TEOC Oncologia Clínica study materials
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TEOC Oncologia Clínica practice questions

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Question 1Oncologia Clínica

Which tumor marker is most useful for monitoring treatment response in a patient with metastatic colorectal cancer?

  1. AFP
  2. CA 19-9
  3. CEA Correct answer.
  4. PSA

Explanation

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is the standard serum marker used to follow response and detect recurrence in colorectal adenocarcinoma. Serial values correlate with tumor burden, though a normal baseline does not exclude disease.

Question 2Oncologia Clínica

A 62-year-old woman has a 2.5 cm triple-negative breast cancer with one involved axillary node. Which systemic approach is most appropriate after surgery?

  1. Trastuzumab-based therapy
  2. Observation alone
  3. Endocrine therapy with tamoxifen
  4. Adjuvant chemotherapy Correct answer.

Explanation

Triple-negative breast cancer lacks estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and HER2 expression, so endocrine and anti-HER2 therapies are ineffective. Node-positive disease warrants adjuvant chemotherapy, often with anthracycline and taxane regimens.

Question 3Oncologia Clínica

Which toxicity is most characteristic of immune checkpoint inhibitors such as anti-CTLA-4 and anti-PD-1 antibodies?

  1. Immune-related colitis Correct answer.
  2. Peripheral neuropathy
  3. Febrile neutropenia
  4. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Explanation

Checkpoint inhibitors release brakes on T-cell activity and can cause autoimmune-type inflammation in any organ, most commonly skin, gut, thyroid, and lung. Immune-related colitis is a classic and potentially severe manifestation requiring corticosteroids.

Question 4Oncologia Clínica

Which finding defines a diagnosis of tumor lysis syndrome in a patient with bulky lymphoma after starting chemotherapy?

  1. Hyperuricemia with hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia Correct answer.
  2. Elevated alkaline phosphatase alone
  3. Hypokalemia with metabolic alkalosis
  4. Isolated hyperkalemia

Explanation

Tumor lysis syndrome results from rapid release of intracellular contents and is defined by the combination of hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and secondary hypocalcemia. Cairo-Bishop criteria incorporate these laboratory abnormalities with or without renal failure.

Question 5Oncologia Clínica

Which chemotherapy agent requires monitoring of cumulative dose because of dose-dependent cardiotoxicity?

  1. Cisplatin
  2. Methotrexate
  3. Vincristine
  4. Doxorubicin Correct answer.

Explanation

Anthracyclines such as doxorubicin cause cumulative, dose-related cardiomyopathy through free radical generation and topoisomerase inhibition in cardiomyocytes. Ejection fraction monitoring and a maximum cumulative dose limit reduce this risk.

Question 6Oncologia Clínica

Which molecular alteration predicts response to EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors in non-small cell lung cancer?

  1. Activating EGFR mutation Correct answer.
  2. ALK rearrangement
  3. BRAF V600E mutation
  4. KRAS G12C mutation

Explanation

Activating mutations in EGFR, such as exon 19 deletion or L858R, confer sensitivity to EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors like erlotinib, gefitinib, and osimertinib. Testing is standard before first-line therapy in advanced adenocarcinoma.

Question 7Oncologia Clínica

Which parameter best estimates renal function before dosing carboplatin?

  1. Blood urea nitrogen
  2. Cockcroft-Gault creatinine clearance Correct answer.
  3. Body surface area
  4. Serum creatinine alone

Explanation

Carboplatin dosing uses the Calvert formula, which incorporates glomerular filtration rate estimated by creatinine clearance. Cockcroft-Gault is the accepted method for this estimate in most protocols.

Question 8Oncologia Clínica

A patient with prostate cancer develops painful bone metastases. Which treatment is most appropriate for palliation of bone pain?

  1. External beam radiotherapy Correct answer.
  2. Systemic corticosteroids
  3. Prophylactic antibiotics
  4. Anticoagulation

Explanation

Focal external beam radiotherapy provides effective pain relief for localized painful bone metastases, with response in most patients within weeks. Radiopharmaceuticals or bisphosphonates are alternatives for diffuse disease.

