in fluvial studies.

Question 10Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Why do oxbow lakes form on a floodplain?

  1. Wind erodes a hollow in loose sand
  2. A meander neck is cut through and the old loop is abandoned Correct answer.
  3. A delta splits into distributary channels
  4. Glacial ice melts and leaves a kettle hollow

Explanation

Continued lateral erosion on the outer banks of a meander brings two bends closer until the neck is breached. The river then takes the straighter course and deposits sediment to isolate the old loop, forming an oxbow lake. This is a fluvial process on floodplains.

Question 11Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which feature indicates that a valley was glaciated rather than formed by a river?

  1. A meandering channel with levees
  2. A fan-shaped deposit at a valley mouth
  3. A V-shaped valley with interlocking spurs
  4. A steep-sided U-shaped profile with misfit streams Correct answer.

Explanation

Glacial erosion produces wide, steep-sided U-shaped troughs, and after ice retreat small misfit streams occupy the broad floor. Rivers tend to cut narrower V-shaped valleys with interlocking spurs. These contrasting cross-profiles are key evidence in glacial geomorphology.

Question 12Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A coastline has high-energy waves and a steep offshore gradient. Which coastal landform is most likely to develop?

  1. A large spit across an estuary
  2. A wave-cut platform with cliffs Correct answer.
  3. A wide mudflat with salt marsh
  4. A barrier island with lagoons

Explanation

High-energy waves against steep coasts drive strong erosional processes, cutting cliffs and platforms. Depositional features such as mudflats, spits and barrier islands require lower-energy or sheltered conditions. The energy setting therefore determines whether erosion or deposition dominates.

Question 13Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which best explains why a spit may curve inland at its distal end?

  1. Glacial meltwater erodes the spit head
  2. Tectonic uplift raises the spit
  3. Evaporation lowers sea level around the spit
  4. A change in wave direction or a river current deflects deposition Correct answer.

Explanation

Spits grow by longshore drift until they reach a point where wave approach changes or a river current opposes further growth. The distal end then curves inland (a recurved spit) as deposition adjusts to the new energy direction. This reflects the interaction of drift and local currents.

Question 14Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

In the demographic transition model, which stage shows high birth rates and rapidly falling death rates, producing rapid population growth?

  1. Stage 2 Correct answer.
  2. Stage 5
  3. Stage 4
  4. Stage 1

Explanation

Stage 2 has high fertility alongside falling mortality due to improved medicine, sanitation and food supply. The widening gap between births and deaths causes rapid natural increase. Stage 1 has high mortality too, while Stages 4 and 5 have low birth and death rates.

Question 15Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A country's population is 40 million, with 800,000 births and 400,000 deaths in a year. What is the natural increase rate per 1000?

  1. 20 per 1000
  2. 40 per 1000
  3. 2 per 1000
  4. 10 per 1000 Correct answer.

Explanation

Natural increase equals births minus deaths: 800,000 − 400,000 = 400,000. Dividing by population (40 million) and multiplying by 1000 gives (400,000 ÷ 40,000,000) × 1000 = 10 per 1000. This rate excludes migration effects.

Question 16Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which push factor most directly drives rural-to-urban migration in many developing countries?

  1. Strict urban immigration laws
  2. Mechanisation reducing farm labour demand Correct answer.
  3. Improved rural healthcare services
  4. Higher urban housing costs

Explanation

Push factors drive people away from their origin. Mechanisation of agriculture reduces rural employment, encouraging movement to cities. Improved rural services would be a pull to stay, while urban costs and laws act as constraints at the destination rather than rural pushes.

Question 17Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

What does the Human Development Index (HDI) combine?

  1. Life expectancy, education and income indicators Correct answer.
  2. Land area, population and density
  3. Rainfall, temperature and soil type
  4. Birth rate, death rate and migration rate

Explanation

HDI summarises development using three dimensions: health (life expectancy), education (mean and expected years of schooling) and standard of living (gross national income per capita). It is a composite measure rather than a single economic figure. Demographic rates and physical variables are separate measures.

