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Question 1Ethics and Law

A public official suing a public relations firm for defamation over a statement about her official conduct must prove which element to prevail?

  1. Ill will or spite toward the official
  2. Knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard Correct answer.
  3. Ordinary negligence in failing to verify the statement
  4. Actual financial harm from the statement

Explanation

Under the actual malice standard of New York Times Co. v. Sullivan, public officials and public figures must prove the defendant knew the statement was false or acted with reckless disregard for its truth. Negligence and personal ill will are not enough, and financial harm alone does not establish the required fault.

Question 2Ethics and Law

A public relations agency is retained by a trade association while the agency's owner also holds a paid board seat at a competitor of the association. Under the PRSA Code of Ethics, what is the most appropriate action?

  1. Keep the board seat private as unrelated to the work
  2. Disclose the conflict and how it will be managed Correct answer.
  3. Donate the board compensation to charity to neutralize the conflict
  4. Resign the board seat immediately without informing the client

Explanation

The PRSA Code's conflict-of-interest provision requires members to disclose competing loyalties and resolve them in the client's interest, including through recusal or a management plan. Concealment, unilateral resignation, or charitable offsets do not satisfy the duty of transparency.

Question 3Ethics and Law

Under the FTC's Endorsement Guides, how should a public relations firm disclose that a social media influencer received free products and payment for a post?

  1. By placing #sponsored among a long block of unrelated hashtags
  2. By disclosing the connection only if a follower asks directly
  3. By relying on the influencer's profile bio to state the sponsorship
  4. By using a clear and conspicuous disclosure near the endorsement itself Correct answer.

Explanation

The FTC requires material connections between an endorser and an advertiser to be disclosed clearly and conspicuously, close to the endorsement, in language consumers understand. Disclosures buried in hashtag blocks or available only on request are insufficient.

Question 4Ethics and Law

A PR team wants to use a popular song in a promotional video for a client. The team has no license and argues the use is fair because the clip is brief. Which analysis is most accurate?

  1. The use is fair because any excerpt under thirty seconds is automatically permitted
  2. The use is permitted because the song was broadcast on public radio
  3. The use is permitted if the client owns the video's master recording
  4. It likely infringes because the use is commercial and not transformative Correct answer.

Explanation

Fair use weighs purpose and character, amount used, and market effect; a short commercial promotional use that merely borrows the song's appeal is not transformative and can harm the licensing market. There is no automatic duration safe harbor, and owning the video does not grant rights to the underlying composition.

Question 5Ethics and Law

A PR practitioner obtains a client employee's confidential medical records and releases them to the media without consent. Which privacy tort is most directly implicated?

  1. Public disclosure of private facts Correct answer.
  2. Intrusion upon seclusion
  3. Appropriation of name or likeness
  4. False light

Explanation

Public disclosure of private facts applies when highly offensive, private information is widely published without a legitimate public concern. Intrusion covers the manner of gathering information, appropriation covers commercial use of identity, and false light covers misleading implications.

Question 6Ethics and Law

Under SEC Regulation FD, an issuer may share material nonpublic information with a securities analyst without simultaneous public disclosure when:

  1. The issuer is not listed on a national exchange
  2. The disclosure is accidental and corrected within a week
  3. The analyst expressly agrees to keep the information confidential Correct answer.
  4. The analyst works for a large institutional investor

Explanation

Regulation FD permits selective disclosure when the recipient agrees to maintain confidentiality; otherwise the issuer must disclose publicly simultaneously, or promptly for an unintentional disclosure. The size of the analyst's employer and the issuer's exchange listing do not create exemptions.

Question 7Ethics and Law

A PR campaign hires a lookalike of a famous athlete to appear in a television ad without the athlete's consent. Which legal claim is most directly available to the athlete?

  1. A defamation claim based on a false statement of fact
  2. A right of publicity claim for unauthorized likeness use Correct answer.
  3. A trademark dilution claim based on blurring
  4. A false advertising claim under the Lanham Act

Explanation

The right of publicity protects a person's name, likeness, and voice from unauthorized commercial use, and using a lookalike can infringe it. Defamation requires a false statement of fact, trademark dilution concerns marks, and false advertising concerns deceptive claims about goods.

