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PSHRA-SCP practice questions

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Question 1Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which statute created the first federal merit-based civil service system in the United States by replacing patronage appointments with competitive examinations?

  1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 Correct answer.
  2. The Hatch Act of 1939
  3. The Civil Service Reform Act of 1978
  4. The National Labor Relations Act

Explanation

The Pendleton Act of 1883 replaced patronage appointment with competitive examination and merit selection for a substantial share of federal positions and is the foundation of U.S. merit systems. The other statutes address different subjects, such as political activity limits, federal labor relations reorganization, and private-sector bargaining.

Question 2Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Under the Weingarten doctrine, a unionized employee has the right to union representation during which type of meeting?

  1. Any staff meeting called by a supervisor
  2. A union organizing campaign meeting
  3. An investigatory interview that may lead to discipline Correct answer.
  4. A routine performance review that may lead to a promotion

Explanation

The Weingarten right entitles a unionized employee to representation at an investigatory interview the employee reasonably believes may result in discipline. The right must be requested, and the employer may discontinue the interview rather than proceed without a representative. It does not extend to ordinary staff meetings or reviews carrying no reasonable threat of discipline.

Question 3Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which of the following is a mandatory subject of bargaining in public-sector labor relations?

  1. The political endorsements made by the union's parent body
  2. Wages, hours, and other conditions of employment Correct answer.
  3. The agency's decision to adopt a new public health policy
  4. The agency's budget request submitted to the legislature

Explanation

Mandatory subjects directly concern wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment, and both parties must bargain over them in good faith upon request. Policy decisions, internal union political activity, and legislative budget requests fall outside the bargaining relationship.

Question 4Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

In a typical progressive discipline system, which step normally comes immediately after an oral warning for a minor first offense?

  1. Demotion
  2. Suspension without pay
  3. Termination
  4. A written reprimand Correct answer.

Explanation

Progressive discipline escalates in steps, typically oral warning, written reprimand, suspension, and finally termination, giving the employee notice and an opportunity to correct. A written reprimand is the usual step following an oral warning for a first minor offense.

Question 5Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which impasse-resolution procedure uses a neutral third party who meets with both sides and helps them reach a voluntary agreement but has no authority to impose a settlement?

  1. Interest arbitration
  2. Fact-finding
  3. Grievance arbitration
  4. Mediation Correct answer.

Explanation

Mediation is voluntary assistance in which the neutral facilitates communication and suggests options but cannot impose terms. Imposing terms is the defining feature of arbitration, while fact-finding ends with a report of recommendations.

Question 6Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which impasse procedure typically results in a written report of findings and recommendations that is released publicly but is not legally binding?

  1. Fact-finding Correct answer.
  2. Interest arbitration
  3. Mediation
  4. Rights arbitration

Explanation

Fact-finding involves a neutral who takes evidence and issues recommendations, often released publicly to pressure the parties toward settlement; the recommendations are advisory. Binding imposition of terms is the hallmark of interest arbitration.

Question 7Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which term describes a formal complaint by an employee or union alleging a violation of the collective bargaining agreement or of an established personnel policy?

  1. Unfair labor practice charge
  2. Impasse
  3. Reopener
  4. Grievance Correct answer.

Explanation

A grievance is a formal claim that the employer violated the collective bargaining agreement, a personnel rule, or an established practice, and it is processed through the contractual grievance procedure. An unfair labor practice charge instead alleges a statutory violation before a labor board.

Question 8Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which law limits the partisan political activity of most federal and many state employees while on duty or in the workplace?

  1. The Hatch Act Correct answer.
  2. The Civil Service Reform Act
  3. The Pendleton Act
  4. The Fair Labor Standards Act

Explanation

The Hatch Act restricts partisan political activity by covered federal and state employees, particularly while on duty, in the workplace, or when using government resources. The Pendleton Act created the merit system, and the Civil Service Reform Act restructured federal labor relations.

Question 9Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A public employer and a union reach impasse, and state law requires a neutral to hear both sides and issue a binding decision that sets the terms of the new contract. This procedure is:

  1. Fact-finding
  2. Mediation
  3. Interest arbitration Correct answer.
  4. Rights arbitration

Explanation

Interest arbitration resolves a negotiation impasse by having a neutral impose the terms of the new agreement. Rights arbitration, by contrast, interprets and applies an existing agreement.

Question 10Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Following the U.S. Supreme Court's decision in Janus v. AFSCME (2018), which practice is prohibited for public-sector employers and unions?

