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CRN practice questions

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Question 1Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A technologist asks the nurse to confirm the identity of a patient before a contrast-enhanced CT. Which pair of identifiers is acceptable?

  1. Full name and date of birth Correct answer.
  2. The patient's stated name alone
  3. Referring physician name and diagnosis
  4. Room number and bed assignment

Explanation

Two independent identifiers must be used, and the patient's name paired with a unique personal identifier such as date of birth or medical record number meets the standard. Identifiers tied to location or to another person do not verify that the right patient is present.

Question 2Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient is about to sign the consent form for a CT-guided biopsy. Which action belongs to the nurse?

  1. Determining whether the patient is legally competent
  2. Obtaining the physician's countersignature after the patient signs
  3. Explaining the procedure's risks and benefits to the patient
  4. Confirming understanding and witnessing the signature Correct answer.

Explanation

Obtaining informed consent is the responsibility of the provider performing the procedure; the nurse verifies that the patient understands what was explained and witnesses the signature. Competence is a legal and medical determination made by the provider, not the nurse.

Question 3Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient is scheduled for a procedure under moderate sedation. How long before the procedure should clear liquids be withheld?

  1. 2 hours Correct answer.
  2. 12 hours
  3. 6 hours
  4. 8 hours

Explanation

Standard fasting guidance permits clear liquids up to 2 hours before sedation because they empty rapidly from the stomach. Longer intervals apply to breast milk, light meals, and fatty or fried foods.

Question 4Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A 24-year-old woman is scheduled for an abdominal CT. Which question is most important to ask during the pre-procedure assessment?

  1. Whether she has ever been diagnosed with a pelvic infection or endometriosis
  2. Whether she has any children living at home
  3. The date of her last menstrual period and whether pregnancy is possible Correct answer.
  4. The name of the medication she takes for diabetes

Explanation

For any patient of childbearing potential, pregnancy status must be assessed so that the examination can be modified, deferred, or discussed with the patient and provider. Menstrual history combined with a direct question about possible pregnancy is the standard screen.

Question 5Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which laboratory result should be reviewed before a patient receives iodinated intravenous contrast?

  1. Serum creatinine with calculated eGFR Correct answer.
  2. Hemoglobin level
  3. Platelet count
  4. White blood cell count

Explanation

Renal function determines whether a patient is at risk for contrast-associated acute kidney injury and whether prophylactic measures or an alternative study are needed. Creatinine alone is less informative than the eGFR calculated from it.

Question 6Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient scheduled for a contrast-enhanced CT reports a shellfish allergy. How should this information affect preparation?

  1. Reduce the contrast dose to one-half the usual volume
  2. Give diphenhydramine 50 mg by mouth one hour before the scan
  3. Proceed with standard preparation; no premedication is required Correct answer.
  4. Cancel the study and document a permanent contrast allergy

Explanation

Shellfish allergy is no longer considered a risk factor for reacting to iodinated contrast, because the allergen involved is not iodine itself. Premedication is reserved for patients with a prior contrast reaction or other specific indications.

Question 7Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient will receive contrast through a power injector for a CT angiogram. Which access site is preferred?

  1. A vein distal to a site that infiltrated earlier in the day
  2. A small vein on the dorsum of the hand
  3. A large antecubital vein Correct answer.
  4. A dorsal vein of the foot

Explanation

Power injection requires a large, straight vein that can tolerate high flow rates, and the antecubital fossa typically provides the largest peripheral vessel. Lower-extremity and small distal veins carry a higher risk of extravasation and are avoided when possible.

Question 8Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which instruction is essential when preparing a patient for an MRI?

  1. Fast for 12 hours before the appointment
  2. Remove all metal objects and report any implants or devices Correct answer.
  3. Keep hearing aids in place throughout the scan
  4. Bring a driver because sedation is routine for all MRI studies

Explanation

The magnetic field can move ferromagnetic objects and heat or malfunction implanted devices, so a thorough metal and implant screen is mandatory. Hearing aids and other electronics are removed before entering the scan room.

Question 9Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which instruction is standard for a patient scheduled for an FDG PET/CT?

