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CMP practice questions

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Question 1Strategic Planning

When writing a strategic objective, applying the SMART framework requires the objective to include which element?

  1. A list of every department that might be affected
  2. An estimate of the total budget available
  3. A clear statement of who will do what by when Correct answer.
  4. A statement of the organization's core values

Explanation

SMART stands for specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. A well-formed objective therefore names the action, the metric, and the deadline. Values, budgets, and affected departments are useful context but are not the defining requirement of the framework.

Question 2Strategic Planning

In a SWOT analysis, which pair of factors is considered internal to the organization?

  1. Strengths and weaknesses Correct answer.
  2. Weaknesses and opportunities
  3. Threats and strengths
  4. Opportunities and threats

Explanation

Strengths and weaknesses are internal attributes that the organization controls or can influence. Opportunities and threats arise from the external environment and are not directly controlled by the organization. The internal-external split is the organizing logic of the SWOT framework.

Question 3Strategic Planning

Which statement best describes the difference between a mission statement and a vision statement?

  1. A mission states purpose and scope; a vision states a desired future. Correct answer.
  2. A mission targets external audiences; a vision is board-confidential.
  3. A mission lists annual tactics; a vision sets the operating budget.
  4. A mission describes a future state; a vision describes present operations.

Explanation

A mission explains why the organization exists today and the scope of what it does. A vision paints a picture of the future state the organization is trying to create. Both are directional statements, but they operate in different time frames.

Question 4Strategic Planning

The primary purpose of a needs assessment in strategic planning is to:

  1. identify the gap between current conditions and desired outcomes. Correct answer.
  2. replace the organization's mission statement with data.
  3. confirm decisions that senior leadership has already made.
  4. reduce the number of stakeholders involved in planning.

Explanation

A needs assessment gathers evidence about current performance and compares it with the desired state, exposing gaps that strategy should address. It is an evidence-gathering step, not a ratification exercise. The gaps it reveals feed directly into goal setting and program design.

Question 5Strategic Planning

In strategic planning, a stakeholder is best defined as:

  1. a board member who votes on the strategic plan.
  2. any party that affects or is affected by the organization's decisions. Correct answer.
  3. any vendor that holds a signed contract with the organization.
  4. an employee who delivers the organization's core services.

Explanation

Stakeholders are all individuals and groups who can influence, or are influenced by, the organization and its decisions. The definition is deliberately broad and includes attendees, exhibitors, sponsors, staff, suppliers, and communities. Contract status, voting rights, or employment status are narrower categories.

Question 6Strategic Planning

Strategic planning is best characterized as:

  1. a budgeting exercise limited to the finance department.
  2. a daily scheduling process for operational staff.
  3. an ongoing effort to align resources with long-term goals. Correct answer.
  4. a one-time document produced for the annual general meeting.

Explanation

Strategic planning is a continuous cycle of analysis, choice, implementation, and review that connects resources to long-term direction. It is not a single document or an operational routine. Its distinguishing feature is alignment between organizational ambition and the allocation of resources.

Question 7Strategic Planning

An association's member survey shows 40% satisfaction with networking, while its strategic target is 75%. A planner should treat this finding as:

  1. a reason to discontinue networking events.
  2. an external threat in the SWOT analysis.
  3. a performance gap to be closed through program design. Correct answer.
  4. proof that the strategic target was set too high.

Explanation

A measured shortfall between actual and targeted performance is a gap that strategy exists to close. The appropriate response is to investigate causes and design interventions, such as format changes or matchmaking. Concluding the target is wrong or abandoning the activity before analysis is premature.

Question 8Strategic Planning

A new data-privacy law restricts how attendee information may be collected and stored. In a PESTLE analysis, this factor belongs primarily to which category?

  1. Legal Correct answer.
  2. Technological
  3. Economic
  4. Political

Explanation

PESTLE separates legal factors, such as legislation and regulation, from political factors, such as government policy and stability. A binding data-privacy statute is a legal constraint on how the organization operates. Economic and technological categories cover market conditions and innovation, respectively.

Question 9Strategic Planning

The balanced scorecard approach to strategy measurement typically includes which four perspectives?

  1. Financial, customer, internal process, learning and growth Correct answer.
  2. Marketing, sales, operations, finance
  3. Short-term, medium-term, long-term, indefinite
  4. Inputs, activities, outputs, outcomes

Explanation

The balanced scorecard balances financial results with customer, internal process, and learning-and-growth measures. This structure prevents strategy from being judged on financial outcomes alone. Functional departments, time horizons, and logic-model categories describe different frameworks.

Question 10Strategic Planning

A planner is assessing whether projected registration revenue will cover fixed and variable costs at the expected attendance level. This analysis addresses which dimension of feasibility?