Question 9Oncologia Clínica

Which of the following is the most common site of metastasis in colorectal cancer?

  1. Bone
  2. Lung
  3. Brain
  4. Liver Correct answer.

Explanation

Colorectal carcinoma drains via the portal venous system, so the liver is the most frequent site of hematogenous spread. Lung metastases also occur, particularly with rectal tumors.

Question 10Oncologia Clínica

Which staging system is used for most solid tumors to describe anatomic extent of disease?

  1. TNM classification Correct answer.
  2. Durie-Salmon staging
  3. Ann Arbor staging
  4. Rai staging

Explanation

The TNM system describes tumor size and invasion (T), nodal involvement (N), and distant metastasis (M), and is applied to most solid tumors. It is periodically revised by the AJCC and UICC.

Question 11Oncologia Clínica

Which agent is used as prophylaxis against chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting mediated by substance P?

  1. Metoclopramide
  2. Dexamethasone
  3. Aprepitant Correct answer.
  4. Ondansetron

Explanation

Aprepitant is an NK1 receptor antagonist that blocks substance P signaling and is especially effective against delayed emesis from highly emetogenic regimens. It is typically combined with a 5-HT3 antagonist and dexamethasone.

Question 12Oncologia Clínica

Which finding suggests superior vena cava syndrome in a patient with lung cancer?

  1. Unilateral leg edema
  2. Hemoptysis and clubbing
  3. Facial swelling and distended neck veins Correct answer.
  4. Wheezing with eosinophilia

Explanation

Superior vena cava obstruction impairs venous return from the head and upper extremities, producing facial and upper limb swelling, distended neck veins, and sometimes dyspnea. Lung cancer and lymphoma are common malignant causes.

Question 13Oncologia Clínica

Which molecular test is required before initiating trastuzumab in breast cancer?

  1. Oncotype DX recurrence score
  2. BRCA1 mutation
  3. Estrogen receptor status
  4. HER2 amplification or overexpression Correct answer.

Explanation

Trastuzumab targets the HER2 receptor, so HER2 amplification by in situ hybridization or protein overexpression by immunohistochemistry must be documented. Testing is standard for all invasive breast cancers.

Question 14Oncologia Clínica

Which adverse effect is most associated with bleomycin therapy?

  1. Nephrotoxicity
  2. Pulmonary fibrosis Correct answer.
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Explanation

Bleomycin causes dose-related pulmonary toxicity that can progress to fibrosis, so cumulative dose is limited and lung function monitored. It is used in regimens for lymphoma and germ cell tumors.

Question 15Oncologia Clínica

A patient with metastatic melanoma harboring a BRAF V600E mutation is being considered for targeted therapy. Which combination is standard?

  1. BRAF inhibitor monotherapy
  2. Anti-HER2 antibody
  3. EGFR inhibitor plus chemotherapy
  4. BRAF inhibitor plus MEK inhibitor Correct answer.

Explanation

Combined BRAF and MEK inhibition, for example dabrafenib with trametinib, improves response duration and survival compared with BRAF inhibitor monotherapy in BRAF-mutant melanoma. The combination also reduces cutaneous toxicity from paradoxical MAPK activation.

Question 16Oncologia Clínica

Which is the most appropriate initial approach for a patient with febrile neutropenia after chemotherapy?

  1. Granulocyte transfusion
  2. Empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics after cultures Correct answer.
  3. Oral antifungal monotherapy
  4. Observation until cultures return

Explanation

Febrile neutropenia is a medical emergency requiring prompt empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics, usually an antipseudomonal beta-lactam, after blood cultures are drawn. Delay in treatment increases mortality.

Question 17Oncologia Clínica

Which tumor marker is used to monitor germ cell tumors and may be elevated in non-seminomatous histology?

