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PMGT-BC practice questions

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Question 1Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which document formally authorizes a project and gives the project manager authority to apply organizational resources to project activities?

  1. The work breakdown structure
  2. The project management plan
  3. The project charter Correct answer.
  4. The benefits management plan

Explanation

The project charter is the document issued by the sponsor or initiating authority that formally authorizes the project and names the project manager with the authority to commit resources. The project management plan is developed later and describes how the project will be executed. The WBS and benefits management plan support planning but do not confer authority.

Question 2Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is defining the people, groups, and organizations that can affect or be affected by the project. Which activity is being performed?

  1. Developing the project schedule
  2. Controlling quality
  3. Identifying stakeholders Correct answer.
  4. Estimating activity durations

Explanation

Stakeholder identification is the process of determining who can impact or be impacted by the project and recording relevant information about them. Schedule development, duration estimating, and quality control address time and product performance rather than stakeholder relationships.

Question 3Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project team is decomposing the total scope of work into progressively smaller deliverable-oriented components. What is the primary purpose of this decomposition?

  1. To replace the project schedule
  2. To create a basis for defining and controlling work Correct answer.
  3. To assign blame for delays
  4. To determine the project budget only

Explanation

Decomposition produces a work breakdown structure whose lowest levels, work packages, provide a basis for estimating, assigning, and controlling work. It supports schedule and cost planning but does not replace them. It is a planning tool, not an accountability mechanism for blame.

Question 4Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which project life cycle characteristic means that the ability to influence the final characteristics of the product is highest early in the project?

  1. Risk decreases over time
  2. Influence decreases over time Correct answer.
  3. Stakeholder engagement peaks at closure
  4. Cost of changes rises over time

Explanation

The ability of stakeholders to influence the final product is greatest at the start and diminishes as the project progresses and design decisions harden. Cost of changes and risk also change over time, but the statement about influence is the specific characteristic described.

Question 5Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is documenting how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. Which output is being produced?

  1. The project management plan Correct answer.
  2. The project charter
  3. The issue log
  4. The stakeholder register

Explanation

The project management plan integrates the subsidiary plans and baselines and describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. The charter authorizes the project, while the issue log and stakeholder register are supporting documents, not integration plans.

Question 6Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which type of organizational structure typically gives the project manager the greatest level of authority over project resources?

  1. Balanced matrix organization
  2. Projectized organization Correct answer.
  3. Weak matrix organization
  4. Functional organization

Explanation

In a projectized organization, team members report to the project manager and resources are dedicated to the project, giving the project manager the most authority. Functional and matrix structures share authority with functional managers to varying degrees.

Question 7Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is collecting the documented needs of stakeholders to define and manage project and product requirements. Which process is being described?

  1. Plan Quality Management
  2. Collect Requirements Correct answer.
  3. Control Scope
  4. Perform Integrated Change Control

Explanation

Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives. Scope control, quality planning, and change control act on requirements after they are defined but do not gather them.

Question 8Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

What is the primary role of a project sponsor?

  1. Approving each work package deliverable
  2. Providing resources and championing the project at the executive level Correct answer.
  3. Performing daily task execution
  4. Maintaining the risk register

Explanation

The sponsor authorizes the project, provides funding and resources, and advocates for it at senior levels. Day-to-day execution, deliverable acceptance, and risk register maintenance are project team and project manager responsibilities.

Question 9Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager wants to show the sequence and interdependencies of project activities over time. Which tool is most appropriate?

  1. A resource histogram
  2. A responsibility assignment matrix
  3. A Pareto chart
  4. A precedence diagram Correct answer.

Explanation

A precedence diagram uses nodes and arrows to show activity sequencing and dependencies. A responsibility assignment matrix maps people to work, a resource histogram shows resource usage over time, and a Pareto chart ranks causes of defects.

Question 10Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

An activity has an optimistic estimate of 4 days, a most likely estimate of 6 days, and a pessimistic estimate of 14 days. Using the PERT weighted average, what is the expected duration?