Question 8Ethics and Law

A firm is asked to create a website and social media accounts that appear to be run by ordinary consumers praising a client's product. Which ethical principle is most directly compromised?

  1. Loyalty to the client
  2. Fair competition
  3. Transparency and honesty Correct answer.
  4. Expertise

Explanation

Astroturfing-fabricating grassroots support-deceives the public about the source and independence of the message, violating honesty and transparency. Loyalty to a client does not authorize deceptive communications, and expertise or competition are not the core principles at stake.

Question 9Ethics and Law

Under the Central Hudson test, the requirement that a restriction on truthful commercial speech be 'not more extensive than necessary' to serve the government interest is known as:

  1. The first prong, requiring that the speech concern lawful activity and not be misleading
  2. The third prong, requiring that the restriction directly advance the interest
  3. The fourth prong, requiring narrow tailoring Correct answer.
  4. The second prong, requiring a substantial government interest

Explanation

Central Hudson's fourth prong asks whether the regulation is narrowly tailored-no more extensive than necessary-to advance the government's substantial interest. The first prong concerns lawfulness and misleadingness, the second the substantial interest, and the third direct advancement.

Question 10Ethics and Law

A public relations consultant is subpoenaed to testify about confidential conversations with a client. Which statement is most accurate?

  1. The First Amendment categorically bars any subpoena for PR communications
  2. An attorney-client privilege automatically covers all PR consultant communications
  3. A client confidentiality agreement is enforceable against a court subpoena
  4. Shield laws generally protect journalists, not PR consultants Correct answer.

Explanation

Reporter's shield statutes are generally limited to persons engaged in journalism, and courts usually decline to extend them to PR consultants; another privilege may apply in specific circumstances. The First Amendment does not create an absolute bar, and confidentiality agreements alone do not defeat a subpoena.

Question 11Ethics and Law

A public relations agency is retained by a national retailer. The retailer's direct competitor then approaches the agency about a major product-launch campaign. Under public relations ethics rules, what is the most appropriate action before accepting the second engagement?

  1. Accept because competition among agency clients is routine.
  2. Disclose the conflict to both clients and obtain informed consent. Correct answer.
  3. Accept if separate account teams are assigned to each client.
  4. Accept and keep the second client's identity confidential.

Explanation

PRSA Code of Ethics requires disclosure of conflicts and informed consent from affected parties. Firewalls or team separation do not cure a direct competitor conflict without client consent. Silence is also a conflict.

Question 12Ethics and Law

A PR firm hires a freelance photographer to shoot a client event and pays the invoice, but the parties sign no written agreement. The firm later wants to reuse the images in paid social ads. Who owns the copyright in the photographs?

  1. The public, because images of a public event enter the public domain.
  2. The photographer, absent a written assignment or work-for-hire agreement. Correct answer.
  3. The client, because the event was held at its venue.
  4. The PR firm, because it paid for the shoot and directed the work.

Explanation

Copyright in a freelance photograph belongs to the photographer unless there is a written work-made-for-hire agreement or assignment. Hiring and paying for the shoot does not transfer ownership. The client and agency receive only the license granted.

Question 13Ethics and Law

A local restaurant owner, a private figure, is falsely described in a blog post as operating an unsanitary kitchen. To recover actual damages for defamation, what must the owner establish regarding the blogger's fault?

  1. Strict liability, because the statement concerned food safety.
  2. A specific intent to cause financial harm to the restaurant.
  3. Negligence as to the falsity of the statement. Correct answer.
  4. Actual malice, meaning knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard for the truth.

Explanation

Gertz v. Robert Welch held that private figures may recover actual damages on a showing of negligence as to falsity. Actual malice is required only for public officials or public figures, or for presumed and punitive damages. Strict liability is not permitted.

Question 14Ethics and Law

A weight-loss company's advertisement features a real customer saying, 'I lost 30 pounds in two weeks.' The company knows most users lose far less. Under the FTC Endorsement Guides, what should the advertisement include?