  1. Requiring nonmembers to pay an agency fee to cover representation costs Correct answer.
  2. Collecting voluntary dues through payroll deduction with written authorization
  3. Allowing employees to choose whether to join the union
  4. Negotiating a union security clause limited to voluntary membership

Explanation

Janus held that requiring public employees who are not union members to pay agency fees violates the First Amendment because fee collection compels speech. Voluntary dues deduction authorized in writing remains permissible, and the union must still represent nonmembers fairly.

Question 11Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A tenured civil service employee with a property interest in continued employment faces termination. Under Loudermill, before the termination takes effect the employee is entitled at minimum to:

  1. A post-termination hearing only, with no pre-termination input
  2. A full adversarial trial with counsel before a jury
  3. A binding arbitration hearing conducted by a neutral
  4. Notice of the charges and an opportunity to respond Correct answer.

Explanation

Loudermill requires notice of the charges and an opportunity to respond before the employee is deprived of a property interest in continued employment, with a fuller evidentiary hearing available afterward. The pre-termination process need not be elaborate or adversarial.

Question 12Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A long-standing, consistently followed, unwritten practice that both parties have accepted may become an enforceable term of employment. This doctrine is known as:

  1. Functus officio
  2. Estoppel by contract
  3. Res judicata
  4. Past practice Correct answer.

Explanation

A past practice may become an implied term when it is consistent, long-standing, known to both parties, and not contradicted by the written contract. Functus officio concerns an arbitrator's authority after an award, and res judicata bars relitigating decided claims.

Question 13Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

An employee's work quality slips because the employee lacks a newly required software skill. The most appropriate first response by the supervisor is to:

  1. Provide training and coaching, and document the plan Correct answer.
  2. Suspend the employee pending an investigation
  3. Issue a written reprimand for unsatisfactory performance
  4. Refer the matter directly to binding arbitration

Explanation

When a shortfall stems from a skill or knowledge gap rather than wilful misconduct, the appropriate response is training and coaching with documented follow-up. Discipline is reserved for misconduct or for performance problems that persist after a reasonable opportunity to improve.

Question 14Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

When a labor board determines whether a proposed group of employees is an appropriate bargaining unit, which factor does it primarily weigh?

  1. Community of interest, including shared duties and supervision Correct answer.
  2. The union's national affiliation
  3. The number of authorization cards signed by employees
  4. The employer's preference for a single agency-wide unit

Explanation

Bargaining unit determinations turn primarily on community of interest: shared duties, skills, working conditions, supervision, and interchange among employees. Card counts show employee interest but do not determine whether a unit is appropriate.

Question 15Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which of the following constitutes an unfair labor practice by a public employer?

  1. Refusing to bargain in good faith over mandatory subjects Correct answer.
  2. Explaining to employees the agency's position on a bargaining proposal
  3. Meeting with the union at mutually agreed times during working hours
  4. Providing the union with the names of newly hired employees in a bargaining unit

Explanation

Refusing to bargain in good faith over mandatory subjects is an unfair labor practice for public employers. Supplying routine unit information, meeting at agreed times, and communicating the employer's position are lawful and often expected.

Question 16Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A collective bargaining agreement contains a provision stating that during the term of the agreement neither party will negotiate over matters not covered in the contract. This provision is called a:

  1. Reopener clause
  2. Zipper clause Correct answer.
  3. Management rights clause
  4. Savings clause

Explanation

A zipper clause closes the contract for its term by stating that neither party will bargain over matters not covered; it works with the management rights clause to define the bargaining agenda. A reopener, by contrast, opens specified topics for mid-term bargaining.

Question 17Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

An employee disciplined for a rule violation argues that other employees committed the same violation for years without discipline. The employee's strongest challenge to the discipline is:

  1. The absence of a zipper clause
  2. Lack of a bargaining unit
  3. Failure of the agency to hold a representation election
  4. Inconsistent or disparate enforcement of the rule Correct answer.

Explanation

Inconsistent enforcement undermines just cause because it suggests the rule was not treated as a genuine requirement and may amount to disparate treatment. The argument does not depend on the presence of a bargaining unit or any particular contract clause.

Question 18Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which statement best describes the effect of a final and binding grievance arbitration award?

  1. It may be appealed to the union's national office for a new hearing
  2. It is advisory and may be disregarded by the agency head
  3. It automatically becomes part of the next collective bargaining agreement
  4. It is final and binding, subject only to limited judicial review Correct answer.