  1. 8 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 9 days
  4. 7 days Correct answer.

Explanation

The PERT weighted average is (optimistic + 4 × most likely + pessimistic) / 6, which equals (4 + 24 + 14) / 6 = 42 / 6 = 7 days. This weights the most likely value heavily while accounting for uncertainty.

Question 11Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager discovers that a key team member is unavailable during a critical week. She reassigns the work to another qualified team member. Which risk response strategy has been applied?

  1. Transfer
  2. Avoid
  3. Exploit
  4. Mitigate Correct answer.

Explanation

Mitigation reduces the probability or impact of a risk; reassigning work to a qualified person reduces the impact of the resource risk. Avoidance would eliminate the threat entirely by changing the plan, transfer shifts ownership to a third party, and exploit applies to opportunities.

Question 12Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project is running behind schedule, and the project manager wants to shorten the schedule by overlapping activities that were previously sequential. Which technique is being used?

  1. Scope reduction
  2. Resource leveling
  3. Crashing
  4. Fast tracking Correct answer.

Explanation

Fast tracking compresses the schedule by performing activities in parallel or overlapping them, which can increase risk and rework. Crashing adds resources to shorten duration, resource leveling adjusts start and finish dates based on resource constraints, and scope reduction changes the product.

Question 13Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is calculating the cost performance index (CPI) and finds it is 0.8. What does this indicate?

  1. The project is under budget
  2. The project has no cost variance
  3. The project is ahead of schedule
  4. The project is getting 80 cents of value for every dollar spent Correct answer.

Explanation

CPI is earned value divided by actual cost; a value below 1.0 means cost efficiency is poor, here earning 0.8 in value per dollar spent. It says nothing directly about schedule, and being under budget would correspond to a CPI above 1.0.

Question 14Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A stakeholder has high power and high interest in the project. Which engagement approach is most appropriate?

  1. Monitor with minimal effort
  2. Manage closely and engage actively Correct answer.
  3. Keep informed through general updates
  4. Ignore unless issues arise

Explanation

Stakeholders with high power and high interest should be managed closely because they can significantly affect the project and care about outcomes. Low-effort or passive approaches suit low power and low interest stakeholders.

Question 15Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a quality audit?

  1. To inspect each delivered product for defects
  2. To estimate the cost of quality
  3. To determine whether project processes comply with organizational policies and standards Correct answer.
  4. To approve change requests

Explanation

A quality audit is a structured review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational policies, processes, and procedures. Product inspection checks deliverables for defects, cost of quality estimation is a planning activity, and change approval belongs to integrated change control.

Question 16Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager needs to record, track, and resolve a disagreement between two team members about a technical approach. Where should this be documented?

  1. The assumption log
  2. The risk register
  3. The issue log Correct answer.
  4. The lessons learned register

Explanation

An issue log records and monitors issues, including conflicts, so they can be tracked to resolution. The risk register holds uncertain future events, the lessons learned register captures knowledge for future projects, and the assumption log records assumptions and constraints.

Question 17Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is building a network diagram and identifies that testing cannot begin until coding is complete. What type of dependency is this?

  1. Start-to-start dependency
  2. Finish-to-start dependency Correct answer.
  3. Discretionary dependency
  4. External dependency

Explanation

A finish-to-start relationship means the successor cannot start until the predecessor finishes, as with coding and testing. Discretionary and external describe the source of a dependency, not its logical type, and start-to-start means the successor starts when the predecessor starts.

Question 18Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is estimating costs by using historical data from a similar past project and adjusting for scale. Which estimating technique is this?

  1. Bottom-up estimating
  2. Analogous estimating Correct answer.
  3. Parametric estimating
  4. Three-point estimating

Explanation

Analogous estimating uses historical data from a similar project, adjusted for known differences, and is generally less accurate but faster. Bottom-up aggregates detailed component estimates, parametric uses statistical relationships between variables, and three-point accounts for uncertainty.

Question 19Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

During a status meeting, a team member reports that a deliverable will be two weeks late. What should the project manager do first?