  1. A disclosure only if the customer was paid for the testimonial.
  2. A disclosure only if the product is classified as a drug.
  3. A clear disclosure of the generally expected results. Correct answer.
  4. No disclosure, because the testimonial is from a genuine customer.

Explanation

The FTC Endorsement Guides require that testimonials reflect typical results or clearly disclose generally expected results. A genuine testimonial does not cure a misleading net impression. Payment disclosure is a separate requirement.

Question 15Ethics and Law

A PR team is preparing a feature story about a client company's CEO. The pitch includes the fact that the CEO was treated for a mental health condition years earlier. The CEO objects. When may the team face liability for public disclosure of private facts?

  1. Only if the disclosed fact is false.
  2. Never, because medical information is always newsworthy.
  3. Never, because truthful information cannot be actionable.
  4. If the disclosure is highly offensive and not of legitimate public concern. Correct answer.

Explanation

Public disclosure of private facts requires that the matter be highly offensive to a reasonable person and not of legitimate public concern. Truth is not a defense to this tort, and newsworthiness can privilege disclosure.

Question 16Ethics and Law

A PR agency wants to build a campaign around a deceased rock musician's name and likeness. The client asks whether permission is needed. What is the most accurate statement of law?

  1. A single federal statute governs postmortem publicity rights nationwide.
  2. No permission is needed anywhere, because publicity rights end at death.
  3. State law may recognize postmortem publicity rights, so the estate's permission may be required. Correct answer.
  4. The First Amendment always permits commercial use of a deceased celebrity's likeness.

Explanation

Right of publicity is governed by state law; many states recognize postmortem rights for a set term, while others do not. A campaign using a deceased celebrity's likeness must check the relevant state's statute and estate permissions.

Question 17Ethics and Law

A PR firm advising an issuer learns during a confidential meeting that the issuer's quarterly earnings will greatly exceed analyst estimates. Before the announcement, a firm principal buys the issuer's stock. What is the best legal characterization of the purchase?

  1. Lawful, because the trade is small relative to the principal's portfolio.
  2. Unlawful, because the principal traded on material nonpublic information obtained in confidence. Correct answer.
  3. Lawful, because the information will eventually be made public.
  4. Lawful, because the firm does not provide securities advice to the issuer.

Explanation

Rule 10b-5 prohibits trading on material nonpublic information when the trader owes a duty of trust or confidence. A PR firm retained by an issuer receives such information in confidence. Size and later disclosure do not cure the violation.

Question 18Ethics and Law

Under the Central Hudson test, how is truthful commercial speech that proposes a lawful transaction generally treated?

  1. It is protected, but the government may regulate it under intermediate scrutiny. Correct answer.
  2. It may be banned whenever the state asserts a consumer-protection interest.
  3. It receives the same protection as political speech under strict scrutiny.
  4. It is unprotected unless the advertisement includes a government-approved disclaimer.

Explanation

Central Hudson treats truthful commercial speech proposing a lawful transaction as protected, but the government may regulate it under intermediate scrutiny. It must show a substantial interest, direct advancement, and reasonable fit. Political speech receives strict scrutiny.

Question 19Ethics and Law

A PR agency learns that a client is likely to be sued over a product launch. The agency has a routine policy of deleting emails after 90 days. What should the agency do with potentially relevant records?

  1. Delete only emails that mention the client by name.
  2. Transfer the records to the client and delete the agency's copies.
  3. Continue the routine deletion until a complaint is formally filed.
  4. Suspend deletion of potentially relevant records, including electronic data. Correct answer.

Explanation

Once litigation is reasonably anticipated, a party must preserve potentially relevant documents and electronically stored information. Routine destruction under a retention policy must be suspended. Spoliation can lead to sanctions and adverse inferences.

Question 20Ethics and Law

A US public relations firm is retained by a foreign government's tourism ministry to conduct a campaign aimed at influencing American public opinion and government policy on travel rules. What is the firm's most likely registration obligation?