  1. Calcitonin
  2. CEA
  3. CA 125
  4. Alpha-fetoprotein Correct answer.

Explanation

Alpha-fetoprotein is elevated in non-seminomatous germ cell tumors, particularly yolk sac elements, and is used with beta-hCG for diagnosis and monitoring. Pure seminoma typically does not raise AFP.

Question 18Oncologia Clínica

Which factor most strongly increases the risk of developing breast cancer in a woman?

  1. High parity
  2. Oophorectomy before age 40
  3. Early menarche and late menopause Correct answer.
  4. Breastfeeding

Explanation

Longer lifetime exposure to endogenous estrogen, reflected by early menarche and late menopause, increases breast cancer risk. Reproductive factors that reduce estrogen exposure are protective.

Question 19Oncologia Clínica

Which is the most appropriate treatment for localized prostate cancer in a patient with low-risk disease and limited life expectancy?

  1. External beam radiotherapy with androgen deprivation
  2. Active surveillance Correct answer.
  3. Systemic chemotherapy
  4. Radical prostatectomy

Explanation

Low-risk prostate cancer often follows an indolent course, and active surveillance avoids treatment-related morbidity in patients unlikely to benefit from curative intervention. It involves serial PSA testing and repeat biopsies.

Question 20Oncologia Clínica

Which condition is a classic paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer?

  1. SIADH with hyponatremia Correct answer.
  2. Carcinoid syndrome
  3. Hypercalcemia from PTHrP
  4. Polycythemia from erythropoietin

Explanation

Small cell lung cancer commonly causes ectopic antidiuretic hormone secretion, leading to hyponatremia. It may also cause ectopic ACTH and Lambert-Eaton syndrome.

Question 21Oncologia Clínica

Which drug class is used to reduce skeletal-related events in patients with bone metastases from solid tumors?

  1. Bisphosphonates or denosumab Correct answer.
  2. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
  3. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents
  4. Antiemetics

Explanation

Bisphosphonates such as zoledronic acid and the RANK ligand inhibitor denosumab reduce osteoclast activity and lower the risk of fracture, hypercalcemia, and need for radiotherapy. Dental evaluation is advised before starting to prevent osteonecrosis of the jaw.

Question 22Oncologia Clínica

Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma in a patient without cirrhosis?

  1. Alcohol-related cirrhosis
  2. Hemochromatosis with cirrhosis
  3. Chronic hepatitis B infection Correct answer.
  4. Chronic hepatitis C with cirrhosis

Explanation

Chronic hepatitis B can cause hepatocellular carcinoma through viral integration and oncogenic effects even in the absence of cirrhosis. Hepatitis C, alcohol, and hemochromatosis typically require established cirrhosis.

Question 23Oncologia Clínica

Which is the primary goal of palliative care in advanced cancer?

  1. Complete tumor eradication
  2. Relief of symptoms and improvement in quality of life Correct answer.
  3. Prolongation of survival through intensive chemotherapy
  4. Avoidance of all opioid analgesics

Explanation

Palliative care focuses on symptom control, psychosocial support, and quality of life for patients and families, and can be delivered alongside disease-directed therapy. It is not limited to end-of-life care.

Question 24Oncologia Clínica

A patient with non-small cell lung cancer has a KRAS G12C mutation and progresses on platinum chemotherapy. Which targeted therapy is appropriate?

  1. Sotorasib Correct answer.
  2. Osimertinib
  3. Crizotinib
  4. Trastuzumab

Explanation

Sotorasib and adagrasib are selective KRAS G12C inhibitors approved for previously treated KRAS G12C-mutant non-small cell lung cancer. The mutation must be confirmed by molecular testing.

Question 25Oncologia Clínica

Which finding on histopathology is characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

  1. Reed-Sternberg cells Correct answer.
  2. Auer rods
  3. Philadelphia chromosome
  4. Bence Jones proteinuria

Explanation

Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells, large binucleate cells with prominent nucleoli, in an appropriate inflammatory background. Immunophenotype typically includes CD15 and CD30 positivity.