  1. Escalate to the sponsor without analysis
  2. Update the schedule baseline immediately
  3. Assess the impact on the project objectives and identify options Correct answer.
  4. Reassign the work to another team member

Explanation

The project manager should first evaluate the impact of the variance on scope, schedule, cost, and quality and identify possible responses before acting. Baselining changes or escalating without analysis skips the assessment step, and reassignment may not address the cause.

Question 20Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is developing a responsibility assignment matrix. Which format explicitly identifies who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each activity?

  1. A network diagram
  2. A Gantt chart
  3. A RACI chart Correct answer.
  4. A control chart

Explanation

A RACI chart is a responsibility assignment matrix that designates responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed roles for activities. Gantt charts show schedules, network diagrams show dependencies, and control charts monitor process stability.

Question 21Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is planning communications and must consider the number of communication channels. A team of 8 people has how many communication channels?

  1. 36
  2. 56
  3. 16
  4. 28 Correct answer.

Explanation

The number of communication channels is n(n − 1)/2, so for 8 people it is 8 × 7 / 2 = 28. This formula illustrates how rapidly communication complexity grows as team size increases.

Question 22Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is reviewing a control chart and observes a data point outside the upper control limit. What is the appropriate interpretation?

  1. The specification limits have changed
  2. The sample size was too small to be meaningful
  3. The process is stable and needs no action
  4. The process is out of control and the cause should be investigated Correct answer.

Explanation

Points outside control limits signal special-cause variation, meaning the process is out of statistical control and the cause should be investigated. Control limits are derived from process data and are distinct from specification limits.

Question 23Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project has a planned value of 200,000, an earned value of 180,000, and an actual cost of 190,000. Which statement is accurate?

  1. The project is behind schedule and under budget
  2. The project is ahead of schedule and under budget
  3. The project is ahead of schedule and over budget
  4. The project is behind schedule and over budget Correct answer.

Explanation

Schedule variance is EV − PV = −20,000, indicating the project is behind schedule. Cost variance is EV − AC = −10,000, indicating it is over budget. Both variances are negative, so the project lags schedule and exceeds budget.

Question 24Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is deciding between buying a component and making it in-house. The lease of manufacturing equipment costs 50,000 and variable cost per unit is 20; the purchase price is 40 per unit. Above what quantity does making the component become cheaper?

  1. 1,250 units
  2. 3,000 units
  3. 5,000 units
  4. 2,500 units Correct answer.

Explanation

Set the make cost equal to the buy cost: 50,000 + 20Q = 40Q, so 50,000 = 20Q and Q = 2,500. Above 2,500 units, the lower variable cost of making outweighs the fixed equipment cost.

Question 25Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager uses a critical path method network and finds two paths: Path A has a duration of 18 days and Path B has a duration of 15 days. The project has a 20-day deadline. What is the total float on Path B?

  1. 0 days
  2. 3 days
  3. 2 days
  4. 5 days Correct answer.

Explanation

Total float is the difference between the deadline and the path duration, or equivalently the slack relative to the critical path. With a 20-day deadline and a 15-day path, Path B has 5 days of float. The critical path of 18 days has 2 days of float against the deadline.

Question 26Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which process group consists of processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project?

  1. Planning
  2. Executing
  3. Monitoring and Controlling
  4. Initiating Correct answer.

Explanation

The Initiating process group consists of those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

Question 27Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

What is the primary purpose of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

  1. To define the sequence of project activities
  2. To assign resources to project tasks
  3. To estimate the duration of each activity
  4. To decompose project scope into manageable work packages Correct answer.

Explanation

The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

Question 28Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which knowledge area includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully?

  1. Project Scope Management Correct answer.
  2. Project Schedule Management
  3. Project Quality Management
  4. Project Cost Management

Explanation

Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

Question 29Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

What is the difference between a project and ongoing operations?