  1. No registration, because tourism promotion is cultural rather than political.
  2. Registration only if the contract exceeds $100,000 in annual fees.
  3. Registration under SEC Regulation FD, because the principal is a government.
  4. Registration under FARA, because the firm is acting for a foreign principal. Correct answer.

Explanation

FARA requires registration by agents representing foreign governments or foreign principals for political or public relations activities intended to influence US policy or public opinion. A tourism promotion contract can trigger registration depending on the activities and principal.

Question 21Ethics and Law

A PR firm drafts a press release for a restaurant trade group that describes a rival chain's new menu as “the most overpriced and least appetizing food in the city.” The rival chain sues for libel. Which defense is strongest?

  1. The statement is protected because it concerns a public issue and the rival chain is a public figure.
  2. The statement is protected because press releases are absolutely privileged.
  3. The statement is protected because it was distributed to the media rather than to consumers.
  4. The statement is non-actionable opinion because it uses subjective language that does not imply undisclosed facts. Correct answer.

Explanation

Under Milkovich v. Lorain Journal, a statement that cannot reasonably be interpreted as stating actual facts is protected as opinion. Subjective, hyperbolic criticism of taste and price ordinarily signals opinion rather than a verifiable factual claim. The defense does not depend on the rival being a public figure or on the press release being absolutely privileged.

Question 22Ethics and Law

A PR team preparing a client's annual report wants to reproduce a chart from a report by a United States federal agency. The chart was created by federal employees as part of their official duties. What is the copyright status of the chart?

  1. It is protected by crown copyright, so attribution is required.
  2. It is in the public domain because works of United States government employees created in official duties are not copyrightable. Correct answer.
  3. It is protected under fair use only for educational purposes.
  4. It is protected by copyright owned by the agency, so a license is required.

Explanation

Under 17 U.S.C. § 105, copyright protection is unavailable for works prepared by federal government employees as part of their official duties. Such works generally enter the public domain and may be reproduced without a license. Crown copyright is a different doctrine used in some Commonwealth jurisdictions.

Question 23Ethics and Law

A client's advertisement claims its coffee is “the best-tasting coffee in the world.” A competitor complains to the FTC. How should the PR firm advise the client?

  1. The claim likely qualifies as puffery because it is subjective hyperbole that is not capable of objective verification. Correct answer.
  2. The claim requires two randomized taste tests before publication.
  3. The claim is deceptive per se because “best” is unverifiable.
  4. The claim is permissible only if a footnote says “in our opinion.”

Explanation

Puffery consists of subjective, exaggerated claims that reasonable consumers do not interpret as statements of objective fact. A broad assertion that coffee is “the best-tasting in the world” is classic hyperbole and is generally not actionable deception. A disclaimer footnote is not required for such non-actionable puffery.

Question 24Ethics and Law

A PR account executive in New York wants to record a phone interview with a source located in California. The executive has not obtained the source's consent. Which statement is correct?

  1. The recording is prohibited nationwide unless a written release is signed.
  2. The recording is always permissible because journalists have a First Amendment right to record.
  3. New York's one-party consent statute governs exclusively because the executive initiates the call.
  4. Federal law allows one-party consent, but California's two-party consent law may apply because the source is located in California. Correct answer.

Explanation

Federal wiretap law generally permits recording with one-party consent, but states may impose stricter rules. California's Invasion of Privacy Act requires the consent of all parties to a confidential communication, and a caller reaching a California source may be subject to that law. A First Amendment right to record does not override state wiretap consent requirements.

Question 25Ethics and Law

A PR firm promotes a client's supplement as “clinically proven.” The only support is an unpublished internal survey of 12 employees. A competitor sues under Section 43(a) of the Lanham Act. Which element is most likely to be at issue?

  1. Whether the statement is literally false or misleading and material to purchasing decisions. Correct answer.
  2. Whether the PR firm intended to deceive consumers.
  3. Whether the competitor has registered the term “clinically proven” as a trademark.
  4. Whether the supplement is regulated by the FDA.

Explanation

A Lanham Act false advertising claim requires a false or misleading statement of fact in commercial advertising that is material and likely to cause competitive injury. The strength of the “clinically proven” substantiation and its effect on consumers are central. Intent to deceive is not an element, and FDA regulation does not displace Lanham Act liability.

