CAAP Flight Dispatcher flashcards

32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.

Dispatcher license age minimum

Under PCAR Part 2, a CAAP Flight Dispatcher License applicant must be at least 21 years old and hold a valid Class 2 medical certificate.

Operational control definition

The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion, or termination of a flight, shared by the dispatcher and the pilot-in-command under the operator's approved system.

ICAO Annex 6 flight release

Annex 6 requires the operator to provide the PIC with a flight release or equivalent signed by the dispatcher and PIC before departure, documenting the flight plan and fuel.

SMS four components

Safety policy and objectives, safety risk management, safety assurance, and safety promotion; these form the ICAO Annex 19 framework adopted by CAAP.

Equal-time point formula

Time to ETP equals total time between the two airfields multiplied by ground speed out divided by the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back.

Wind correction angle

WCA equals arcsin of (wind speed divided by TAS) times sin of the wind angle to track; heading equals track plus or minus WCA.

ATS flight plan filing time

Under ICAO rules, an IFR flight plan must be filed at least 60 minutes before departure, or 30 minutes for VFR, unless the ATS unit accepts otherwise.

Point of no return fuel

Distance to PNR equals fuel available for the leg times ground speed out times ground speed back, divided by the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back.

Contingency fuel percentage

Contingency fuel is normally 5 percent of trip fuel, or 3 percent when the operator uses an approved statistical method to assess route fuel variability.

Final reserve fuel

For turbine aircraft, fuel for 30 minutes holding at 1,500 ft above the alternate aerodrome, or above the destination when no alternate is required.

Zero fuel weight

Basic operating weight plus payload; it excludes takeoff fuel and must not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight structural limit.

Jet A-1 nominal density

Jet A-1 nominal density is 0.80 kg per litre, with an allowable range of about 0.775 to 0.840; volume-to-mass conversion uses actual or standard density.

Alternate weather minima rule

The destination alternate must have a forecast ceiling and visibility at or above the operator's approved alternate minima for the period of use, including BECMG changes.

QNH versus QFE

QNH is the altimeter setting referenced to sea level, while QFE is referenced to the aerodrome elevation; QNE is the standard 1013.25 hPa used above transition altitude.

Microburst alert meaning

A microburst alert indicates a 30 knot or greater loss of airspeed within one nautical mile; the crew must avoid the area or go around.

SIGMET volcanic ash

A SIGMET advises of volcanic ash or tropical cyclone hazards affecting the route; the dispatcher must reroute or delay the flight when one applies.

V1 decision speed

V1 is the speed at which the crew decides to continue or reject the takeoff; it must allow the aircraft to stop or to continue safely with one engine inoperative.

Net takeoff flight path gradient

The second-segment climb gradient is 2.4 percent for two-engine, 2.7 percent for three-engine, and 3.0 percent for four-engine aircraft, clearing obstacles by 35 ft.

Density altitude formula

Density altitude equals pressure altitude plus 120 times the difference between the outside air temperature and the ISA temperature at that altitude.

Landing distance factor

The landing distance available must be at least the required landing distance multiplied by 1.67 for a dry runway or 1.92 for a wet runway, unless otherwise approved.

VOR radial versus bearing

A VOR radial is the magnetic bearing from the station; the CDI shows course deviation, not aircraft heading, and DME provides slant range to the station.

ILS localizer and glideslope

The localizer provides lateral guidance on 108 to 112 MHz, while the glideslope provides vertical guidance on 329 to 335 MHz; the decision altitude uses the barometric altimeter.

RVSM vertical separation

Reduced vertical separation minimum applies between FL290 and FL410 with 1,000 ft separation; the aircraft must be RVSM-approved and the altimetry system within tolerance.

ADF relative bearing

The ADF needle points to the station; relative bearing plus magnetic heading equals the magnetic bearing to the station.

Dispatch release contents

The release must show aircraft identification, route, altitude, fuel, alternates, weather, NOTAMs, MEL and CDL items, and the signatures of the dispatcher and PIC.

MEL dispatch condition

A flight may be dispatched with an MEL item only if it is in the approved MEL and all associated conditions and performance penalties are met and accepted by the crew.

Blocked static port effect

A blocked static port makes the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator unreliable, while a blocked pitot causes the airspeed indicator to act like an altimeter.

Cabin altitude limit

Cabin altitude must be maintained below 8,000 ft; a pressurization failure requires an emergency descent and diversion to a suitable airfield.

Dangerous goods classes

The nine ICAO classes are explosives, gases, flammable liquids, flammable solids, oxidizers, toxic substances, radioactive material, corrosives, and miscellaneous dangerous goods.

NOTOC requirement

The notification to captain must be given to the PIC before departure and lists the dangerous goods on board, their location, and their class.

Safety risk formula

Risk equals likelihood multiplied by severity; the dispatcher must use the operator's risk matrix and document the assessment in the SMS.

Emergency transponder codes

Code 7700 indicates a general emergency, 7600 indicates radio failure, and 7500 indicates unlawful interference or hijack; the dispatcher notifies ATS accordingly.