CAAP Flight Dispatcher cheat sheet

CAAP issues Flight Dispatcher Licenses under PCAR Part 2; eligibility requires at least 21 years of age, a valid Class 2 medical, English proficiency, and passing the CAAP written and practical dispatch examinations.

PCAR Part 8 governs operations specifications and certification of air operators; the dispatch/flight-following organization is defined in the operations manual approved under the AOC.

ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing) sets the dispatcher licensing standard; Annex 6 Part I requires an operational control system and names the flight dispatcher as jointly responsible with the PIC for flight release.

Flight time limitations under PCAR Part 8 follow the operator's approved scheme; dispatchers are subject to duty and rest limits in the manual, not the flight crew FTL tables.

ICAO Annex 6 requires the operator to provide the pilot-in-command with a flight release/flight plan signed by the dispatcher and PIC, or equivalent electronic record, before departure.

PCAR Part 1 contains definitions (operational control, flight following, dispatch release); Part 4 covers aircraft registration and airworthiness; Part 11 covers ATS rules of the air.

CAAP Airworthiness Directives and Advisory Circulars are mandatory or advisory as stated; compliance with ADs is a condition of the Certificate of Airworthiness.

ICAO Annex 19 SMS framework requires four components: safety policy and objectives, safety risk management, safety assurance, and safety promotion; CAAP adopts this via PCAR Part 8 SMS requirements.

A dispatcher's license is validated by CAAP; ratings or endorsements may be required per aircraft type or operator, and currency/recurrent training is defined in the approved training program.

The ICAO ATS flight plan must be filed at least 60 minutes before departure for IFR flights, or 30 minutes for VFR, unless the ATS unit accepts otherwise; the operator's dispatch release is separate from the ATS plan.

Fuel, alternate, and route selection must satisfy both the operator's approved minimums and the aircraft's MEL/CDL limitations; the flight plan must show the alternate(s) and the fuel required for each segment.

Equal-time point (ETP) between two suitable airfields: time to ETP = total time between fields x (GS out / (GS out + GS back)); the point where time to either field is equal.

Point of no return (PNR) based on fuel: distance to PNR = (total fuel available for the leg x GS out x GS back) / (GS out + GS back) adjusted for reserves.

Drift and heading: heading = track +/- wind correction angle; WCA = arcsin((wind speed / TAS) x sin(wind angle to track)); ground speed = TAS x cos(WCA) - headwind component.

The operational flight plan (OFP) must be signed by the dispatcher and PIC; any amendment in flight is coordinated via the dispatch/flight-following function and recorded.

ETOPS/EDTO planning requires en-route alternates within the approved diversion time; the dispatch release must list EDTO alternates and their weather minima.

Redispatch/reexamination point allows reduced fuel if weather at the redispatch point and destination meets specified criteria; the flight plan must show the redispatch point and required fuel.

Trip fuel = fuel from takeoff to landing at destination via the planned route; taxi fuel is separate; contingency fuel is typically 5% of trip fuel (or 3% with approved statistical methods).

Reserve fuel = alternate fuel + final reserve; final reserve for turbine aircraft is fuel for 30 minutes holding at 1,500 ft above the alternate (or destination if no alternate).

Additional fuel is required when the fuel needed for a change in flight plan (e.g., depressurization, engine failure) exceeds contingency + alternate + final reserve.

Taxi fuel is not included in trip fuel; it must be sufficient for APU and taxi at departure and destination; it is not counted as usable for the flight.

Load control: LMC (last-minute change) must be assessed for CG, structural limits, and performance; the loadsheet must be re-issued if the change exceeds the operator's threshold.

Basic operating weight (BOW) = empty weight + crew + crew baggage + catering + potable water; dry operating weight excludes takeoff fuel.

Zero fuel weight (ZFW) = BOW + payload; MZFW is a structural limit; takeoff weight = ZFW + takeoff fuel; landing weight = takeoff weight - trip fuel.

Fuel density: Jet A-1 nominal 0.80 kg/L (range 0.775-0.840); temperature affects density; volume-to-mass conversion must use the actual or standard density per the operator's procedure.

Loadsheet must show: BOW, ZFW, takeoff fuel, takeoff weight, trip fuel, landing weight, and CG position; the dispatcher verifies the loadsheet against the OFP before release.

TAF validity is typically 24-30 hours; the trend group (BECMG, TEMPO) describes expected changes; TEMPO changes are temporary and not used for alternate planning.

METAR is the routine observation; SPECI is issued on significant change; both use the same code: wind, visibility, RVR, weather, cloud, temperature/dewpoint, QNH, trend.

Alternate minima: for a precision approach, ceiling and visibility must be at or above the operator's approved alternate minima; a TAF must cover the period of use with a BECMG/TEMPO considered as forecast.