Question 26Ethics and Law

A PR agency offers a travel blogger $2,000 to write a favorable review of a client resort without disclosing the payment. Which ethical and legal problem is most direct?

  1. The payment creates an undisclosed material connection, making the endorsement deceptive under FTC guidance and violating PR ethics codes. Correct answer.
  2. The payment is permissible if the blogger discloses it in a personal blog separate from the review.
  3. The payment is permissible if the resort is a legitimate business.
  4. The payment is permissible because bloggers are not journalists.

Explanation

The FTC's Endorsement Guides require clear and conspicuous disclosure of a material connection between an endorser and an advertiser. Paying for a favorable review without disclosure deceives consumers about the independence of the endorsement. PR ethics codes similarly require honesty and transparency in communications.

Question 27Ethics and Law

A PR firm representing a celebrity chef wants to stop a magazine from using the chef's photograph in a news article about the chef's new restaurant. Which statement is most accurate?

  1. The chef can stop the use because the chef is a public figure.
  2. The magazine may use the photograph only if it pays the chef's standard licensing fee.
  3. The magazine must obtain a signed release because any use of a person's image is a violation of the right of publicity.
  4. The magazine may likely use the photograph because editorial news use is generally protected by the First Amendment, unlike commercial advertising use. Correct answer.

Explanation

Right of publicity laws generally restrict commercial uses of a person's name, image, or likeness, but editorial news and commentary receive substantial First Amendment protection. A magazine using a photograph to illustrate a news article about the chef's restaurant is typically treated as editorial rather than commercial. The chef's public-figure status does not create a right to block legitimate news coverage.

Question 28Ethics and Law

A company preparing an initial public offering wants its PR firm to issue a press release touting strong revenue growth before the registration statement is filed. What should the firm advise?

  1. Avoid conditioning the market with publicity that goes beyond factual, routine information before the registration statement is effective, to reduce gun-jumping risk under the Securities Act. Correct answer.
  2. Issue the release only after the SEC approves the company's trademark.
  3. Issue the release because pre-IPO publicity is protected commercial speech.
  4. Issue the release because revenue growth is not material to investors.

Explanation

Securities Act restrictions on gun-jumping limit publicity that conditions the market before a registration statement becomes effective. A press release touting strong revenue growth may be treated as an improper offer or as conditioning the market. PR firms should keep pre-IPO communications factual and routine and coordinate with securities counsel.

Question 29Ethics and Law

A PR firm working for a foreign state-owned tourism board is asked to pay a $50,000 “consulting fee” to a government official's cousin to secure a campaign contract. The official approves the contract. Which law is most directly implicated?

  1. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, because payments to foreign officials or their intermediaries to obtain business can violate the anti-bribery provisions. Correct answer.
  2. The Copyright Act, because the campaign will use the official's likeness.
  3. The Lanham Act, because the fee misrepresents the cost of services.
  4. The FTC Act, because the fee is an unfair trade practice.

Explanation

The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act prohibits corrupt payments to foreign officials to obtain or retain business. Payments routed through intermediaries such as a relative or consultant can violate the FCPA if the firm knows or should know that the funds will benefit a foreign official. The other statutes do not primarily govern foreign bribery.

Question 30Ethics and Law

A client instructs a PR firm to publicly deny a product safety defect that internal documents show is real. The account executive believes the denial is false. Under PR ethics codes and legal risk, what is the best course?

  1. Refuse to participate in the false denial and advise the client to disclose or correct the information, documenting the advice. Correct answer.
  2. Follow the client's instruction because the client is the ultimate source of truth about its own product.
  3. Resign quietly without telling anyone, to avoid breaching client confidentiality.
  4. Issue the denial but add a vague disclaimer that the firm cannot verify all facts.

Explanation

PR ethics codes require honesty and prohibit disseminating false or misleading information. Assisting a client in denying a known safety defect can also create legal exposure for deception and product liability. The appropriate response is to refuse participation, advise correction or disclosure, and document the advice.