Question 18Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which factor most increases a community's vulnerability to a natural hazard?

  1. Poorly enforced building codes in a seismic zone Correct answer.
  2. Strong emergency response planning
  3. Diverse income sources and savings
  4. Early-warning systems and evacuation drills

Explanation

Vulnerability depends on exposure and the capacity to cope. Weak building codes in an earthquake zone raise the likelihood of collapse and casualties. Preparedness measures such as warnings, drills and savings reduce vulnerability rather than increase it.

Question 19Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Why is a hazard event of the same magnitude likely to cause more deaths in a low-income country than in a high-income country?

  1. More extensive monitoring networks
  2. Greater use of insurance schemes
  3. Higher exposure of wealthy households
  4. Lower investment in mitigation and emergency infrastructure Correct answer.

Explanation

Disaster losses reflect vulnerability as well as hazard magnitude. Lower-income countries often have less investment in building standards, warning systems and emergency services, so the same event causes more casualties. Wealthier households and insurance do not explain higher death tolls.

Question 20Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which statement best explains the rain shadow effect?

  1. High pressure over mountains forces air to rise and condense
  2. Moist air rises over a range, cools and rains, leaving the leeward side dry Correct answer.
  3. Cold ocean currents warm the air on the leeward side
  4. Warm air sinks over the windward slope and gains moisture

Explanation

Air forced to rise over a mountain range cools adiabatically, condenses and releases precipitation on the windward side. As it descends the leeward slope it warms and dries, creating a rain shadow. This orographic process explains sharp rainfall contrasts across ranges.

Question 21Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A settlement grows at a transport node where two valleys meet. Which factor best explains its location?

  1. Poor soil drainage
  2. Cold prevailing winds
  3. High seismic risk
  4. Accessibility and route convergence Correct answer.

Explanation

Settlement site factors include access to routes, water and resources. A valley junction and transport node offer route convergence, encouraging trade, services and population growth. Hazard, climate and drainage factors would more likely discourage settlement.

Question 22Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A coastal aquifer is pumped faster than it recharges, and nearby wells begin drawing salty water. What process is occurring?

  1. Longshore drift removing beach sand
  2. Glacial retreat exposing bedrock
  3. Isostatic rebound lifting the aquifer
  4. Saltwater intrusion caused by a falling freshwater table Correct answer.

Explanation

Over-abstraction lowers the freshwater table, allowing denser seawater to move inland into the aquifer. This saltwater intrusion degrades water quality for wells. Rebound, drift and glacial retreat do not explain saline well water from pumping.

Question 23Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Two catchments have the same rainfall, but one has urban impermeable surfaces and drains. How will its hydrograph most likely differ?

  1. A longer lag time and greater baseflow
  2. A higher, earlier peak flow with a steeper rising limb Correct answer.
  3. A lower, later peak flow with a gentler rising limb
  4. No change to peak flow or lag time

Explanation

Impermeable surfaces and drains reduce infiltration, so water reaches the channel quickly. This shortens lag time and raises peak discharge, producing a flashier hydrograph. Vegetated catchments store and slowly release water, giving lower, later peaks.

Question 24Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Why does a high-magnitude flood sometimes cause less geomorphic change than a moderate flood of longer duration?

  1. Peak discharge alone always determines erosion
  2. Moderate floods cannot move bedload
  3. Longer floods carry no sediment
  4. Total work depends on flow duration as well as peak discharge Correct answer.

Explanation

Geomorphic work depends on the total energy expended over time, which combines discharge and duration. A long moderate flood can move more sediment and reshape a channel than a brief high peak. Peak discharge alone is an incomplete measure of channel change.

Question 25Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A hazard map shows high risk where high probability overlaps high population density. Which concept does this illustrate?

