CFII cheat sheet

Levels of learning, lowest to highest: rote, understanding, application, correlation; correlation is the highest level and reflects the ability to apply knowledge to new situations.

Laws of learning: readiness, exercise, effect, primacy, intensity, recency.

Characteristics of learning: learning is purposeful, a result of experience, active, and multifaceted.

Maslow's hierarchy: physiological, safety, social (belonging), esteem, self-actualization; lower-level needs must be satisfied before higher-level learning can occur.

Common defense mechanisms: rationalization, flight, aggression, submission, compensation, repression, denial, displacement.

Demonstration-performance method steps: explanation, demonstration, student performance, instructor supervision, evaluation.

Approximate retention rates: 10% of what is read, 20% heard, 30% seen, 50% seen and heard, 70% said, 90% said and done.

Barriers to learning include worry or anxiety, lack of motivation, lack of time, frustration, feelings of inadequacy, and physical discomfort.

Instructor responsibilities: provide adequate instruction, demand adequate standards of performance, and analyze and correct student errors.

14 CFR 61.195(b): a flight instructor may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight training in any 24-consecutive-hour period.

14 CFR 61.195(c): the instructor must hold the category, class, and type ratings on the flight instructor certificate appropriate to the aircraft and the instruction given, including an instrument rating for instrument instruction.

14 CFR 61.189: the instructor must sign the logbook of each person given instruction or an endorsement and retain a record of endorsements for at least 3 years.

14 CFR 61.197: a flight instructor certificate expires 24 calendar months after issue and is renewed by practical test, by an 80% first-attempt pass rate with at least 5 applicants, or by an FAA-approved refresher course.

14 CFR 61.57(c): instrument recency requires 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting/tracking courses within the preceding 6 calendar months; a 6-month grace period requires a safety pilot.

14 CFR 61.65(d): instrument rating requires 50 hours cross-country PIC (10 in airplanes), 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time (15 with an authorized instructor), and 3 hours within the 2 calendar months before the test.

14 CFR 61.65(d)(1): the 250 NM IFR cross-country must include an instrument approach at each airport and three different kinds of approaches.

14 CFR 61.51(g): instrument time is logged only when the pilot is the sole manipulator of the controls in actual or simulated instrument conditions; simulated instrument time requires a view-limiting device, and simulated flight under IFR requires a safety pilot (91.109(b)).

Before signing an instrument rating practical test endorsement, the instructor certifies the applicant has received and logged training in the preceding 2 calendar months and is prepared for the required areas of operation.

14 CFR 91.205(d) IFR equipment (GRABCARD): generator or alternator, radio/navigation equipment, attitude indicator, ball (slip-skid), clock, sensitive altimeter, rate of turn, directional gyro.

Inspection intervals: altimeter/static system test every 24 calendar months (91.411), transponder test every 24 calendar months (91.413), ELT inspection every 12 months (91.207).

14 CFR 91.171: VOR receiver check within the preceding 30 days, logged with date, place, bearing error, and signature.

14 CFR 91.169: an IFR alternate is required unless from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA the ceiling is at least 2,000 feet and visibility at least 3 SM, or at least two approaches are available.

Standard alternate minimums: 600 feet and 2 SM for precision approaches, 800 feet and 2 SM for non-precision approaches, unless the approach is NA.

14 CFR 91.167 IFR fuel: enough to fly to the destination, then to the alternate, then for 45 minutes at normal cruise.

Structural icing occurs in visible moisture at outside air temperatures from about +5 degrees C to -20 degrees C; freezing rain indicates severe icing.

AIRMET Sierra covers mountain obscuration and extensive IFR conditions, Tango covers moderate turbulence and low-level wind shear, Zulu covers icing and freezing level.

When the temperature is below freezing, true altitude is lower than indicated altitude; apply the cold-temperature altitude correction from the approach chart or RNAV system.

IFR clearance elements (CRAFT): Clearance limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code.

Readback is required for altitude and heading assignments, radar vectors, altimeter settings, frequencies, runways, hold-short instructions, and any clearance to enter, cross, take off, or land (91.123).

Standard holding pattern: right turns, 1-minute inbound legs at and below 14,000 feet MSL, 1.5-minute legs above 14,000 feet MSL.

Holding speed limits by altitude: 200 knots from MHA to 6,000 feet, 210 knots from 6,001 to 14,000 feet, 230 knots above 14,000 feet.

Holding entries: direct, parallel, and teardrop; the teardrop turns outbound on a heading 30 degrees from the reciprocal of the inbound course.

A 'cleared for the approach' clearance authorizes descent to the published minimum altitude for a segment of the approach but not below the MDA or DA without the required visual references.

Minimum obstacle-clearance climb gradient is 200 feet per nautical mile; a diverse departure requires climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of the runway before turning.

14 CFR 91.185 lost communications route: last assigned route, then the route being vectored, then the expected route; altitude: the highest of the last assigned, the MEA, or the expected altitude.

On 'climb via' or 'descend via' clearances, comply with all published altitude and speed restrictions unless ATC states 'except' or restates an instruction.