Question 31Ethics and Law

A PR firm has already sent a press release to reporters on behalf of a client when the account executive learns that a revenue figure in the release is materially incorrect because of a data-entry error. The client did not intend to mislead anyone. Under the PRSA Code of Ethics, what is the most appropriate next step?

  1. Do nothing because the release was based on information the client supplied in good faith.
  2. Quietly replace the figure on the client's website and avoid drawing attention to the mistake.
  3. Publicly blame the client's finance department for the mistake to protect the agency's reputation.
  4. Urge the client to issue a prompt correction to the same media recipients and explain the error. Correct answer.

Explanation

The PRSA Code of Ethics requires practitioners to maintain accurate information and to correct errors promptly. Even an unintentional error in a distributed release can mislead reporters and investors, so the agency should urge the client to issue a correction to the same audience. Concealing or quietly editing the error undermines transparency and trust.

Question 32Ethics and Law

A PR agency issues a press release for a client that quotes a named source saying a local contractor 'defrauded dozens of homeowners.' The agency did not verify the accusation but simply repeated the source's words. The contractor sues the agency for defamation. Which statement best describes the agency's legal position?

  1. The agency can be liable only if it knew the statement was false and acted with actual malice, regardless of the contractor's status.
  2. The agency cannot be liable because it identified the source and therefore the statement is clearly the source's opinion.
  3. The agency cannot be liable because press releases are protected by the First Amendment from all defamation claims.
  4. The agency may be liable for republication because repeating a defamatory statement to third parties can create liability even when the agency is not the original source. Correct answer.

Explanation

Defamation law treats a party that republishes a defamatory statement as a potential publisher, so repeating a source's accusation in a press release can create liability. The required level of fault depends on whether the plaintiff is a public figure or a private figure, but republication does not by itself immunize the agency. Naming the source also does not turn a factual accusation into protected opinion.

Question 33Ethics and Law

A PR team produces a 60-second promotional video for a client and wants to use a popular commercial recording as background music. The video will be posted on the client's website and social media channels. What permission is generally required before the video can be distributed?

  1. No permission is needed because the video is under 60 seconds and is used for promotional purposes.
  2. Only a fair use determination, because the video is not being sold.
  3. Only a public performance license from a performing rights organization such as ASCAP or BMI.
  4. A synchronization license from the music publisher and a master use license from the record label. Correct answer.

Explanation

Using a recording in timed relation with visual images requires a synchronization license for the musical composition and a master use license for the specific sound recording. A public performance license covers performance or broadcast of music but does not authorize synchronization into a video. Short duration and promotional purpose do not eliminate the need for these licenses.

Question 34Ethics and Law

A PR agency is retained by a law firm defending a manufacturing client in a product-liability lawsuit. The agency drafts a press statement and emails it to the lead attorney for review, marking it confidential. The plaintiffs later subpoena the draft. Which principle most likely determines whether the draft is protected from disclosure?

  1. The draft is never protected because PR agencies are not law firms and cannot act as agents of counsel.
  2. The draft may be protected if the PR firm was retained by the attorney to assist in providing legal advice and the communication was kept confidential. Correct answer.
  3. The draft is protected because all communications between a PR firm and a client during litigation are covered by the attorney-client privilege.
  4. The draft is protected only if the PR firm's employee is also a licensed attorney in the relevant state.

Explanation

Attorney-client privilege can extend to consultants, including PR firms, when they are retained by the attorney to help provide legal advice and the communications remain confidential. The privilege does not automatically cover every PR communication during litigation, nor does it require the PR practitioner to be a licensed lawyer. Courts examine the consultant's role in facilitating legal advice rather than the label alone.

Question 35Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner is developing a campaign for a new transit pass and needs evidence to shape messages before launch. Which research category fits this purpose?

  1. Post-test research
  2. Outcome evaluation
  3. Summative research
  4. Formative research Correct answer.

Explanation

Formative research is conducted before or during program development to inform strategy, messages, channels, and audiences. Summative research, outcome evaluation, and post-test research assess results after implementation, so they cannot shape messages before launch.