  1. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal one hour before the injection
  2. Fast for at least 4 to 6 hours before the injection Correct answer.
  3. Exercise vigorously for 30 minutes immediately before arrival
  4. Drink only sugary fluids on the morning of the scan

Explanation

Fasting lowers serum glucose and insulin so that the radiotracer is taken up preferentially by tumor tissue rather than muscle. Blood glucose is checked before injection, and elevated values may require rescheduling.

Question 10Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

An unaccompanied 10-year-old arrives for a contrast-enhanced CT. Who may provide informed consent?

  1. A parent or legal guardian Correct answer.
  2. Any adult who accompanies the child
  3. The child, using an age-appropriate assent form
  4. The radiology nurse on duty

Explanation

Minors cannot legally consent to medical care, so consent must come from a parent or legally authorized guardian. The child's assent is sought in addition to, but never instead of, guardian permission.

Question 11Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with a prior moderate reaction to iodinated contrast needs an elective contrast-enhanced CT. Which premedication regimen is standard?

  1. Prednisone 50 mg by mouth 13 hours before the study, with no antihistamine needed
  2. Prednisone 50 mg by mouth at 13, 7, and 1 hour before, plus diphenhydramine 50 mg by mouth 1 hour before Correct answer.
  3. Methylprednisolone 125 mg IV immediately before the study, followed by oral prednisone for 3 days
  4. Diphenhydramine 50 mg by mouth 1 hour before the study, repeated immediately after the injection

Explanation

The standard elective regimen combines a corticosteroid started 13 hours before contrast, repeated at 7 and 1 hour, with an antihistamine 1 hour before the injection. The staggered steroid doses allow adequate time for the anti-inflammatory effect to develop.

Question 12Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

For an elective contrast-enhanced study in a patient with no other risk factors, which eGFR value generally allows contrast administration without additional renal precautions?

  1. 30 mL/min/1.73 m² or higher Correct answer.
  2. 90 mL/min/1.73 m² or higher
  3. 60 mL/min/1.73 m² or higher
  4. 75 mL/min/1.73 m² or higher

Explanation

Current guidance considers an eGFR of at least 30 mL/min/1.73 m² acceptable for elective iodinated contrast in the absence of other risk factors. Below that threshold, the indication is reconsidered and preventive measures or alternatives are discussed.

Question 13Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient who takes warfarin is scheduled for a percutaneous core needle biopsy. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

  1. Administer vitamin K from unit stock without a provider order
  2. Proceed with the biopsy because warfarin does not affect bleeding risk
  3. Verify the current INR and notify the ordering provider before the procedure Correct answer.
  4. Cancel the procedure and require permanent discontinuation of warfarin

Explanation

Anticoagulation increases bleeding risk with needle procedures, so the INR must be known and the provider who ordered the biopsy must decide whether to adjust therapy. Nurses do not independently reverse anticoagulation.

Question 14Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which monitoring practice is standard during moderate sedation?

  1. Vital signs recorded every 30 minutes, with pulse oximetry checked when the patient becomes drowsy
  2. Blood pressure and pulse checked at the start and at the end of the procedure only
  3. Continuous pulse oximetry with vital signs documented at least every 5 minutes Correct answer.
  4. Intermittent pulse oximetry used only when the patient appears excessively sleepy or cyanotic

Explanation

Moderate sedation requires continuous oxygenation monitoring plus frequent, typically five-minute, vital sign documentation so that trends toward oversedation are detected early. A dedicated observer whose sole job is monitoring is also required.

Question 15Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

During a power-injected contrast study, a patient reports burning pain at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

  1. Complete the injection and apply a warm compress afterward
  2. Slow the injection rate and continue while watching the site
  3. Flush the cannula with 10 mL of saline and then resume
  4. Stop the injection immediately and assess the site Correct answer.

Explanation

Pain or burning during injection suggests extravasation, and halting the injection limits the volume of contrast that enters the tissue. Assessment, documentation, and the appropriate warm or cold compress follow once flow has stopped.

Question 16Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which intervention best reduces the risk of contrast-associated acute kidney injury in a high-risk patient?