  1. Projects do not require a project manager; operations do
  2. Projects are temporary and produce unique results; operations are ongoing and repetitive Correct answer.
  3. Projects are ongoing and repetitive; operations are temporary and unique
  4. Projects are always larger in budget than operations

Explanation

A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. Operations are ongoing and repetitive activities that produce the same product or service.

Question 30Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which of the following is a characteristic of a functional organizational structure?

  1. Project team members are co-located and report only to the project manager
  2. Staff are grouped by specialty and report to functional managers Correct answer.
  3. Project managers have high authority over project resources
  4. Resources are shared across projects through a dedicated project management office

Explanation

In a functional organization, staff are grouped by specialty, such as production, marketing, engineering, and accounting, and each department reports to a functional manager.

Question 31Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

What is the primary purpose of a stakeholder register?

  1. To identify stakeholders and record information such as their interests, involvement, and impact on the project Correct answer.
  2. To document the project schedule and milestones
  3. To list the project team members and their responsibilities
  4. To define the project budget and funding sources

Explanation

The stakeholder register is a project document that includes information about identified stakeholders, such as their interests, involvement, expectations, influence, and potential impact on the project.

Question 32Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

Which of the following best describes a deliverable?

  1. A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work
  2. Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project Correct answer.
  3. A document that authorizes the project and assigns the project manager
  4. A formal, documented process for managing changes to the project

Explanation

A deliverable is defined as any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.

Question 33Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is developing the project management plan and needs to define how the project scope will be validated and controlled. Which subsidiary plan should she consult?

  1. Scope management plan Correct answer.
  2. Quality management plan
  3. Cost management plan
  4. Schedule management plan

Explanation

The scope management plan describes how the project scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.

Question 34Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

During project planning, the project manager identifies that a key subject matter expert is not available for requirements workshops. What is the most appropriate action?

  1. Proceed without the expert's input to maintain the schedule
  2. Escalate to the project sponsor to demand the expert's availability
  3. Document the issue in the risk register and develop a response strategy Correct answer.
  4. Replace the expert with a less experienced team member

Explanation

The risk register is used to document risks and their potential responses. The unavailability of a key expert is a risk that should be analyzed and planned for.

Question 35Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is creating a cost baseline. Which of the following is included in the cost baseline?

  1. Only the direct costs of the project
  2. The approved time-phased project budget, excluding management reserves Correct answer.
  3. All project and contingency reserves, including management reserves
  4. The total project budget including management reserves

Explanation

The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures.

Question 36Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is using a precedence diagramming method and needs to represent a situation where a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started. Which type of dependency is this?

  1. Start-to-finish (SF)
  2. Finish-to-finish (FF)
  3. Start-to-start (SS) Correct answer.
  4. Finish-to-start (FS)

Explanation

A start-to-start (SS) relationship means that the start of the successor activity depends on the start of the predecessor activity.

Question 37Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is estimating activity durations and wants to use a technique that incorporates uncertainty by using three estimates. Which technique is this?

  1. Analogous estimating
  2. Bottom-up estimating
  3. Three-point estimating Correct answer.
  4. Parametric estimating

Explanation

Three-point estimating uses three estimates-most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic-to define an approximate range for an activity's duration.

Question 38Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is developing the human resource management plan. Which tool or technique is used to document team member roles and responsibilities?

  1. Responsibility assignment matrix Correct answer.
  2. RACI chart
  3. Resource histogram
  4. Organizational breakdown structure

Explanation

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package and can be used to document roles and responsibilities.

Question 39Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is planning communications and needs to determine the number of communication channels for a team of 12 people. Using the formula n(n-1)/2, how many channels exist?

  1. 132
  2. 72
  3. 144
  4. 66 Correct answer.

Explanation

The number of communication channels is calculated as n(n-1)/2, where n is the number of people. For 12 people, 12(11)/2 = 66.

Question 40Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is reviewing a control chart and observes a data point that is within the control limits but shows a consistent pattern of seven points increasing. What should the project manager do?

  1. Ignore the pattern because all points are within control limits
  2. Stop the project immediately due to a critical defect
  3. Recalculate the control limits because they are incorrect
  4. Investigate the process for assignable causes because the pattern indicates a trend Correct answer.