Question 26Oncologia Clínica

Which chemotherapy agent is most classically associated with dose-limiting cumulative cardiotoxicity mediated by free-radical injury to myocytes?

  1. Doxorubicin Correct answer.
  2. Cisplatin
  3. Methotrexate
  4. Cyclophosphamide

Explanation

Anthracyclines such as doxorubicin cause cumulative, dose-dependent cardiomyopathy through iron-mediated free-radical generation and topoisomerase II beta inhibition in cardiomyocytes. Risk rises with total cumulative dose and is aggravated by mediastinal radiation and trastuzumab. Cardiac function is typically monitored with echocardiography or MUGA scanning.

Question 27Oncologia Clínica

A patient receiving 5-fluorouracil develops severe diarrhea, mucositis, and neutropenia. Deficiency of which enzyme most increases the risk of such fluoropyrimidine toxicity?

  1. Thiopurine methyltransferase
  2. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase Correct answer.
  3. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
  4. Uridine diphosphate glucuronosyltransferase

Explanation

Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) is the rate-limiting enzyme for catabolism of 5-fluorouracil, and partial or complete deficiency markedly raises exposure to the drug. Affected patients can develop severe mucositis, diarrhea, cytopenias, and even fatal toxicity after standard doses. Pretreatment testing for DPYD variants or DPD activity helps guide dose reduction.

Question 28Oncologia Clínica

Which biologic agent used in cancer therapy acts by inhibiting angiogenesis through neutralization of vascular endothelial growth factor A?

  1. Rituximab
  2. Bevacizumab Correct answer.
  3. Cetuximab
  4. Pembrolizumab

Explanation

Bevacizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds vascular endothelial growth factor A, preventing its interaction with endothelial receptors and thereby suppressing tumor angiogenesis. It is used in several tumor types, including colorectal, lung, and renal cancers. Characteristic toxicities include hypertension, proteinuria, bleeding, and impaired wound healing.

Question 29Oncologia Clínica

A 60-year-old woman with newly diagnosed early breast cancer has an estrogen receptor-positive, HER2-negative tumor. Which adjuvant endocrine strategy is standard for a postmenopausal woman?

  1. Trastuzumab for one year
  2. Platinum-based chemotherapy alone
  3. Tamoxifen combined with an aromatase inhibitor in all cases
  4. An aromatase inhibitor such as letrozole Correct answer.

Explanation

In postmenopausal women with hormone receptor-positive early breast cancer, aromatase inhibitors are a standard adjuvant endocrine option and are somewhat more effective than tamoxifen alone. They work by blocking peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogen. Tamoxifen remains an alternative, particularly when aromatase inhibitor toxicity or osteoporosis is a concern.

Question 30Oncologia Clínica

Which histologic feature is characteristic of follicular lymphoma?

  1. Reed-Sternberg cells in a mixed inflammatory background
  2. Diffuse infiltration by cells with prominent nucleoli and a starry-sky pattern
  3. Sheets of small round cells with Homer Wright rosettes
  4. A nodular pattern of germinal center B cells with t(14;18) Correct answer.

Explanation

Follicular lymphoma is a low-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by a nodular growth pattern of germinal center cells, most often carrying the t(14;18) translocation that places BCL2 under immunoglobulin heavy-chain control. This leads to overexpression of the anti-apoptotic protein BCL2. It typically presents as painless lymphadenopathy in older adults.

Question 31Oncologia Clínica

A patient with acute myeloid leukemia has a white blood cell count of 180,000/microliter and develops confusion and dyspnea. Which emergency management step is most appropriate?