Thunderstorm avoidance: do not penetrate a cell with radar reflectivity above ~40 dBZ; maintain at least 20 nm from severe cells; use the 20 nm rule for cumulonimbus tops above the aircraft's ceiling.

Wind shear and microburst alerts (LLWAS, TDWR) require a go-around or avoidance; a microburst alert indicates a 30 kt or greater loss of airspeed within 1 nm.

QNH is the altimeter setting referenced to sea level; QFE is referenced to the aerodrome elevation; QNE is the standard 1013.25 hPa used above the transition altitude.

Icing: forecast icing is reported as light, moderate, or severe; severe icing requires immediate exit; the freezing level and the 0°C isotherm must be plotted on the flight plan.

Volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisories (SIGMET) are mandatory for route planning; the dispatcher must reroute or delay flights when a SIGMET affects the route.

V1 is the decision speed; Vr is rotation; V2 is takeoff safety speed; Vref is the landing reference speed (typically 1.3 x Vso).

Takeoff performance must satisfy: accelerate-stop distance, accelerate-go distance (one engine inoperative), and takeoff distance; the most limiting governs.

Landing performance: landing distance available (LDA) must be at least the landing distance required (factored by 1.67 for dry, 1.92 for wet, or per the operator's approved method).

Obstacle clearance: the net takeoff flight path must clear all obstacles by 35 ft vertically (or 200 ft horizontally); the second-segment climb gradient is 2.4% for two-engine, 2.7% for three-engine, 3.0% for four-engine.

CG limits: forward CG increases stall speed and reduces elevator authority; aft CG reduces stability and can cause pitch-up; the dispatcher must ensure the loadsheet CG is within the certified envelope.

Density altitude = pressure altitude + 120 x (OAT - ISA temperature); high density altitude reduces performance; the flight plan must account for it.

Maximum takeoff weight (MTOW) is limited by structural, field length, climb, obstacle, and tire speed; the actual takeoff weight must not exceed the most limiting.

Balance: the CG position is calculated as sum of (weight x arm) / total weight; the loadsheet must show the CG within the forward and aft limits for takeoff and landing.

VOR provides magnetic bearing (radial); DME provides slant range; TACAN is military; VOR/DME co-located gives rho-theta position; the CDI shows course deviation, not aircraft heading.

NDB/ADF: the ADF needle points to the station; the relative bearing plus magnetic heading equals magnetic bearing to the station.

ILS: localizer provides lateral guidance (108-112 MHz); glideslope provides vertical guidance (329-335 MHz); the decision altitude (DA) is referenced to the barometric altimeter; the marker beacons and DME provide fixes.

RNAV/GNSS: RNP AR approaches require special authorization; the dispatcher must verify the aircraft and crew are approved for the route and approach.

RVSM: 1,000 ft vertical separation between FL290 and FL410; the aircraft must be RVSM-approved and the altimetry system within tolerance; the flight plan must show the RVSM status.

Reduced vertical separation and MNPS: North Atlantic MNPS requires 1,000 ft separation and specific equipment; the dispatcher must check the aircraft's approval.

ATS flight plan (ICAO format) includes aircraft identification, type, wake category, route, level, speed, and EET; the dispatcher must ensure the plan matches the OFP.

Position reporting: the dispatcher must monitor the flight's progress via ADS-C, ADS-B, or voice reports; a missed report requires action per the operator's procedures.

The dispatch release must include: aircraft identification, route, altitude, fuel, alternate(s), weather, NOTAMs, MEL/CDL items, and the signature of the dispatcher and PIC.

Before departure, the dispatcher must verify: weather at departure, destination, and alternate; NOTAMs; aircraft airworthiness and MEL; crew qualifications and duty limits.

In-flight, the dispatcher monitors the flight and provides information on weather, NOTAMs, and ATS; the dispatcher must coordinate any change with the PIC.

The dispatcher must not release a flight if the destination or alternate weather is below the approved minima, unless a re-dispatch or other approved procedure applies.

Emergency: the dispatcher must declare an emergency, notify ATS and the operator's emergency response, and provide assistance to the crew; the emergency response plan (ERP) must be activated.

MEL: a flight may be dispatched with an MEL item only if the item is in the approved MEL and the associated conditions are met; the dispatcher must verify the MEL item and the crew's acceptance.

CDL: configuration deviation list items affect performance; the dispatcher must verify the CDL item and its performance penalty.

Duty time: the dispatcher must track the crew's flight and duty time; a flight must not be released if it would exceed the crew's duty limits.

Pitot-static system: the airspeed indicator uses pitot and static; the altimeter and VSI use static; a blocked pitot causes the ASI to act like an altimeter; a blocked static causes the ASI, altimeter, and VSI to be unreliable.

Gyroscopic instruments: the attitude indicator and heading indicator are vacuum- or electrically-driven; the turn coordinator is electrically-driven; precession and rigidity are key properties.