  1. Risk as a purely physical measure of magnitude
  2. Risk as independent of exposure
  3. Risk as identical to the return period
  4. Risk as the product of hazard and vulnerability Correct answer.

Explanation

Risk assessment combines the likelihood of a hazard with the exposure and vulnerability of people and assets. High probability alone is not high risk if no one is exposed. Return period describes frequency, and magnitude describes event size, not risk.

Question 26Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

In the demographic transition model, which combination of birth and death rates best describes Stage 4?

  1. Low birth rates and rising death rates, giving natural decrease
  2. High birth rates and high death rates, giving a stable population
  3. High birth rates and falling death rates, giving rapid natural increase
  4. Low birth rates and low death rates, giving a stable or slowly declining population Correct answer.

Explanation

Stage 4 is reached when both birth and death rates have fallen to low levels, so natural increase is small and total population is large but stable. Stage 1 has high rates at both ends, and Stage 2 has birth rates still high while death rates fall.

Question 27Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A country has a population of 25 million, an annual natural increase rate of 1.6%, and net migration of −60,000 people. What is its total population change for the year?

  1. +460,000,000
  2. +340,000 Correct answer.
  3. +400,000
  4. +460,000

Explanation

Natural increase is 1.6% of 25 million, which is 400,000. Net migration of −60,000 is then subtracted, giving a total change of 340,000.

Question 28Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which measure of population structure shows the number of dependants relative to the working-age population?

  1. Population density
  2. Dependency ratio Correct answer.
  3. Doubling time
  4. Natural increase rate

Explanation

The dependency ratio compares the number of people outside the working-age group (children and elderly) with those inside it. It is usually expressed as dependants per 100 people of working age.

Question 29Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A city's population grows because migrants arrive from rural areas and because young migrants have children after settling. Which term describes the growth caused by the arrival of migrants?

  1. Net migration Correct answer.
  2. Population momentum
  3. Natural increase
  4. Fertility transition

Explanation

Net migration is the balance of immigration minus emigration, so growth from arriving migrants is migration-driven. Natural increase refers only to the balance of births over deaths.

Question 30Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A rural region loses young adults to a distant city, leaving a high proportion of elderly residents. Which consequence is most directly expected in the source region?

  1. An increase in the working-age population
  2. A rapid rise in the birth rate
  3. A fall in the median age of the population
  4. A rising dependency ratio and reduced local workforce Correct answer.

Explanation

Out-migration of young adults removes workers and leaves children and elderly behind, so the dependency ratio rises. The median age also rises rather than falls.

Question 31Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Why does a population pyramid with a broad base and narrow top indicate a population with high growth potential?

  1. Migration is balancing births and deaths
  2. Death rates are high among the elderly
  3. A large cohort of children will soon reach reproductive age and have children Correct answer.
  4. The population has already completed its demographic transition

Explanation

A broad base means many people are in the youngest age groups. As these children grow up, the number of potential parents increases, so births can remain high even if fertility per woman falls.

Question 32Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which statement best describes the difference between weather and climate?

  1. Weather is measured only by temperature, while climate is measured only by rainfall
  2. Weather is the state of the atmosphere over short periods, while climate is the long-term average pattern Correct answer.
  3. Weather is a permanent condition, while climate changes from day to day
  4. Weather occurs only over oceans, while climate occurs only over land

Explanation

Weather describes short-term atmospheric conditions such as today's temperature and rainfall. Climate is the average pattern of weather over a long period, typically 30 years or more.

Question 33Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Air is forced to rise over a mountain range, cools, and releases rain on the windward side. What causes the drier conditions on the leeward side?

  1. The leeward side receives more direct solar radiation
  2. The air has lost most of its moisture and warms as it descends Correct answer.
  3. The leeward side is closer to the sea
  4. The air becomes colder as it descends and holds more moisture

Explanation

By the time air crosses the ridge it has lost much of its moisture as rain on the windward slope. As it descends it warms, which lowers relative humidity, so little rain falls on the leeward side.