Explanation

Even when data points are within control limits, nonrandom patterns such as seven consecutive points increasing indicate the process is out of control and should be investigated for assignable causes.

Question 41Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is performing earned value management and calculates a cost performance index (CPI) of 1.2. What does this indicate?

  1. The project is over budget
  2. The project is behind schedule
  3. The project is getting more value for every dollar spent than planned Correct answer.
  4. The project is exactly on budget

Explanation

A CPI greater than 1 indicates that the project is performing better than planned in terms of cost, meaning more value is being earned for each dollar spent.

Question 42Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is leading a team that is co-located in a single room to improve communication and collaboration. Which technique is being used?

  1. Communication technology
  2. Colocation Correct answer.
  3. Interpersonal skills
  4. Virtual teams

Explanation

Colocation, also called a war room, involves placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance their ability to perform as a team.

Question 43Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is analyzing the schedule and finds that a particular activity has zero float. What does this imply?

  1. The activity has the highest cost in the project
  2. The activity is on the critical path Correct answer.
  3. The activity can be delayed without affecting the project finish date
  4. The activity is a milestone

Explanation

Zero float means the activity has no slack; any delay would delay the project, so it is on the critical path.

Question 44Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is developing the project team and wants to enhance team performance by building trust and collaboration. Which of the following is a primary responsibility of the project manager in this context?

  1. Fostering a collaborative team environment Correct answer.
  2. Avoiding conflict at all costs
  3. Assigning blame for mistakes
  4. Making all decisions without team input

Explanation

The project manager is responsible for creating a collaborative team environment that fosters trust and collaboration among team members.

Question 45Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is identifying risks and wants to use a technique that involves collecting anonymous expert opinions through multiple rounds of questionnaires. Which technique is this?

  1. Interviewing
  2. Delphi technique Correct answer.
  3. Root cause analysis
  4. Brainstorming

Explanation

The Delphi technique is a way to reach a consensus of experts by using anonymous questionnaires and multiple rounds of feedback.

Question 46Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is evaluating a potential risk and determines that the probability of occurrence is high and the impact is high. According to a typical risk matrix, what is the appropriate risk response strategy?

  1. Avoid or mitigate the risk Correct answer.
  2. Transfer the risk
  3. Exploit the risk
  4. Accept the risk

Explanation

For high-probability, high-impact risks, the project manager should take proactive action to avoid or mitigate the risk to reduce its probability or impact.

Question 47Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is implementing a quality management process and wants to ensure that the project meets the required standards. Which tool is used to display the frequency of problems or causes in a process?

  1. Histogram Correct answer.
  2. Scatter diagram
  3. Pareto chart
  4. Cause-and-effect diagram

Explanation

A histogram is a bar chart that shows the frequency distribution of a data set, often used to identify the frequency of problems or causes.

Question 48Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is developing the project charter and needs to identify high-level risks. Which of the following is the best source for this information?

  1. The risk register and issue log
  2. The project schedule and budget
  3. Enterprise environmental factors and organizational process assets Correct answer.
  4. The stakeholder register and communications plan

Explanation

Enterprise environmental factors and organizational process assets are inputs to the Develop Project Charter process and can provide information about high-level risks.

Question 49Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is analyzing the cost of quality and wants to categorize costs as prevention, appraisal, or failure costs. Which of the following is an example of an appraisal cost?

  1. Rework
  2. Warranty claims
  3. Training
  4. Testing and inspection Correct answer.

Explanation

Appraisal costs are costs incurred to evaluate the product to ensure it meets quality standards, such as testing and inspection.

Question 50Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts

A project manager is using a critical path method network and finds that the critical path has a duration of 20 days. A non-critical path has a duration of 15 days. What is the total float on the non-critical path?

  1. 15 days
  2. 0 days
  3. 5 days Correct answer.
  4. 20 days

Explanation

Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date. It is the difference between the critical path duration and the non-critical path duration: 20 - 15 = 5 days.