Air data computer (ADC) provides altitude, airspeed, and temperature to the flight management system; the dispatcher must be aware of ADC failures and their effect on the flight plan.

Fuel system: the dispatcher must know the fuel tank capacity, unusable fuel, and the fuel burn schedule; a fuel imbalance can affect CG and handling.

Hydraulic and electrical systems: a failure can affect the aircraft's ability to fly the planned route; the dispatcher must check the MEL for the affected system.

Pressurization: the cabin altitude must be maintained below 8,000 ft; a pressurization failure requires an emergency descent and a diversion to a suitable airfield.

Anti-ice and de-ice: the dispatcher must ensure the aircraft is approved for the forecast icing conditions; known icing requires the aircraft to be equipped and the crew to be trained.

Autoland and CAT II/III: the aircraft must be approved and the crew current; the dispatcher must verify the airport's low-visibility procedures (LVP) are in effect.

ICAO Technical Instructions (TI) and IATA DGR govern the carriage of dangerous goods; the operator must have an approved DG manual and trained personnel.

Dangerous goods are classified into nine classes: explosives, gases, flammable liquids, flammable solids, oxidizers, toxic, radioactive, corrosive, and miscellaneous.

The shipper is responsible for classification, packing, marking, labeling, and documentation; the operator is responsible for acceptance checks and loading.

The NOTOC (notification to captain) must be provided to the PIC before departure; it lists the dangerous goods on board, their location, and the class.

Forbidden dangerous goods must not be carried; the operator must have a procedure to reject them; the dispatcher must verify the NOTOC is complete.

Radioactive materials require special approval and dose-rate limits; the dispatcher must verify the shipment is approved and the NOTOC is correct.

DG training is required every 24 months; the dispatcher must be trained in DG acceptance and the operator's DG procedures.

Emergency response: the dispatcher must have access to the DG emergency response guide (ERG) and the operator's DG emergency procedures.

The emergency response plan (ERP) must include: notification of ATS, the operator's emergency response team, the family assistance team, and the accident investigation authority.

The dispatcher's role in an emergency: declare the emergency, provide information to the crew, notify the operator's ERP, and record all actions and times.

SMS: the four components are safety policy, safety risk management, safety assurance, and safety promotion; the dispatcher must report hazards and incidents through the SMS.

Safety risk assessment: risk = likelihood x severity; the dispatcher must use the operator's risk matrix and document the assessment.

Accident/incident reporting: the operator must report to CAAP and the ATSB (or the national authority) within the prescribed time; the dispatcher must preserve records.

Emergency descent: the crew will descend to 10,000 ft or the minimum safe altitude; the dispatcher must provide the nearest suitable airfield and weather.

Hijack/unlawful interference: the dispatcher must follow the operator's procedures and notify ATS and the security authority; the transponder code 7500 is used.

Radio failure: the dispatcher must attempt contact via secondary means and follow the ATS procedures for radio failure (e.g., the 7600 code).

Human factors: fatigue, stress, and workload affect the dispatcher's performance; the dispatcher must manage rest and duty time per the operator's FTL scheme.

SHELL model: Software, Hardware, Environment, Liveware; the dispatcher must consider the interaction between the dispatcher, the crew, and the systems.

CRM: the dispatcher is part of the crew resource management; communication must be clear, concise, and closed-loop (readback).

Situational awareness: the dispatcher must maintain a mental model of the flight's progress and anticipate problems; a loss of situational awareness can lead to an unsafe release.

Communication: use standard phraseology; the phonetic alphabet; the dispatcher must confirm all critical information with a readback.

Decision-making: the dispatcher must use a structured decision-making process (e.g., FORDEC) and document the decision.

Error management: the dispatcher must recognize and mitigate errors; a just culture encourages reporting without fear of punishment.

Stress and fatigue: the dispatcher must recognize the signs and take action; the operator must provide a fatigue risk management system (FRMS) if approved.

The emergency response plan (ERP) must include: notification of ATS, the operator's emergency response team, the family assistance team, and the accident investigation authority.

The dispatcher's role in an emergency: declare the emergency, provide information to the crew, notify the operator's ERP, and record all actions and times.

SMS: the four components are safety policy, safety risk management, safety assurance, and safety promotion; the dispatcher must report hazards and incidents through the SMS.

Safety risk assessment: risk = likelihood x severity; the dispatcher must use the operator's risk matrix and document the assessment.

Accident/incident reporting: the operator must report to CAAP and the ATSB (or the national authority) within the prescribed time; the dispatcher must preserve records.

Emergency descent: the crew will descend to 10,000 ft or the minimum safe altitude; the dispatcher must provide the nearest suitable airfield and weather.

Hijack/unlawful interference: the dispatcher must follow the operator's procedures and notify ATS and the security authority; the transponder code 7500 is used.

Radio failure: the dispatcher must attempt contact via secondary means and follow the ATS procedures for radio failure (e.g., the 7600 code).