Question 34Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which factor most strongly increases the discharge of a river after a storm in a steep, sparsely vegetated catchment?

  1. High infiltration because soils are deep
  2. Slow throughflow because the slope is steep
  3. Large storage in wetlands on the floodplain
  4. Rapid runoff because water moves quickly over the surface Correct answer.

Explanation

Steep slopes and little vegetation reduce the time water spends infiltrating and being stored. Water therefore reaches the channel quickly as surface runoff, producing a high, flashy discharge peak.

Question 35Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

What is the main reason that urbanisation increases flood risk in a catchment?

  1. Building on floodplains lowers the water table
  2. Impermeable surfaces reduce infiltration and speed runoff into drains Correct answer.
  3. Urban areas always receive more rainfall than rural areas
  4. Vegetation cover increases interception of rainfall

Explanation

Concrete and tarmac prevent water soaking into the ground, so a larger proportion of rainfall becomes surface runoff. Drains deliver this water rapidly to streams, raising and steepening the flood peak.

Question 36Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

In a drainage basin, what does the term lag time describe?

  1. The time taken for a river to reach the sea
  2. The delay between peak rainfall and peak river discharge Correct answer.
  3. The time a raindrop takes to fall to the ground
  4. The period between two successive floods

Explanation

Lag time is measured from the peak of a rainfall event to the peak of the resulting hydrograph. A short lag time indicates a flashy catchment that responds quickly to rain.

Question 37Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which statement correctly describes the process of longshore drift?

  1. Sediment is moved along the shore by waves approaching at an angle Correct answer.
  2. Sediment is deposited where a river meets the sea
  3. Sediment is carried offshore by rip currents
  4. Sediment is lifted by wind and deposited inland

Explanation

Waves approaching the coast at an angle push sediment up the beach at that angle, and backwash returns it at right angles to the shore. The net result is movement of sediment along the coastline.

Question 38Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A stretch of coast has a wide beach, constructive waves, and a gentle offshore gradient. Which landform is most likely to form there?

  1. A sea stack and arch
  2. A high rocky cliff with a wave-cut platform
  3. A sandy beach with a berm Correct answer.
  4. A blowhole in a headland

Explanation

Constructive waves have a strong swash and weak backwash, so they build up sediment on gently sloping shores. The result is a wide sandy beach, often with a berm at the high-tide line.

Question 39Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Why does a coastal sand dune usually have a steeper leeward face than a windward face?

  1. Rain erodes the windward side more strongly
  2. Sand is blown up the windward slope and deposited where the wind slows over the crest Correct answer.
  3. Waves wash sand up the leeward side
  4. The leeward side is compacted by trampling

Explanation

Sand is carried up the gentle windward slope and dropped when the wind loses energy after the crest. This builds a steep slip face on the sheltered leeward side, giving dunes their asymmetric profile.

Question 40Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which process is the main way that a glacier erodes the valley floor beneath it?

  1. Abrasion by rock fragments embedded in the base of the ice Correct answer.
  2. Chemical solution of limestone by meltwater
  3. Hydraulic action of waves
  4. Wind deflation of loose sediment

Explanation

Rock debris frozen into the base of a glacier acts like sandpaper, grinding and smoothing the bedrock as the ice moves. This abrasion deepens and widens the valley into a U-shape.

Question 41Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which feature is characteristic of a glaciated upland landscape?

  1. A sand spit across an estuary
  2. A meander belt on a wide floodplain
  3. A delta at the river mouth
  4. A hanging valley with a waterfall where a tributary meets the main valley Correct answer.

Explanation

Hanging valleys form where a smaller glacial tributary joins a deeper main valley, leaving the tributary floor above the main floor. A waterfall often marks the junction after the ice retreats.

Question 42Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which factor most directly determines the magnitude of a volcanic eruption's impact on nearby settlements?

