CRN flashcards
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32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- ASA physical status I
- A normal, healthy patient without systemic disease. The ASA class is assigned before sedation or anesthesia to communicate procedural risk.
- Mallampati class III
- With the mouth open, only the soft and hard palate are visible. Classes III and IV suggest a potentially difficult airway. Pre-sedation airway assessment is required.
- Sedation vital sign interval
- During moderate sedation, heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are documented at least every 5 to 15 minutes with continuous observation of ventilation.
- Pre-sedation clear liquid fast
- Clear liquids are permitted up to 2 hours before sedation, while breast milk requires 4 hours and formula, nonhuman milk, or a light meal requires 6 hours.
- Glasgow Coma Scale scoring
- Eye, verbal, and motor responses are scored separately and summed. Totals range from 3, indicating deep coma, to 15, indicating full consciousness.
- Metformin with iodinated contrast
- For patients with eGFR 30 to 59, hold metformin at the time of iodinated contrast and for 48 hours afterward, restarting only when renal function is confirmed stable.
- CI-AKI diagnostic threshold
- Contrast-induced acute kidney injury is a serum creatinine rise of at least 0.3 mg/dL, or 50 percent above baseline, within 48 to 72 hours of contrast administration.
- Extravasation first actions
- Stop the injection, remove the cannula, elevate the affected limb, apply a cold compress, document the volume and site, and notify the radiologist promptly.
- Vasovagal reaction signs
- Bradycardia, hypotension, pallor, and diaphoresis. Place the patient supine or in Trendelenburg, give IV fluids, and use atropine if bradycardia persists.
- Epinephrine for contrast reaction
- The adult dose is 0.3 to 0.5 mg intramuscularly of 1:1000 concentration for hypotension or bronchospasm; the pediatric dose is 0.01 mg per kg.
- Gadolinium and NSF
- Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis risk is greatest with linear group I agents when eGFR is below 30; macrocyclic agents are preferred when renal function is impaired.
- Flumazenil reversal
- A benzodiazepine antagonist given 0.2 mg IV and titrated to effect up to 1 mg. It can precipitate seizures in patients who chronically use benzodiazepines.
- Barium contraindication
- Barium sulfate is avoided when bowel perforation or obstruction is suspected because leakage causes peritonitis. Water-soluble iodinated contrast is used instead.
- ALARA
- An acronym stating that radiation exposure should be kept as low as reasonably achievable, balancing diagnostic image quality against the dose delivered to patient and staff.
- Inverse square law
- Radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source, so doubling the distance from the source reduces exposure to one quarter.
- Occupational dose limits
- Radiation workers are limited to 50 mSv per year effective dose, 150 mSv to the lens, and 500 mSv to the extremities or skin.
- Declared pregnancy fetal limit
- After a worker declares pregnancy in writing, the conceptus dose limit is 0.5 mSv in any month and 5 mSv over the entire gestation.
- MRI zone IV
- The magnet room itself. Only patients and personnel who have been screened and cleared may enter, because ferromagnetic projectile risk is highest there.
- Lead apron attenuation
- A 0.5 mm lead-equivalent apron attenuates roughly 90 to 95 percent of scattered radiation at typical fluoroscopic energies and is inspected annually for cracks.
- Dosimeter placement
- Personnel badges are worn at the collar outside the lead apron and exchanged monthly or quarterly to record both deep and shallow radiation dose.
- Teach-back method
- The patient restates instructions in their own words. It verifies comprehension and exposes misunderstandings more reliably than asking whether they understand.
- Health literacy reading level
- Printed patient education should be written at a fifth- to sixth-grade reading level, because average adult health literacy is well below general reading ability.
- Informed consent elements
- Disclosure of the diagnosis, proposed procedure, risks, benefits, alternatives, and the right to refuse, all documented before the procedure begins.
- Qualified medical interpreter
- Required for patients with limited English proficiency. Family members, especially children, should not interpret consent discussions or complex discharge instructions.
- Claustrophobia in MRI
- Prone positioning, mirror glasses, reassurance, a companion in the room, and shorter scan sequences reduce anxiety; anxiolytics may be ordered before the scan.
- Toddler preparation approach
- Toddlers fear separation and bodily intrusion, so preparation uses brief, simple explanations, parent presence, and comfort objects rather than detailed teaching.
- Sentinel event
- An unexpected occurrence involving death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm that requires immediate investigation and a formal root cause analysis.
- PDSA cycle
- Plan, Do, Study, Act. A rapid-cycle improvement method in which a small change is tested, measured, and refined before being adopted more widely.
- Nurse Practice Act
- State legislation that defines nursing scope of practice, licensure, and discipline. Institutional policy may be stricter but can never expand the legal scope.
- Incident report
- A confidential internal record of an unexpected event, written factually and objectively. It is not filed in the medical record and is not mentioned in charting.
- Malpractice four elements
- Duty owed to the patient, breach of the standard of care, causation linking that breach to the injury, and measurable damages. All four must be proven.
- HIPAA breach notification
- Covered entities must notify affected individuals within 60 days of discovering a breach of unsecured protected health information, with regulatory reporting as required.