  1. Oral NSAIDs to maintain renal blood flow
  2. Intravenous furosemide 40 mg immediately before the contrast
  3. Intravenous isotonic saline before and after the contrast Correct answer.
  4. Strict fluid restriction for 12 hours before and after the study

Explanation

Volume expansion with isotonic crystalloid maintains renal perfusion and is the mainstay of prevention in at-risk patients. Nephrotoxic drugs are avoided and the contrast volume is kept as low as diagnostically acceptable.

Question 17Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with mild claustrophobia is scheduled for a 45-minute MRI. Which preparation is most appropriate?

  1. Explain each step, provide a call device, and offer prism glasses Correct answer.
  2. Instruct the patient to keep both eyes closed and remain silent throughout
  3. Administer an anxiolytic from unit stock before the patient enters the room
  4. Cancel the MRI and recommend an alternative modality without discussion

Explanation

Orienting the patient, giving control through a call device, and using mirrors or prism glasses reduce anxiety and allow many patients to complete the study. Sedation is considered only when these measures fail and a provider order exists.

Question 18Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which instruction should a patient receive before a scheduled gallbladder ultrasound?

  1. Drink 1 liter of water 30 minutes before the examination
  2. Eat a fatty meal one hour before the examination
  3. Fast for 6 to 8 hours before the examination Correct answer.
  4. Take a stimulant laxative the night before the examination

Explanation

Fasting allows the gallbladder to remain distended and reduces bowel gas, improving visualization. A fatty meal would contract the gallbladder and obscure the lumen.

Question 19Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with type 2 diabetes who takes metformin has an eGFR of 45 mL/min/1.73 m² and is scheduled for a contrast-enhanced CT. What is the appropriate action?

  1. Hold metformin at the time of contrast and for 48 hours afterward, then recheck renal function before restarting Correct answer.
  2. Discontinue metformin permanently and arrange conversion to insulin therapy before the study
  3. Continue metformin and recheck the serum creatinine in one week
  4. No change is needed because the eGFR is above the 30 mL/min threshold used for metformin

Explanation

When eGFR is between 30 and 59 mL/min/1.73 m², metformin is withheld at the time of contrast and for 48 hours afterward, with renal function rechecked before it is resumed. This prevents accumulation of metformin if contrast precipitates a decline in kidney function.

Question 20Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which item in a patient's history most increases the risk of an acute allergic-like reaction to iodinated contrast?

  1. Bilateral knee osteoarthritis
  2. Chronic hyperlipidemia
  3. A prior reaction to iodinated contrast medium Correct answer.
  4. Poorly controlled hypertension

Explanation

A previous contrast reaction is the strongest predictor of a subsequent reaction and is the main indication for premedication or a change in contrast agent. Asthma and multiple allergies add risk but are weaker predictors.

Question 21Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

During pre-procedure assessment a patient reports chest pain and has a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. What is the priority nursing action?

  1. Stop the preparation and notify the provider immediately Correct answer.
  2. Give an oral beta blocker from unit stock and proceed with the scan
  3. Continue the preparation and document the findings after the scan
  4. Move the patient rapidly through the scanner to save time

Explanation

New chest pain with tachycardia may signal an acute cardiac event and takes priority over the scheduled examination. The study is deferred while the patient is evaluated, and a medication is never given without an order.

Question 22Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A breastfeeding mother is scheduled for an iodinated contrast-enhanced CT. What should the nurse tell her about breastfeeding?

  1. She can continue breastfeeding without interruption Correct answer.
  2. She should pump and discard all milk for 48 hours after the study
  3. She must stop breastfeeding permanently after the study
  4. She should delay the scan until she has completely weaned

Explanation

The amount of iodinated contrast that reaches breast milk is very small and poorly absorbed by the infant's gut, so no interruption or discarding of milk is recommended. The mother may feed normally after the examination.

Question 23Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with limited English proficiency is to sign consent for an interventional procedure. Which action is required?

  1. Ask the patient's adult child to interpret the discussion
  2. Have the patient sign the English form and explain it afterward
  3. Use a qualified medical interpreter during the consent discussion Correct answer.
  4. Rely on written pictures and diagrams instead of spoken words

Explanation

Consent is valid only when the patient understands it, so a qualified medical interpreter must convey the discussion and the form's content. Family members, especially minors, should not serve as interpreters for consent.