Explanation

A final and binding arbitration award is ordinarily conclusive, subject only to narrow judicial review on grounds such as exceeding authority or fraud. It is not advisory, and internal union review does not reopen it.

Question 19Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A collective bargaining agreement requires grievances to be filed within ten working days of the incident. An employee waits six weeks and then files. The employer's strongest procedural response is that the grievance is:

  1. Subject to mandatory interest arbitration
  2. Untimely and therefore waived Correct answer.
  3. Converted into an unfair labor practice charge
  4. Automatically valid because employees may waive timelines

Explanation

Contractual time limits are generally enforced, and a grievance filed after the deadline is typically waived unless the employer waives the defense or the delay is excused. Arbitrators commonly require strict compliance with such deadlines.

Question 20Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Under the duty of fair representation, a union must:

  1. Pursue every grievance to arbitration regardless of merit
  2. Represent all unit employees fairly and without bad faith Correct answer.
  3. Give hiring preference to members' relatives
  4. Represent only dues-paying members in grievance proceedings

Explanation

The duty of fair representation requires an exclusive representative to treat all bargaining unit employees fairly, without arbitrary, discriminatory, or bad-faith conduct, including those who are not members. The duty does not require pursuing meritless grievances.

Question 21Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A public agency decides to contract out a function performed by bargaining unit employees. Under most public-sector labor relations statutes, which statement is most accurate?

  1. The decision is prohibited unless the union consents in writing
  2. The decision is generally permissive, but its effects on employees are mandatory Correct answer.
  3. The decision is a mandatory subject, but effects on employees need not be discussed
  4. Both the decision and its effects are permissive subjects that the union cannot require bargaining over

Explanation

In most public-sector regimes the decision to contract out is a management prerogative or, at most, a permissive subject, while the effects on unit employees, such as layoffs and reassignment, are mandatory subjects the union may require bargaining over. The split between the decision and its effects is the key distinction.

Question 22Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

After issuing a final award, an arbitrator ordinarily may not reopen or modify the merits of the decision. This principle is known as:

  1. Stare decisis
  2. Functus officio Correct answer.
  3. Res judicata
  4. Ex parte

Explanation

Functus officio means the arbitrator's function is complete once the award issues, so the merits cannot be reopened, with only narrow corrections such as clerical error or clarification permitted. Res judicata and stare decisis are general preclusion doctrines rather than arbitrator-specific rules.

Question 23Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

In last-best-offer or baseball interest arbitration, the arbitrator:

  1. Appoints a fact-finder to gather evidence before ruling
  2. Must choose one party's final offer in its entirety Correct answer.
  3. May craft a compromise award splitting the difference between the parties
  4. Issues nonbinding recommendations that the parties may accept or reject

Explanation

In last-best-offer arbitration the neutral must adopt one side's final package without modification, which creates an incentive for each party to submit a reasonable offer. Conventional arbitration, by contrast, allows the arbitrator to craft a compromise.

Question 24Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

For a union's waiver of its right to bargain over a mandatory subject to be effective, the waiver generally must be:

  1. Recorded in the minutes of a labor-management committee
  2. Clear and unmistakable, shown by contract language or conduct Correct answer.
  3. Implied by the union's silence at a single meeting
  4. Approved by a majority of employees in a secret ballot election conducted by the employer

Explanation

Because bargaining rights are statutory, a union's waiver must be clear and unmistakable, typically shown by explicit contract language or a consistent course of conduct. Silence or ambiguous conduct does not waive the right.

Question 25Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A party believes an arbitrator decided an issue the parties never submitted. The party's best argument for vacating the award is that the arbitrator:

  1. Applied a past practice rather than the contract's express language
  2. Issued an award that was unfavorable to the agency
  3. Exceeded the authority granted by the contract and submission Correct answer.
  4. Relied on testimony from bargaining unit employees

Explanation

An arbitrator's authority derives from the contract and the parties' submission, and an award that decides unsubmitted issues or contradicts the agreement may be vacated for exceeding that authority. An award is not vacated merely because it is unfavorable or because the arbitrator weighed evidence differently than a party would prefer.

Question 26Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

An employee covered by a collective bargaining agreement is called into a meeting by a supervisor investigating a possible theft. The supervisor states that the meeting may result in discipline, and the employee asks for a union representative to attend. Under the rule established in NLRB v. J. Weingarten, Inc., the employee:

  1. may have a union representative present if the employee requests one Correct answer.
  2. is not entitled to representation because the matter involves potential criminal conduct
  3. has an absolute right to have a representative answer each question on the employee's behalf
  4. may have a representative present only if the employer consents to the request

Explanation

A unionized employee who reasonably believes an investigatory interview may lead to discipline may request that a union representative attend. The employer may decline to conduct the interview, but it cannot insist on continuing the questioning while refusing the request. The representative's role is to assist the employee, not to answer for the employee.

