AANPCB A-GNP flashcards

32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.

Colorectal cancer screening ages

Average-risk adults should begin colorectal cancer screening at age 45 and continue through age 75; ages 76 to 85 require individualized decisions based on health and prior screening.

Lung cancer screening criteria

Annual low-dose CT is recommended for adults aged 50 to 80 with at least 20 pack-years who currently smoke or quit within 15 years.

Pneumococcal vaccination age threshold

Adults aged 50 years and older should receive pneumococcal vaccination according to current immunization schedules; older guidance used age 65, so verify the current recommendation.

Shingles vaccine schedule

Recombinant zoster vaccine is given as two doses two to six months apart to adults aged 50 and older, including those with prior shingles.

Diabetes screening threshold

Screen adults aged 35 to 70 who are overweight or obese for prediabetes and type 2 diabetes; repeat screening every three years if results are normal.

Statin decision threshold

For adults aged 40 to 75 with one or more cardiovascular risk factors, start a statin when estimated 10-year atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk is 10 percent or higher.

Cervical cancer screening intervals

Ages 21 to 29: cervical cytology every three years. Ages 30 to 65: cytology every three years, human papillomavirus testing every five years, or co-testing every five years.

Anion gap formula

Anion gap equals sodium minus the sum of chloride and bicarbonate; a normal value is roughly 8 to 12 mEq/L, with hypoalbuminemia lowering the gap.

Corrected sodium in hyperglycemia

Add 1.6 mEq/L to measured sodium for every 100 mg/dL that glucose exceeds 100 mg/dL; this estimates the sodium concentration after correcting for hyperglycemia.

Timed Up and Go fall risk

A Timed Up and Go score longer than 12 seconds indicates increased fall risk and should prompt multifactorial gait and balance assessment.

MoCA abnormal score

A Montreal Cognitive Assessment score below 26 is generally abnormal; add one point for fewer than 12 years of education to reduce false positives.

ABCDE melanoma criteria

ABCDE stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter greater than 6 mm, and Evolving lesion; any evolving lesion warrants evaluation.

Iron deficiency anemia pattern

Iron deficiency shows low ferritin, low serum iron, high total iron-binding capacity, and low transferrin saturation; ferritin is an acute-phase reactant and may be falsely normal.

Primary hypothyroidism labs

Primary hypothyroidism shows elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone and low free thyroxine; subclinical hypothyroidism has elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone with normal free thyroxine.

CURB-65 pneumonia score

CURB-65 assigns one point each for confusion, urea above 7 mmol/L, respiratory rate 30 or higher, low blood pressure, and age 65 or older.

Uncomplicated cystitis first-line

Nitrofurantoin for five days or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for three days is first-line for uncomplicated cystitis when local resistance is below 20 percent.

Bacterial sinusitis criteria

Bacterial rhinosinusitis is suggested by symptoms lasting more than 10 days, severe symptoms with fever for 3 to 4 days, or worsening after initial improvement.

Centor criteria for streptococcus

Centor criteria include tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical nodes, fever, and absence of cough; each positive criterion increases the likelihood of streptococcal pharyngitis.

COPD exacerbation antibiotic trigger

Antibiotics are indicated for COPD exacerbation when sputum purulence increases along with dyspnea or sputum volume, or when ventilatory support is required.

Wells score DVT components

Wells score for deep vein thrombosis includes active cancer, paralysis or recent immobilization, bed rest, tenderness along deep veins, leg swelling, calf swelling, pitting edema, collaterals, and prior DVT.

Hypertension stage 1 threshold

Stage 1 hypertension is systolic 130 to 139 mm Hg or diastolic 80 to 89 mm Hg; treatment target for most adults is below 130/80 mm Hg.

Diabetes A1c target

Most nonpregnant adults with type 2 diabetes aim for hemoglobin A1c below 7 percent; less stringent goals are appropriate with limited life expectancy or hypoglycemia risk.

HFrEF four drug pillars

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction uses four drug classes: renin-angiotensin system inhibitor or angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor, beta blocker, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitor.

CKD albuminuria staging

Chronic kidney disease staging uses estimated glomerular filtration rate categories G1 to G5 and albuminuria categories A1 to A3; albuminuria is quantified by urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio.

COPD spirometry criterion

A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70 confirms persistent airflow obstruction and supports a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

PHQ-9 severity cutoffs

Patient Health Questionnaire-9 scores of 5, 10, 15, and 20 represent mild, moderate, moderately severe, and severe depression; a score of 10 or higher often prompts treatment.

Delirium CAM features

The Confusion Assessment Method identifies delirium by acute onset with fluctuating course, inattention, plus either disorganized thinking or altered level of consciousness.

Pressure injury stage 2

A stage 2 pressure injury involves partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open ulcer or intact or ruptured blister; adipose tissue, tendon, muscle, or bone is not visible.

Urge incontinence mechanism

Urge incontinence results from involuntary detrusor contractions; behavioral therapy, pelvic floor training, and antimuscarinic or beta-3 agonist medications are treatment options.

Beers criteria purpose

The Beers criteria identify potentially inappropriate medications for older adults, including drugs that increase falls, delirium, bleeding, or anticholinergic burden.

Frailty gait speed marker

A gait speed slower than 0.8 meters per second suggests frailty or poor functional reserve and predicts adverse outcomes in older adults.

Elder abuse screening question

A direct screening question asks whether anyone has hurt, threatened, or made the older adult feel unsafe; positive responses require safety assessment and reporting according to law.