Question 24Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with a known pheochromocytoma requires contrast-enhanced imaging. Which precaution is most important?

  1. Confirm adequate alpha-adrenergic blockade and monitor blood pressure closely Correct answer.
  2. Proceed without special precautions because contrast is safe in this condition
  3. Reduce the contrast volume by half and observe the patient for 1 hour after the study
  4. Give a beta blocker alone 30 minutes before the scan to blunt the pressor response

Explanation

Contrast can trigger catecholamine release and a hypertensive crisis, so alpha blockade must be established before the study and blood pressure monitored continuously. Beta blockade alone is dangerous because it leaves alpha-mediated vasoconstriction unopposed.

Question 25Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

After an extravasation of iodinated contrast, which finding requires urgent surgical consultation?

  1. Progressive swelling with severe pain and delayed capillary refill Correct answer.
  2. A 2 cm area of faint erythema without induration
  3. Mild tenderness that resolves within 1 hour of the injection
  4. Transient tingling that resolves when the arm is elevated

Explanation

Escalating swelling, severe pain, and impaired perfusion suggest compartment syndrome, which may require fasciotomy. These findings warrant immediate escalation rather than routine conservative management.

Question 26Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient is scheduled for a procedure requiring moderate sedation. How long before the procedure should clear liquids be withheld?

  1. Six hours
  2. Two hours Correct answer.
  3. Eight hours
  4. Four hours

Explanation

Standard fasting guidelines require at least 2 hours without clear liquids before moderate sedation. Longer intervals apply to breast milk, light meals, and fatty meals, not to clear liquids.

Question 27Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which pair of identifiers is acceptable for verifying a patient before a radiologic procedure?

  1. Bed location and age
  2. Full name and date of birth Correct answer.
  3. Room number and full name
  4. Diagnosis and medical record number

Explanation

Two independent identifiers, such as full name and date of birth or medical record number, must be used. Room or bed location and diagnosis are not unique identifiers.

Question 28Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which element must be confirmed during a time-out immediately before an invasive radiologic procedure?

  1. Patient identity, procedure, and site Correct answer.
  2. Insurance authorization and referral
  3. Contrast volume and injection rate
  4. Sedation depth and pain score

Explanation

A time-out is a final verification that the correct patient, procedure, and site are identified and that relevant documents and equipment are ready. It occurs immediately before the procedure begins.

Question 29Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A 22-year-old woman is scheduled for an abdominal CT and cannot recall her last menstrual period. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Delay the scan until her next menstrual cycle
  2. Perform a pregnancy test according to facility policy Correct answer.
  3. Ask her to sign a waiver before scanning
  4. Proceed with the scan and document her uncertainty

Explanation

When pregnancy status is uncertain, facility policy should guide pregnancy testing before abdominal ionizing radiation. A waiver does not reliably determine pregnancy status.

Question 30Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient reports an allergy to povidone-iodine skin antiseptic. How should this affect preparation for iodinated contrast?

  1. Yes, give the same premedication as for prior contrast reaction
  2. Only low-osmolar contrast may be used
  3. No, the allergy is to povidone-iodine, not to contrast Correct answer.
  4. Yes, iodinated contrast is absolutely contraindicated

Explanation

Povidone-iodine allergy is a contact allergy to the antiseptic, not evidence of cross-reactivity with iodinated contrast media. Standard contrast precautions still apply, but this history alone does not require premedication or avoidance.

Question 31Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with a documented latex allergy is scheduled for an image-guided procedure. Which preparation is most important?

  1. Use latex-free supplies and a latex-safe environment Correct answer.
  2. Premedicate with diphenhydramine before the procedure
  3. Schedule the procedure as the last case of the day
  4. Apply a barrier cream to the patient's skin

Explanation

The priority is preventing exposure by using latex-free gloves, catheters, tubing, and other supplies in a latex-safe environment. Premedication does not reliably prevent latex anaphylaxis.

Question 32Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which implanted device is considered an absolute contraindication to MRI unless specifically documented as MRI-safe?