Question 27Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A public employer orders an employee to answer questions about alleged misconduct, warning that refusal to answer will result in dismissal. The employee answers, and the matter is later referred for criminal prosecution. Under the Garrity doctrine, the employee's compelled statements:

  1. are treated the same as statements the employee volunteered to a co-worker
  2. may be used in a criminal trial because the employer warned the employee that refusal would lead to dismissal
  3. cannot be used against the employee in a later criminal prosecution Correct answer.
  4. cannot be used in any subsequent disciplinary proceeding brought by the employer

Explanation

Garrity v. New Jersey holds that statements obtained under threat of losing public employment are coerced and therefore inadmissible against the employee in a criminal prosecution. The employer may still use the statements in its own administrative disciplinary process, provided the employee was ordered to answer.

Question 28Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which of the following union proposals is a mandatory subject of bargaining for a public employer under most public-sector labor relations statutes?

  1. A change in the employer's share of health insurance premiums Correct answer.
  2. The union's request that the agency endorse a candidate for local office
  3. The number of delegates the union sends to its state convention
  4. The procedures the union uses to elect its officers

Explanation

Mandatory subjects are those touching wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment, which include employer-paid insurance contributions. Internal union governance and political endorsements are matters within the union's own control and are not mandatory subjects. A party may propose permissive subjects but generally cannot insist on them to impasse.

Question 29Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

Which of the following is an unfair labor practice by a public-sector union?

  1. Declining to arbitrate a grievance the union believes lacks merit after a good-faith review
  2. Threatening to have an employee fired unless the employee stops criticizing union leaders Correct answer.
  3. Distributing campaign literature for a candidate during the employee's off-duty hours
  4. Negotiating a contract that sets lower wage rates for newly hired employees than for current employees

Explanation

A union commits an unfair labor practice when it restrains or coerces employees in the exercise of protected rights, such as by threatening retaliation against an employee for criticizing union leadership. A good-faith decision not to arbitrate a weak grievance, negotiating two-tier wage terms, and lawful off-duty political activity are not unfair labor practices.

Question 30Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A first-line supervisor regularly assigns work, evaluates performance, and effectively recommends discipline for the employees she directs. A union seeks to include her in the same bargaining unit as those employees. Under most public-sector labor relations statutes, this inclusion is:

  1. improper, but only if the supervisor has final authority to hire and fire
  2. proper, because supervisors share the same working conditions as the employees they direct
  3. improper, because supervisors are excluded from units of the employees they supervise Correct answer.
  4. proper, if a majority of the supervisors vote for union representation in the election

Explanation

Most public-sector statutes exclude supervisors and managerial employees from rank-and-file bargaining units to prevent conflicts of interest between representational duties and management responsibilities. The exclusion turns on the exercise of supervisory authority such as assigning work and effectively recommending discipline, not on final hiring authority alone.

Question 31Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

During bargaining over a new overtime policy, the union asks the agency for payroll records showing how overtime hours have been distributed by job classification. The agency refuses, stating that payroll records are confidential personnel files. Under most public-sector labor relations statutes, the refusal is:

  1. proper, unless the union raises the request through a grievance instead
  2. proper, because personnel records are exempt from disclosure to unions
  3. improper, because unions are entitled to all agency records without regard to relevance
  4. improper, because the union may obtain information relevant to bargaining Correct answer.

Explanation

An employer has a duty to furnish a union with information that is relevant and reasonably necessary to the union's performance of its representational duties, including bargaining and grievance handling. Confidentiality concerns can be addressed through protective conditions such as limited disclosure rather than outright refusal. The duty is bounded by relevance, not triggered by every record request.

Question 32Public Sector Employee and Labor Relations

A collective bargaining agreement expires while the parties continue negotiating a successor. Without declaring impasse or reaching agreement, the agency stops reimbursing tuition for courses that employees had already been approved to take under the expired contract. Under most public-sector statutes, this action is:

  1. unlawful, because every term of an expired contract remains fully enforceable until a successor agreement is ratified
  2. lawful, because the contract's terms ended by their own force on the expiration date
  3. unlawful, because the employer must preserve the status quo until impasse or agreement Correct answer.
  4. lawful, because tuition reimbursement is a discretionary benefit the agency may grant or withdraw at will

Explanation

After a contract expires, the employer must maintain the status quo on mandatory subjects of bargaining and may not make unilateral changes until it has bargained to impasse or reached a new agreement. Tuition reimbursement is a term and condition of employment, so its unilateral elimination during negotiations is an unfair labor practice. Maintaining the status quo is not the same as enforcing every expired contract term indefinitely.

