Series 24 flashcards
Series 24 · Build recall with a focused review session.
32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- Form BD
- Uniform broker-dealer registration application filed through Web CRD; it must be amended within 30 days of any material change to the information it contains.
- Form U5 deadline
- Uniform termination notice for an associated person; it must be filed with CRD within 30 days after the person's association with the member firm ends.
- Statutory disqualification
- A registration bar arising from events such as a securities-related felony conviction, injunction, or SEC order entered within the past 10 years, unless relief is granted.
- Regulatory Element timing
- Computer-based continuing education due within 120 days of the second anniversary of registration and every three years thereafter; until completed, the representative's registration is inactive.
- Firm Element training
- Annual training for registered persons based on a written needs analysis covering relevant products, rules, and sales practices; it must be documented and delivered each year.
- Minimum net capital
- Rule 15c3-1 sets a $5,000 minimum for firms that receive but do not hold customer funds, and $250,000 for firms that carry customer accounts.
- Form BR purpose
- Registers each branch office through CRD; a branch is generally a non-residential location where one or more associated persons regularly conduct retail securities business.
- Six-year retention rule
- Rule 17a-4 requires most books and records to be kept six years with the first two years readily accessible; communications such as correspondence are kept three years.
- Annual compliance meeting
- FINRA Rule 3110 requires each registered representative to attend at least one meeting each year at which compliance matters relevant to the firm are discussed.
- Business continuity plan
- FINRA Rule 4370 requires a written plan naming a designated officer, addressing emergency scenarios, and reviewed and updated at least annually by the firm.
- Gift limit rule
- FINRA Rule 3220 limits gifts and gratuities to employees of other firms to $100 per person per year; business entertainment is excluded but must be reasonable and recorded.
- Outside business activity notice
- FINRA Rule 3270 requires an associated person to give the firm prior written notice before accepting outside employment or compensation so the activity can be supervised.
- SAR filing deadline
- A suspicious activity report must be filed with FinCEN within 30 days of initial detection, or within 60 days when no suspect has been identified.
- AML program elements
- FINRA requires a written AML program with a designated compliance officer, ongoing training, independent testing at least every 12 months, and customer identification procedures.
- Form CRS
- A short relationship summary that must be delivered to retail investors at the start of the relationship and again after any material change to its information.
- Variable annuity principal review
- FINRA Rule 2330 requires a principal to review and approve a deferred variable annuity application before submission, or within seven business days after submission to the insurer.
- Trusted contact requirement
- FINRA Rule 4512 requires reasonable efforts to obtain the name and contact information of a trusted contact person for every natural-person customer account.
- Exploitation hold period
- FINRA Rule 2165 permits a temporary hold on disbursements when financial exploitation is reasonably suspected, for 15 business days, extendable once by 10 business days.
- Rule 10b-10 confirmation
- Requires a written confirmation at or before settlement disclosing the firm's capacity, its remuneration, and whether it received payment for order flow on the transaction.
- Account record updates
- Rule 17a-3 customer account records must be updated at least every 36 months, and a principal must approve an options account before the first options transaction.
- Statement frequency
- FINRA Rule 2231 requires customer account statements at least quarterly, and monthly for accounts with activity during the month, sent to the customer's designated address.
- Market access rule
- Rule 15c3-5 requires firms with market access to apply pre-trade financial and regulatory risk controls and to have the CEO certify those controls annually.
- Short sale locate
- Reg SHO Rule 203 prohibits a short sale unless the firm has borrowed the security or has reasonable grounds to believe it can be borrowed by settlement date.
- Alternative uptick rule
- Rule 201 restricts short sales to a price above the current national best bid for the remainder of the day and the following day after a 10% price decline.
- Manning rule
- FINRA Rule 5320 generally bars a member from trading its own account at a price that would satisfy an executable customer order the firm is holding.
- Five percent markup guideline
- FINRA Rule 5210 requires fair markups and markdowns; a markup above 5% of the prevailing market price is presumed unfair unless the firm documents justification.
- Circuit breaker thresholds
- Market-wide circuit breakers halt trading for 15 minutes at 7% and 13% declines in the S&P 500 and close the market for the day at a 20% decline.
- New issue restricted persons
- FINRA Rule 5130 bars allocating new issue shares to broker-dealer personnel, their immediate family members, and finders, subject to specific defined exceptions.
- Spinning prohibition
- FINRA Rule 5131 prohibits allocating IPO shares to executives or directors of investment banking clients as a reward for, or inducement to, banking business.
- Research quiet period
- Under FINRA Rule 2241, a managing underwriter generally may not publish research until 10 days after an IPO or three days after a secondary offering.
- Research information barrier
- FINRA Rule 2241 requires separation between research and investment banking and bars banking personnel from directing analyst coverage decisions or analyst compensation.
- Passive market making
- Regulation M Rule 103 permits passive market making during a distribution, but passive bids may not exceed the highest independent bid for the security.