Question 36Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

Which objective is written as a measurable outcome rather than an output?

  1. Distribute 5,000 printed brochures about the new recycling rules to every household
  2. Produce a 30-second radio spot plus two social media posts for launch
  3. Increase correct recycling sorting by 15 percentage points within six months Correct answer.
  4. Hold three press conferences during launch week and invite local media

Explanation

An outcome objective states a measurable change in a target public's awareness, attitude, or behavior, with a baseline or comparison and a timeframe. The other options describe outputs-tactics and activities delivered-not the change the program is meant to produce.

Question 37Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner wants results generalizable to all 40,000 employees and selects 400 using a random number generator. This selection method is best described as:

  1. A convenience sample drawn from volunteers
  2. A probability sample Correct answer.
  3. A quota sample matched to department sizes
  4. A purposive sample of known activists

Explanation

A probability sample gives every member of the population a known, nonzero chance of selection, which supports statistical generalization from the sample to the population. Convenience, purposive, and quota samples are nonprobability methods and cannot support the same inference.

Question 38Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

During situation analysis, a team lists a new state law requiring emissions reporting as an external factor that could increase demand for the client's consulting service. In SWOT, this factor is best classified as a(n):

  1. Weakness
  2. Threat
  3. Strength
  4. Opportunity Correct answer.

Explanation

Opportunities are favorable external conditions in a SWOT analysis, while threats are unfavorable external conditions. Strengths and weaknesses are internal to the organization, so a new state law is an external factor.

Question 39Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

Which survey item is most likely to produce unreliable data because it is double-barreled?

  1. How would you rate the online catalog on a five-point scale?
  2. How often did you visit the library in the past thirty days?
  3. Which age group best describes your current household?
  4. How satisfied are you with the library's hours and staff friendliness? Correct answer.

Explanation

A double-barreled item asks about two separate issues in one question, so a respondent who is satisfied with hours but dissatisfied with staff cannot answer accurately. The other items each ask about one behavior, rating, or demographic characteristic.

Question 40Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

After a safety campaign, a practitioner tracks the percentage of target audience members who can correctly state the new guideline. This measure is best classified as:

  1. Outcome
  2. Outtake Correct answer.
  3. Output
  4. Impact

Explanation

Outtakes measure what audience members take away from a message, such as awareness, recall, understanding, or ability to state a guideline. Outputs count materials or activities, outcomes measure behavior, and impact refers to longer-term societal results.

Question 41Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

Which example relies on secondary research rather than primary research?

  1. Facilitating two focus groups with recent customers
  2. Analyzing Census income data Correct answer.
  3. Fielding an online survey of current members
  4. Conducting in-depth interviews with major donors

Explanation

Secondary research uses data that already exist and were collected by someone else, such as Census Bureau income data. Focus groups, surveys, and in-depth interviews generate new primary data for the current project.

Question 42Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A survey scale returns nearly identical scores each time it is administered, but it consistently measures the wrong construct. The scale is best described as:

  1. Neither valid nor reliable
  2. Both valid and reliable
  3. Reliable but not valid Correct answer.
  4. Valid but not reliable

Explanation

Reliability refers to consistency of measurement across repeated administrations, while validity refers to measuring the intended construct. A scale can be consistent and still measure the wrong thing, which is reliable but not valid.

Question 43Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A random sample of 1,000 adults yields 52% support with a margin of error of ±3 percentage points at 95% confidence. Which interpretation is defensible?

  1. About 95% of similarly constructed intervals would contain the true population value Correct answer.
  2. The true population support is exactly between 49% and 55%, with no sampling uncertainty
  3. The result cannot be used because the margin of error exceeds two percentage points
  4. There is a 95% chance that the sample support equals 52%, so the result is definitive

Explanation

A 95% confidence interval means that if the same sampling procedure were repeated many times, about 95% of the intervals constructed would contain the true population value. It does not mean there is a 95% probability that the true value lies in this one interval or that the sample estimate is exact.

Question 44Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner wants to determine whether a new employee newsletter changed readership behavior rather than whether employees merely received it. Which evaluation approach best addresses this question?