Question 33Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

In Schein's framework of organizational culture, which level consists of basic underlying assumptions?

  1. The written policies found in the employee handbook
  2. The stated mission, values, and credos an agency publishes
  3. Deeply held, taken-for-granted beliefs that guide behavior Correct answer.
  4. The visible layout, dress codes, and published rituals

Explanation

Schein describes three levels: artifacts (visible structures and behaviors), espoused values (stated strategies, goals, and philosophies), and basic underlying assumptions (unconscious, taken-for-granted beliefs). Assumptions are the deepest level and the most resistant to change because they operate below awareness.

Question 34Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

During which stage of Tuckman's model do team members most often test boundaries, compete for influence, and experience conflict over roles?

  1. Performing
  2. Norming
  3. Storming Correct answer.
  4. Forming

Explanation

Tuckman's sequence runs forming, storming, norming, performing, and later adjourning. Storming is the stage in which members surface differences, jockey for influence, and clarify roles and expectations.

Question 35Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Which behavior best exemplifies transformational leadership?

  1. Trading rewards for performance through clearly specified agreements
  2. Relying on formal position authority to secure compliance
  3. Inspiring a shared vision and challenging followers' assumptions Correct answer.
  4. Monitoring employees closely to detect deviations from procedure

Explanation

Transformational leadership operates through idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration, which raise followers' commitment to a shared vision. Contingent rewards and close monitoring are transactional behaviors.

Question 36Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

In Kotter's eight-step model for leading change, what is the recommended first step?

  1. Anchoring new approaches in the culture
  2. Building a guiding coalition
  3. Establishing a sense of urgency Correct answer.
  4. Generating short-term wins

Explanation

Kotter's sequence begins with establishing urgency, then forming a powerful coalition, creating and communicating a vision, empowering action, generating short-term wins, consolidating gains, and anchoring changes in the culture.

Question 37Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

In Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is a hygiene factor that can prevent dissatisfaction but does not by itself motivate?

  1. Recognition from supervisors
  2. Achievement of meaningful goals
  3. Opportunities for growth and advancement
  4. Salary and working conditions Correct answer.

Explanation

Herzberg separated hygiene factors (pay, working conditions, policy, supervision) that prevent dissatisfaction from motivators (achievement, recognition, responsibility, growth) that produce satisfaction and motivation. Improving hygiene factors removes discontent but does not create engagement.

Question 38Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Psychological safety in a work team is best described as:

  1. A policy guaranteeing employment security during organizational change
  2. A management commitment to competitive compensation and benefits
  3. The presence of formal grievance procedures and anonymous hotlines
  4. A shared belief that speaking up and admitting mistakes is safe Correct answer.

Explanation

Psychological safety is a shared team belief that interpersonal risk-taking is acceptable, so members can ask questions, admit errors, and disagree without punishment. It is a climate perception, distinct from job security, formal grievance channels, or pay levels.

Question 39Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Which principle is central to servant leadership?

  1. Centralizing decision rights in the leader
  2. Putting the growth and well-being of followers first Correct answer.
  3. Maximizing short-term returns for stakeholders
  4. Using contingent rewards to direct performance

Explanation

Servant leadership inverts the usual ordering of purpose: the leader's primary aim is to serve followers and the community, helping them grow while still achieving organizational results. Contingent rewards and centralized control belong to other leadership models.

Question 40Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

In Senge's five disciplines of a learning organization, which discipline is described as the fifth discipline that integrates the others?

  1. Shared vision
  2. Systems thinking Correct answer.
  3. Mental models
  4. Personal mastery

Explanation

Senge's five disciplines are personal mastery, mental models, shared vision, team learning, and systems thinking. Systems thinking is called the fifth discipline because it reveals interrelationships and patterns that integrate the other four.

Question 41Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

In Lewin's three-stage model, the purpose of unfreezing is to:

  1. Consolidate new behaviors so they persist after the change ends
  2. Pilot the change in a small unit before an agency-wide rollout
  3. Loosen support for current behavior and build readiness to change Correct answer.
  4. Document the revised procedures and update the policy manual for all staff

Explanation

Lewin's model moves through unfreezing, moving, and refreezing. Unfreezing disconfirms the current equilibrium and creates the motivation and readiness needed before new behaviors can be adopted.