  1. Cochlear implant Correct answer.
  2. Titanium orthopedic screw
  3. Coronary artery stent
  4. Surgical staple

Explanation

Cochlear implants contain magnets and are generally contraindicated unless the specific device is documented as MRI-conditional. Many titanium orthopedic devices, stents, and staples are MRI-safe or conditional.

Question 33Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with a cardiac pacemaker is scheduled for MRI. What is the first step?

  1. Proceed with the scan using a body coil
  2. Confirm the device is MRI-conditional per protocol Correct answer.
  3. Obtain a routine chest radiograph before scanning
  4. Remove the pacemaker before the scan

Explanation

The device must be identified as MRI-conditional and managed according to its manufacturer protocol, often with reprogramming and monitoring. Removing a pacemaker is not a routine first step for MRI.

Question 34Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which patient is at greatest risk for nephrogenic systemic fibrosis after gadolinium administration?

  1. A patient with a history of shellfish allergy
  2. A patient with well-controlled asthma
  3. A patient with type 2 diabetes and normal renal function
  4. A patient with severe CKD and eGFR below 30 Correct answer.

Explanation

Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis is associated with gadolinium exposure in patients with severe renal impairment, especially eGFR below 30 mL/min/1.73 m². Renal function should be assessed before gadolinium in at-risk patients.

Question 35Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with untreated Graves disease is scheduled for an iodinated contrast-enhanced CT. Which complication is most concerning?

  1. Thyroid storm Correct answer.
  2. Myasthenic crisis
  3. Acute gout flare
  4. Acute hypoglycemia

Explanation

An iodine load can precipitate thyrotoxicosis or thyroid storm in a patient with uncontrolled hyperthyroidism. The ordering provider should be aware so that the study and thyroid management can be planned.

Question 36Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient who receives hemodialysis three times weekly is scheduled for an iodinated contrast-enhanced CT. What is the most appropriate timing consideration?

  1. Coordinate dialysis to occur after contrast per protocol Correct answer.
  2. Give contrast only immediately before dialysis
  3. Cancel the CT because contrast is absolutely contraindicated
  4. Delay dialysis for 48 hours after contrast administration

Explanation

Iodinated contrast can be administered to patients on hemodialysis when clinically indicated, with coordination so that dialysis removes contrast and manages volume status. The exact timing follows the nephrology protocol.

Question 37Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which medication class can increase the risk of contrast-associated acute kidney injury and should be reviewed before contrast administration?

  1. Proton pump inhibitors
  2. Inhaled corticosteroids
  3. NSAIDs Correct answer.
  4. Beta-adrenergic blockers

Explanation

NSAIDs can reduce renal perfusion and increase the risk of kidney injury when combined with iodinated contrast. Their use should be reviewed and possibly held according to protocol.

Question 38Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which condition is associated with an increased risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?

  1. Mild seasonal allergies
  2. Localized eczema
  3. Well-controlled hypothyroidism
  4. Multiple myeloma Correct answer.

Explanation

Multiple myeloma, chronic kidney disease, diabetes, dehydration, and advanced age are recognized risk factors for contrast-induced nephropathy. Renal function and hydration should be assessed before contrast.

Question 39Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which element is essential for informed consent to be valid?

  1. The patient has capacity and agrees voluntarily Correct answer.
  2. A family member must witness the patient's signature
  3. The consent form must be signed by a notary public
  4. The patient must receive sedation before signing the form

Explanation

Valid informed consent requires that the patient have decision-making capacity, receive adequate disclosure, understand the information, and agree voluntarily. A notary or family witness is not a universal requirement.

Question 40Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with a do-not-resuscitate order is scheduled for a procedure under moderate sedation. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Discuss modifying the DNR order during the procedure Correct answer.
  2. Ask the family to revoke the DNR order in writing
  3. Cancel the procedure because DNR orders preclude sedation
  4. Automatically suspend the DNR order for all procedures

Explanation

Patients with DNR orders may still undergo procedures with sedation, but the team should discuss goals of care and whether the DNR order will be modified during the procedure according to policy. This is an individualized decision.

Question 41Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient with severe obstructive sleep apnea is scheduled for moderate sedation. Which precaution is most important?