  1. The average annual rainfall of the region
  2. The height of the nearest mountain range
  3. The proximity of settlements to the vent and the direction of prevailing winds Correct answer.
  4. The number of tourists visiting the region each year

Explanation

Distance from the vent controls exposure to lava flows, pyroclastic flows, and ash fall, while wind direction determines where ash is carried. Together these strongly shape the hazard footprint.

Question 43Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

At which plate boundary are shallow earthquakes, a mid-ocean ridge, and new oceanic crust most likely to be found?

  1. A divergent boundary Correct answer.
  2. A transform boundary
  3. A subduction zone
  4. A convergent boundary

Explanation

Divergent boundaries occur where plates move apart, allowing magma to rise and form new crust along a mid-ocean ridge. Earthquakes there are shallow because the crust is thin and hot.

Question 44Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which statement best explains why a tsunami can travel across an ocean with little loss of energy?

  1. It travels only through the atmosphere
  2. It is a wind-driven wave that stays on the surface
  3. It is a tidal wave caused by the moon's gravity
  4. Its long wavelength means it moves as a shallow-water wave with little drag on the deep sea floor Correct answer.

Explanation

A tsunami has a very long wavelength and small height in deep water, so it behaves as a shallow-water wave and the whole water column moves. Because the water is deep relative to the wave, there is little friction and energy loss.

Question 45Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A town is located on a floodplain below steep hills and has experienced repeated floods. Which combination of factors best explains its high flood risk?

  1. Low rainfall and flat land far from rivers
  2. A coastal location with strong longshore drift
  3. High rainfall runoff from steep slopes combined with buildings on the floodplain Correct answer.
  4. Deep soils and dense forest cover

Explanation

Steep slopes generate rapid runoff that reaches the river quickly, while building on the floodplain places people and property directly in the path of floodwater. Risk is high when hazard and exposure coincide.

Question 46Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

What does a return period of 100 years for a flood mean?

  1. A flood of that size will occur exactly once every 100 years
  2. No flood of that size will occur for 100 years after one happens
  3. On average, a flood of that size is expected once every 100 years, but it could occur in any year Correct answer.
  4. The flood will last for 100 years

Explanation

A return period is a long-term average probability, not a schedule. A 100-year flood has about a 1% chance of occurring in any given year, so two such floods can occur close together.

Question 47Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which factor most increases the vulnerability of a community to a natural hazard?

  1. A high level of household insurance cover
  2. Well-maintained evacuation routes
  3. Regular community hazard drills
  4. Poorly enforced building codes and limited emergency planning Correct answer.

Explanation

Vulnerability is the degree to which people and assets are exposed and unable to cope. Weak building codes and poor planning mean structures fail and responses are slow, raising losses for the same hazard.

Question 48Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

A GIS analyst overlays a flood-risk layer with a population-density layer to identify priority areas. Which concept does this best illustrate?

  1. Remote sensing of land cover
  2. Spatial analysis of hazard and exposure Correct answer.
  3. Cartographic generalisation
  4. Global positioning of field data

Explanation

Overlaying two layers to find where hazard and population coincide is spatial analysis. It identifies areas of high risk where exposure is greatest.

Question 49Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which statement best describes the purpose of a choropleth map in geography?

  1. To show the height of land using contour lines
  2. To show the location of individual points using symbols
  3. To show average values for defined areas using shading or colour Correct answer.
  4. To show the exact path of a river

Explanation

A choropleth map shades whole regions according to a value such as population density or unemployment. It is suited to data collected for administrative areas rather than continuous surfaces.

Question 50Geography achievement standards (Level 2)

Which process best explains why a river's load becomes smaller and more rounded downstream?

  1. Deposition of large boulders in the upper course
  2. Wind erosion of exposed bedrock
  3. Attrition as particles collide and wear each other down during transport Correct answer.
  4. Chemical precipitation of dissolved minerals

Explanation

As material is carried downstream it collides with other particles and the channel bed, breaking into smaller and smoother fragments. This process is called attrition.