  1. Prompt initiation of leukapheresis or cytoreduction with supportive care Correct answer.
  2. Immediate platelet transfusion to raise the count above 200,000
  3. Starting high-dose corticosteroids alone
  4. Administration of granulocyte colony-stimulating factor

Explanation

Hyperleukocytosis in acute leukemia can cause leukostasis with pulmonary and cerebral vascular compromise, most often when the blast count is very high. Rapid cytoreduction with chemotherapy, sometimes preceded by leukapheresis, is the mainstay of urgent management. Supportive measures include hydration, avoidance of unnecessary red cell transfusions that raise viscosity, and tumor lysis prophylaxis.

Question 32Oncologia Clínica

Which paraneoplastic neurologic syndrome is most strongly associated with anti-Hu antibodies?

  1. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
  2. Cerebellar degeneration with anti-Yo antibodies
  3. Sensory neuronopathy Correct answer.
  4. Opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome

Explanation

Anti-Hu antibodies are associated with paraneoplastic sensory neuronopathy and encephalomyelitis, most often in the setting of small cell lung cancer. Patients develop painful sensory loss and gait instability. Anti-Yo is instead linked to paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration, particularly with gynecologic and breast cancers.

Question 33Oncologia Clínica

A patient with a suspected malignant pleural effusion undergoes thoracentesis. Which finding most strongly supports a malignant etiology?

  1. A pleural fluid glucose level equal to serum
  2. A pleural fluid to serum protein ratio above 0.5
  3. Positive cytology for malignant cells Correct answer.
  4. A nucleated cell count of 500/microliter with lymphocyte predominance

Explanation

Demonstration of malignant cells on pleural fluid cytology establishes the diagnosis of malignant pleural effusion, although sensitivity varies by tumor type and repeat sampling may be needed. Exudative criteria such as a high protein ratio only indicate exudation and are nonspecific. Lymphocyte-predominant exudates can result from tuberculosis, heart failure, or malignancy.

Question 34Oncologia Clínica

Which tumor marker is most useful for monitoring disease burden in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer?

  1. Carcinoembryonic antigen Correct answer.
  2. CA 125
  3. Beta human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Alpha-fetoprotein

Explanation

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is the standard serum marker used to monitor response and detect recurrence in colorectal cancer, particularly after resection of a CEA-producing tumor. It lacks sufficient sensitivity and specificity for screening. Rising CEA during follow-up should prompt restaging imaging.

Question 35Oncologia Clínica

A patient with metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer has progressed on androgen deprivation therapy and docetaxel. Which agent is a targeted radioligand approved for prostate-specific membrane antigen-positive disease?

  1. Yttrium-90 ibritumomab
  2. Lutetium-177 PSMA-617 Correct answer.
  3. Iodine-131
  4. Radium-223

Explanation

Lutetium-177 PSMA-617 is a beta-emitting radioligand that binds prostate-specific membrane antigen and delivers radiation selectively to prostate cancer cells. It improves survival in previously treated PSMA-positive metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer. Radium-223 instead targets bone metastases through calcium-mimetic uptake.

Question 36Oncologia Clínica

Which toxicity is most characteristic of immune checkpoint inhibitors such as pembrolizumab?

  1. Peripheral sensory neuropathy
  2. Cumulative pulmonary fibrosis
  3. Hemorrhagic cystitis
  4. Immune-related colitis Correct answer.

Explanation

Checkpoint inhibitors release brakes on T-cell activity and can produce immune-related adverse events affecting the skin, gut, lungs, liver, and endocrine organs. Immune-related colitis is a well-recognized and potentially severe complication that may require corticosteroids. Early recognition and prompt treatment are essential.

Question 37Oncologia Clínica

A patient with advanced pancreatic cancer has severe pain requiring escalating opioids. Which adjuvant analgesic is most appropriate for neuropathic cancer pain?

  1. Gabapentin Correct answer.
  2. Ibuprofen
  3. Metoclopramide
  4. Ondansetron

Explanation

Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that reduces neuropathic pain and is commonly used as an opioid-sparing adjuvant in cancer-related neuropathy. It is titrated gradually and monitored for sedation and renal dosing. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may help bone pain but do not treat neuropathic mechanisms.

Question 38Oncologia Clínica

Which cancer is most strongly associated with chronic infection by human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1?