A standard rate turn is 3 degrees per second, so a 360-degree turn takes 2 minutes; a 90-degree turn takes 30 seconds and a 180-degree turn takes 60 seconds.

Approximate bank for a standard rate turn equals (TAS / 10) + 7, or about 15% of true airspeed.

Magnetic compass turning errors (UNOS): when turning to a heading under 180 degrees part of the dial visible (northerly), it indicates a turn to the north it has not made; when overshoot, it indicates a turn to the south.

Magnetic compass acceleration error (ANDS): it indicates a turn to the north while accelerating and a turn to the south while decelerating on easterly and westerly headings.

Pitch instruments are the attitude indicator, altimeter, VSI, and airspeed indicator; bank instruments are the attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn coordinator.

A blocked pitot tube makes the airspeed indicator behave like an altimeter; a blocked static port freezes the altimeter and VSI and causes airspeed errors.

Failure of the vacuum system typically disables the attitude indicator and heading indicator, leaving electric turn coordinator, altimeter, VSI, and airspeed available for partial-panel flight.

Descent path planning: a 3-degree path descends about 300 feet per nautical mile, and required rate of descent in feet per minute is about 5 times the groundspeed in knots.

Unusual attitude recovery: nose high, add power and lower the pitch while rolling wings level; nose low, reduce power, roll wings level, then raise the pitch to stop the descent.

VOR stations transmit from 108.0 to 117.95 MHz and are line-of-sight; CDI full-scale deflection equals 10 degrees off the selected course.

Localizer full-scale deflection is about 2.5 degrees each side of centerline, and a standard glide slope is about 3 degrees.

ILS frequencies: localizer from 108.10 to 111.95 MHz (odd tenths), glide slope in the UHF band from 329.15 to 335.0 MHz.

Marker beacons: outer marker 400 Hz (blue), middle marker 1,300 Hz (amber), inner marker 3,000 Hz (white).

NDB/ADF relationship: magnetic heading plus relative bearing equals magnetic bearing to the station.

DME displays slant range, so error is greatest at high altitude and close to the station; groundspeed readout remains usable.

GPS approaches requiring RAIM prediction include TSO-C129 and non-WAAS TSO-C145/146 units; WAAS enables LPV minima and does not require RAIM prediction.

ADS-B Out is required in Class A, B, and C airspace, Class E above 10,000 feet MSL, and within the Mode C veil of Class B airports.

Approach categories by Vref (1.3 Vso): A below 91 knots, B 91-120, C 121-140, D 141-165, E 166-210 knots.

Approach segments in order: initial, intermediate, final, and missed approach; the final segment begins at the final approach fix and ends at the missed approach point.

Precision approaches publish a decision altitude (DA), non-precision approaches publish a minimum descent altitude (MDA), and APV approaches such as LPV and LNAV/VNAV publish a DA.

14 CFR 91.175(c) permits descent below the DA or MDA only with the required flight visibility and one of the specified visual references, such as the approach lights, threshold, touchdown zone markings, VASI, or runway.

Missed approach climb gradient is at least 200 feet per nautical mile unless a higher gradient is published; do not turn before the MAP unless the procedure specifies otherwise.

A procedure turn must be completed within the distance or time published, normally within 10 NM of the fix, using a 45-degree outbound and 180-degree turn unless a teardrop or holding-in-lieu is depicted.

A contact approach requires at least 1 SM flight visibility, clear of clouds, and continuous ground contact; it may only be requested by the pilot.

14 CFR 91.3(b): in an in-flight emergency the PIC may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency, and must report the deviation if requested by the Administrator.

Emergency transponder codes: 7700 general emergency, 7600 lost communications, 7500 unlawful interference.

Lost communications in IFR: fly the route and altitude determined by 91.185, and leave the clearance limit in accordance with the published or standard holding/approach timing rules.

Declaring minimum fuel means the flight may land with less than 45 minutes of reserve and the pilot cannot accept further delay; a fuel emergency requires priority handling.

Respond to a TCAS resolution advisory immediately, even if it conflicts with an ATC clearance, and notify ATC as soon as practical.

An EGPWS or GPWS 'pull up' warning requires an immediate maximum-performance climb.

On loss of electrical power, use standby or pitot-static instruments and battery-powered or handheld radios; expect loss of transponder and some navigation capability.

14 CFR 61.51(b) logbook entries must include date, total flight time, aircraft type and identification, departure and destination, and conditions such as night or instrument.

Instrument approaches flown in simulated instrument conditions may be logged when a view-limiting device is used and a safety pilot or authorized instructor is aboard.

14 CFR 61.189(b): endorsement records must be kept for at least 3 years and must identify the person, the endorsement, and the date.

14 CFR 61.49: after a failed practical test, a retest within 60 days requires an endorsement from the instructor who provided the additional training.

14 CFR 91.213: an inoperative item may be deferred only if it is not required by 91.205, an AD, or the MEL, does not affect airworthiness or safety, and is placarded and recorded.

Any 91.205(d) instrument or equipment item that fails in flight makes the aircraft non-airworthy for IFR until repaired or properly deferred.

Postflight duties include closing or canceling the IFR flight plan, filing a PIREP for hazardous conditions, and recording aircraft discrepancies for maintenance.