  1. Comparing pre- and post-campaign readership with a group not exposed Correct answer.
  2. Tracking the email open rate of the newsletter's digital version each week
  3. Recording the number of articles published per issue and their word counts
  4. Counting the number of newsletters distributed to each department and location

Explanation

Output counts such as distribution, opens, and articles published only show activity, not whether readership behavior changed. A pre-post comparison with an unexposed group provides stronger evidence by controlling for concurrent trends and testing change against a counterfactual.

Question 45Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner conducts a focus group to learn how residents describe a local health issue in their own words before drafting campaign messages. This activity is best classified as:

  1. Experimental research
  2. Secondary research
  3. Quantitative research
  4. Qualitative research Correct answer.

Explanation

Qualitative research explores meanings, language, and perceptions through methods such as focus groups and in-depth interviews. It is used to understand audience perspectives before message development. Quantitative research relies on numerical measurement, experimental research tests causal effects through manipulation, and secondary research analyzes existing data.

Question 46Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner wants to verify that a new community relations campaign was implemented as planned, including the number of town hall meetings held and flyers distributed. Which type of evaluation is most appropriate?

  1. Formative research
  2. Outcome evaluation
  3. Impact evaluation
  4. Process evaluation Correct answer.

Explanation

Process evaluation monitors implementation fidelity, reach, and delivery of planned activities. It answers whether the campaign was carried out as intended. Outcome evaluation measures changes in awareness, attitudes, or behavior; impact evaluation examines long-term societal effects; formative research informs design before implementation.

Question 47Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner wants a survey of residents to reflect the city's age distribution, so the population is divided into age brackets and random selections are made from each bracket in proportion to the population. Which sampling method is being used?

  1. Stratified sampling Correct answer.
  2. Cluster sampling
  3. Convenience sampling
  4. Simple random sampling

Explanation

Stratified sampling divides the population into homogeneous subgroups, or strata, and randomly samples within each stratum. Proportional allocation ensures the sample mirrors the population's age distribution. Simple random sampling selects from the whole population without strata, cluster sampling randomly selects groups, and convenience sampling uses available respondents.

Question 48Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner drafts this survey item: 'Don't you agree that the new recycling program is a valuable investment for our community?' What is the main problem with this item?

  1. It asks respondents to predict future behavior.
  2. It uses a scale without a neutral point.
  3. It is double-barreled and asks about two issues.
  4. It is leading and implies the desired answer. Correct answer.

Explanation

Leading questions cue respondents toward an expected or socially desirable answer, biasing survey results. The phrase 'Don't you agree' signals that agreement is expected. Double-barreled items combine two issues, scale neutrality concerns response options, and future behavior is not the focus here.

Question 49Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner finds that employee participation in volunteer events is strongly correlated with higher self-reported job satisfaction. Which conclusion is most defensible from this finding alone?

  1. The variables are associated, but causation cannot be established. Correct answer.
  2. Participating in volunteer events causes higher job satisfaction.
  3. Job satisfaction and volunteer participation are unrelated because the correlation is spurious.
  4. Higher job satisfaction causes employees to participate in volunteer events.

Explanation

Correlation indicates that two variables are associated, but it does not establish the direction of the relationship or rule out confounding variables. Without an experimental or longitudinal design, a causal claim is premature. The first and third options assert causation, while the fourth wrongly dismisses the correlation without evidence.

Question 50Research, Analysis, Planning and Evaluation

A practitioner conducting a SWOT analysis notes that the organization has a strong reputation among local policymakers but lacks a dedicated social media team. How should these items be classified?

  1. Strong reputation is an opportunity; lack of a social media team is a threat.
  2. Strong reputation is a strength; lack of a social media team is a threat.
  3. Strong reputation is an opportunity; lack of a social media team is a weakness.
  4. Strong reputation is a strength; lack of a social media team is a weakness. Correct answer.

Explanation

SWOT analysis classifies internal attributes as strengths or weaknesses and external factors as opportunities or threats. Reputation and staffing are internal to the organization, so they belong in the strength and weakness categories. Opportunities and threats come from the external environment.