  1. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  2. Burkitt lymphoma
  3. Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma Correct answer.
  4. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Explanation

Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) is the causative agent of adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma, an aggressive malignancy of CD4-positive T cells. It is endemic in parts of Japan, the Caribbean, and South America. Transmission occurs through vertical, sexual, and blood-borne routes.

Question 39Oncologia Clínica

A patient with non-small cell lung cancer has a ROS1 rearrangement detected on molecular testing. Which targeted agent is appropriate?

  1. Erlotinib
  2. Vemurafenib
  3. Crizotinib Correct answer.
  4. Osimertinib

Explanation

ROS1 rearrangements define a molecular subset of non-small cell lung cancer that responds to ROS1-directed tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as crizotinib. ROS1 and ALK share structural homology, so several ALK inhibitors also have activity. Confirmatory testing is needed before therapy.

Question 40Oncologia Clínica

Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for the development of gastric adenocarcinoma?

  1. Epstein-Barr virus infection of B lymphocytes
  2. Human papillomavirus infection
  3. Helicobacter pylori infection Correct answer.
  4. Chronic hepatitis C infection

Explanation

Chronic Helicobacter pylori infection is a major risk factor for gastric adenocarcinoma, particularly non-cardia tumors, through chronic inflammation and progression to atrophic gastritis and intestinal metaplasia. Eradication reduces risk. Other risk factors include smoking, high salt intake, and pernicious anemia.

Question 41Oncologia Clínica

A patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma is being considered for first-line therapy. Which combination is a standard option for clear cell disease?

  1. Carboplatin plus paclitaxel
  2. Cisplatin plus 5-fluorouracil
  3. Doxorubicin plus vincristine
  4. Pembrolizumab plus axitinib Correct answer.

Explanation

Immune checkpoint inhibitor plus tyrosine kinase inhibitor combinations, such as pembrolizumab with axitinib, are standard first-line treatment for advanced clear cell renal cell carcinoma. They exploit the immunogenic nature of renal cell carcinoma and the angiogenic dependence of the tumor. Single-agent tyrosine kinase inhibitors remain options in selected patients.

Question 42Oncologia Clínica

Which feature best distinguishes malignant from benign lymphadenopathy on clinical assessment?

  1. A soft node with overlying erythema
  2. A mobile node that fluctuates in size with infection
  3. A tender node that regresses within a few days
  4. A firm, painless, enlarging node larger than two centimeters Correct answer.

Explanation

Malignant lymph nodes tend to be firm or hard, painless, and progressively enlarging, often exceeding two centimeters and sometimes fixed to surrounding tissues. Tenderness, fluctuation, and rapid regression with infection suggest an inflammatory cause. Persistent or supraclavicular nodes warrant biopsy.

Question 43Oncologia Clínica

A patient with breast cancer has bone-only metastatic disease and is hormone receptor-positive. Which systemic approach is generally preferred before chemotherapy?

  1. Endocrine therapy with a CDK4/6 inhibitor Correct answer.
  2. High-dose methotrexate
  3. Trastuzumab plus pertuzumab
  4. Cytotoxic chemotherapy with anthracycline

Explanation

For hormone receptor-positive, HER2-negative metastatic breast cancer without visceral crisis, endocrine therapy is the preferred initial systemic approach. Combining endocrine therapy with a CDK4/6 inhibitor improves progression-free and overall survival. Chemotherapy is reserved for visceral crisis or endocrine resistance.

Question 44Oncologia Clínica

Which is the most appropriate approach to a patient with a solitary pulmonary nodule that is highly suspicious for malignancy and accessible by percutaneous route?

  1. Observation with repeat imaging in two years
  2. Tissue sampling by image-guided core biopsy Correct answer.
  3. Immediate lobectomy without tissue diagnosis
  4. Empiric antibiotic therapy for six weeks

Explanation

When a solitary pulmonary nodule is highly suspicious and technically accessible, obtaining a tissue diagnosis guides management and avoids unnecessary surgery. Image-guided core biopsy provides histology and may allow molecular testing. The choice between biopsy and resection depends on probability of malignancy, patient fitness, and lesion location.