Question 42Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

In the ADKAR model, an employee understands why a change is needed but is unwilling to support it. Which element is deficient?

  1. Knowledge
  2. Desire Correct answer.
  3. Awareness
  4. Ability

Explanation

ADKAR progresses through Awareness, Desire, Knowledge, Ability, and Reinforcement. A person who understands the rationale but does not want to participate lacks Desire, which must be addressed before training in skills.

Question 43Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

In the Competing Values Framework, which culture type emphasizes flexibility and internal focus, valuing teamwork, participation, and cohesion?

  1. Clan Correct answer.
  2. Hierarchy
  3. Adhocracy
  4. Market

Explanation

The framework plots cultures on flexibility versus control and internal versus external focus. Clan culture (flexible, internal) values collaboration and cohesion; adhocracy is flexible and external, market is control and external, and hierarchy is control and internal.

Question 44Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Goleman's model of emotional intelligence treats self-awareness as foundational. What does self-awareness primarily involve?

  1. Recognizing one's own emotions and their effects on work Correct answer.
  2. Influencing others toward a desired outcome
  3. Regulating one's disruptive impulses and moods under pressure at work
  4. Reading the emotions of others accurately

Explanation

In Goleman's framework, self-awareness is the accurate recognition of one's emotions and their effect on performance and relationships. It is the foundation on which self-management, social awareness, and relationship management are built.

Question 45Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Which practice most strengthens a succession plan for senior leadership in a public agency?

  1. Completing a replacement chart only when a vacancy is announced
  2. Developing internal candidates against a validated competency profile Correct answer.
  3. Restricting candidate pools to the current executive team for confidentiality
  4. Outsourcing all senior hiring to an external search firm

Explanation

Effective succession planning is continuous: it identifies high-potential internal candidates, assesses them against a validated competency profile, and develops them through assignments and coaching long before a vacancy occurs. Reactive charts or full outsourcing do not build a leadership pipeline.

Question 46Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

The 4-D cycle of appreciative inquiry proceeds through which sequence?

  1. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve
  2. Denial, Defense, Depression, Development
  3. Diagnose, Decide, Deploy, Defend
  4. Discovery, Dream, Design, Destiny Correct answer.

Explanation

Appreciative inquiry's 4-D cycle is Discovery (identifying what works), Dream (envisioning possibilities), Design (planning the preferred future), and Destiny (implementation). It builds change from existing strengths rather than from deficits.

Question 47Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

When an issue is important to both parties and there is time to explore alternatives, which conflict-handling style is usually most effective?

  1. Avoiding
  2. Accommodating
  3. Competing
  4. Collaborating Correct answer.

Explanation

Collaborating seeks a solution that fully addresses both parties' concerns and fits important issues when time and trust permit. Competing suits emergencies, avoiding suits trivial issues, and accommodating suits cases where the relationship matters more than the issue.

Question 48Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Self-determination theory identifies three basic psychological needs that support intrinsic motivation. They are:

  1. Security, status, and compensation
  2. Autonomy, equity, and transparency
  3. Autonomy, competence, and relatedness Correct answer.
  4. Recognition, feedback, and challenge

Explanation

Deci and Ryan's self-determination theory holds that intrinsic motivation flourishes when autonomy, competence, and relatedness are satisfied. Controlling rewards and pressure can undermine intrinsic motivation even when pay is adequate.

Question 49Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Action research in organizational development typically begins with:

  1. Collecting and analyzing data with the members affected Correct answer.
  2. Rewriting job descriptions to reflect new reporting relationships
  3. Benchmarking other organizations' best practices before acting
  4. Selecting an off-the-shelf intervention and implementing it quickly

Explanation

Action research is a collaborative cycle of problem diagnosis, data collection and feedback with the client system, action planning, implementation, and evaluation. It starts by involving members in gathering and analyzing data about their own situation.

Question 50Leadership, Organizational Development, and Culture

Which is most often cited as the root cause of employee resistance to organizational change?

  1. A perceived loss of status, competence, or security Correct answer.
  2. Insufficient technical training in new software applications
  3. A general human preference for routine tasks over complex ones
  4. A formal requirement to document the change process

Explanation

Resistance usually reflects rational concerns such as loss of status, competence, security, or valued relationships rather than simple inertia or training gaps. Leaders address it through early communication, participation, and support during transition.