  1. Use a benzodiazepine alone to reduce respiratory depression
  2. Discharge the patient immediately after the procedure
  3. Monitor ventilation closely and have airway equipment ready Correct answer.
  4. Position the patient supine and avoid stimulation

Explanation

Severe OSA increases the risk of airway obstruction and hypoventilation during and after sedation. Continuous monitoring of oxygenation and ventilation, careful drug titration, and ready airway equipment are essential.

Question 42Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which patient is at highest risk for aspiration during moderate sedation?

  1. A patient who fasted for 8 hours
  2. A patient with a full stomach or bowel obstruction Correct answer.
  3. A patient with well-controlled hypertension
  4. A patient who took routine medications with a sip of water

Explanation

A full stomach or bowel obstruction increases the risk of regurgitation and aspiration during sedation. Fasting guidelines and careful airway assessment reduce this risk.

Question 43Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which medication is used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation?

  1. Naloxone
  2. Dexmedetomidine
  3. Atropine
  4. Flumazenil Correct answer.

Explanation

Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naloxone reverses opioids, and atropine and dexmedetomidine have different roles.

Question 44Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Before administering intravenous contrast to a pediatric patient, which parameter is essential to verify for dosing?

  1. Weight in kilograms Correct answer.
  2. Height in centimeters
  3. Estimated adult dose
  4. Body surface area only

Explanation

Pediatric contrast doses are weight-based, so the child's weight in kilograms must be verified before administration. Height alone is not used for contrast dosing.

Question 45Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A 4-year-old child is scheduled for an MRI that will require sedation. Which preparation best supports the child's cooperation and safety?

  1. Give the child a toy to hold during the scan
  2. Tell the child the scan will be quick and painless
  3. Restrict parental presence until the scan is complete
  4. Use child-life preparation and allow a parent to stay Correct answer.

Explanation

Developmentally appropriate preparation, distraction, and parental presence reduce anxiety and improve cooperation in young children. The child-life specialist can tailor the approach to the child's age.

Question 46Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which instruction should a patient receive before a pelvic ultrasound?

  1. Drink water and arrive with a full bladder Correct answer.
  2. Fast for 12 hours before the examination
  3. Empty the bladder completely before the scan
  4. Avoid all fluids for 24 hours

Explanation

A full bladder displaces bowel loops and provides an acoustic window for transabdominal pelvic ultrasound. Fasting is not required for this examination.

Question 47Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

A patient is scheduled for an abdominal CT with oral contrast. Which instruction is appropriate?

  1. Drink oral contrast as instructed before the scan Correct answer.
  2. Avoid all oral intake for 24 hours before the scan
  3. Drink the contrast only after the scan is complete
  4. Take the contrast as an enema on the morning of the scan

Explanation

Oral contrast must be ingested over a prescribed interval before the scan so that it opacifies the bowel. Taking it after the scan or as an enema does not provide the intended bowel opacification.

Question 48Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which instruction should be given to a patient before a chest CT to reduce motion artifact?

  1. Breathe rapidly during the scan
  2. Lie still but continue normal breathing
  3. Hold your breath at full inspiration Correct answer.
  4. Cough forcefully throughout the scan

Explanation

Holding the breath at full inspiration reduces respiratory motion and improves image quality for chest CT. The technologist coaches the patient immediately before image acquisition.

Question 49Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which intravenous catheter is preferred for power-injected contrast administration?

  1. A 24-gauge catheter in a hand vein
  2. An 18-gauge catheter in an antecubital vein Correct answer.
  3. A 22-gauge catheter in the forearm vein
  4. A 20-gauge catheter in a foot vein

Explanation

Power injectors require a sufficiently large catheter in a robust vein, typically 18- to 20-gauge in the antecubital fossa. Smaller catheters and distal or lower-extremity sites increase the risk of extravasation.

Question 50Patient Assessment and Preparation for Radiologic Procedures

Which site is contraindicated for intravenous contrast injection?

  1. The hand on the dominant side
  2. The arm with an arteriovenous fistula Correct answer.
  3. The antecubital fossa of either arm
  4. The forearm opposite the fistula

Explanation

An arm with an arteriovenous fistula or vascular graft should be avoided to protect the access and reduce the risk of thrombosis or infection. The opposite arm is preferred when it has adequate venous access.