Question 45Oncologia Clínica

Which adverse effect is most characteristic of high-dose methotrexate requiring leucovorin rescue?

  1. Pulmonary fibrosis
  2. Nephrotoxicity from crystallization in renal tubules Correct answer.
  3. Hemorrhagic cystitis
  4. Red man syndrome

Explanation

High-dose methotrexate can precipitate in renal tubules, causing acute kidney injury that further impairs drug clearance and worsens systemic toxicity. Aggressive hydration, urine alkalinization, and leucovorin rescue are used to prevent and mitigate this. Serum methotrexate levels guide continued rescue.

Question 46Oncologia Clínica

A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma has bulky mediastinal disease and is starting chemotherapy. Which supportive measure is most appropriate to prevent tumor lysis syndrome?

  1. Aggressive intravenous hydration with monitoring of uric acid and electrolytes Correct answer.
  2. Immediate radiation therapy to the mediastinum
  3. Prophylactic antibiotics for six months
  4. Routine prophylactic platelet transfusion

Explanation

Bulky, chemosensitive tumors carry a high risk of tumor lysis syndrome, so vigorous hydration and close monitoring of potassium, phosphate, calcium, and uric acid are essential. Allopurinol or rasburicase is added for high-risk patients. Electrolyte abnormalities are corrected as they arise.

Question 47Oncologia Clínica

Which cancer is most strongly associated with chronic pancreatitis and long-standing inflammation of the pancreas?

  1. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
  2. Osteosarcoma
  3. Testicular seminoma
  4. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma Correct answer.

Explanation

Chronic pancreatitis is a recognized risk factor for pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, likely through repeated cycles of inflammation, fibrosis, and epithelial injury. Other risk factors include smoking, obesity, diabetes, and certain hereditary syndromes. The absolute risk remains low but is higher than in the general population.

Question 48Oncologia Clínica

A patient with ovarian cancer has a germline BRCA1 mutation. Which maintenance strategy is most appropriate after platinum-based chemotherapy in advanced disease?

  1. Tamoxifen maintenance
  2. A PARP inhibitor such as olaparib Correct answer.
  3. Interferon alfa maintenance
  4. Trastuzumab maintenance

Explanation

PARP inhibitors exploit synthetic lethality in cells with homologous recombination deficiency due to BRCA mutations, and maintenance therapy improves progression-free survival in advanced ovarian cancer. They are used after response to platinum-based chemotherapy. Germline and somatic BRCA testing guide selection.

Question 49Oncologia Clínica

Which of the following best describes the purpose of sentinel lymph node biopsy in early breast cancer?

  1. To assess the first draining node for metastasis and avoid unnecessary axillary dissection Correct answer.
  2. To measure tumor grade in the primary lesion
  3. To remove all axillary nodes for staging
  4. To detect distant organ metastases

Explanation

Sentinel lymph node biopsy identifies the first lymph node draining the tumor and allows pathologic assessment for metastasis with less morbidity than full axillary dissection. A negative sentinel node generally spares the patient complete nodal clearance. It stages the regional basin rather than distant disease.

Question 50Oncologia Clínica

A patient with metastatic colorectal cancer has a RAS wild-type tumor and is being considered for anti-EGFR therapy. Which additional molecular finding would predict lack of benefit from cetuximab?

  1. BRAF V600E mutation Correct answer.
  2. HER2 amplification
  3. NTRK fusion
  4. Microsatellite instability

Explanation

BRAF V600E mutations in colorectal cancer are associated with poor prognosis and reduced benefit from EGFR-directed antibodies, though they do not absolutely preclude their use. RAS mutations are the strongest negative predictor, so RAS testing is mandatory. Patients with BRAF-mutant disease may be considered for targeted combinations.