  1. Financial feasibility Correct answer.
  2. Technical feasibility
  3. Market feasibility
  4. Operational feasibility

Explanation

Financial feasibility tests whether revenue can cover costs and whether the initiative is economically viable. Operational feasibility concerns execution capability, market feasibility concerns demand, and technical feasibility concerns systems and infrastructure. Cost-revenue coverage at expected volume is a financial question.

Question 11Strategic Planning

A planning team scores initiatives on impact and effort and plots them on a two-by-two matrix. Which initiatives should generally be pursued first?

  1. Low impact, low effort
  2. High impact, low effort Correct answer.
  3. Low impact, high effort
  4. High impact, high effort

Explanation

A prioritization matrix favors initiatives that deliver the greatest benefit for the least resource commitment. High-impact, low-effort items are quick wins and should be sequenced early. High-effort items may follow if their impact justifies the investment, while low-impact items are usually deprioritized.

Question 12Strategic Planning

The main purpose of scenario planning is to:

  1. prepare responses to several plausible futures. Correct answer.
  2. predict the single most likely future with precision.
  3. assign blame when a plan fails to meet targets.
  4. replace the annual budget with a forecast.

Explanation

Scenario planning develops several plausible futures so the organization can rehearse responses and build resilience. It explicitly accepts uncertainty rather than claiming a single accurate forecast. It complements, rather than replaces, budgeting and performance management.

Question 13Strategic Planning

Which of the following is a leading indicator for an annual conference's registration revenue?

  1. Total revenue reported after the event closes
  2. Year-end profit recorded in the audit
  3. Final attendance count on the closing day
  4. Number of early-bird registrations this month Correct answer.

Explanation

Leading indicators change before the outcome and can be used to adjust course. Early-bird registrations occur before final revenue is known and predict where revenue is heading. Final counts, reported revenue, and audited profit are lagging indicators that confirm results after the fact.

Question 14Strategic Planning

Competitive benchmarking in strategic planning involves:

  1. measuring performance against best-in-class peers. Correct answer.
  2. hiring a competitor's staff to run the event.
  3. copying a competitor's event program in full.
  4. setting targets only from internal historical data.

Explanation

Benchmarking compares performance and practices with relevant peers or best-in-class organizations to identify improvement opportunities. It is a learning and comparison process, not imitation or recruitment. Internal historical comparison alone is a different, narrower practice.

Question 15Strategic Planning

A venue offers a discounted rate for a date that conflicts with a key exhibitor's product launch. Choosing the discounted date means the forgone exhibitor revenue is best described as:

  1. a sunk cost
  2. a variable cost
  3. an opportunity cost Correct answer.
  4. a fixed cost

Explanation

Opportunity cost is the value of the best alternative forgone when a choice is made. By selecting the discounted date, the organization gives up the exhibitor revenue it could have earned on the alternative date. Sunk and fixed costs are unrelated to the value of the path not taken.

Question 16Strategic Planning

In a risk register, an event's risk exposure is typically calculated as:

  1. the sum of likelihood and impact
  2. the product of likelihood and impact Correct answer.
  3. the difference between impact and likelihood
  4. the ratio of impact to likelihood

Explanation

Risk exposure or risk score is conventionally modeled as probability multiplied by consequence. Multiplying captures the interaction between how likely an event is and how severe it would be. Adding or subtracting the factors would allow a highly likely but trivial risk to rank alongside a severe one.

Question 17Strategic Planning

An organization's strategy document is five years old, and departments now make decisions that no longer match it. The most appropriate strategic response is to:

  1. review the strategy and realign it with current conditions. Correct answer.
  2. delegate all decisions to the finance department.
  3. continue using the plan because it was formally approved.
  4. shorten the plan to a one-page mission statement.

Explanation

When actual decisions drift from the approved strategy, the plan has lost relevance and must be revisited through a structured review. Strategic planning is cyclical, and environmental or organizational changes should trigger reassessment. Clinging to an outdated document or narrowing it arbitrarily does not restore alignment.

Question 18Strategic Planning

A planner considering entering a new destination market finds many competing event organizers, low switching costs for exhibitors, and powerful venue owners. These conditions indicate:

  1. a market with no differentiation options
  2. strong supplier power with no buyer power
  3. intense rivalry and limited profit potential Correct answer.
  4. weak competitive rivalry and high profitability

Explanation

Under Porter's five forces, numerous competitors plus low switching costs intensify rivalry, while powerful venue owners squeeze margins from the supplier side. Together these forces reduce the industry's profit potential. The appropriate strategic response is to find a defensible position or differentiation rather than to enter on price alone.

Question 19Strategic Planning

An event portfolio includes a flagship event with high market share in a mature market that generates surplus cash, plus a new event in a fast-growing segment requiring investment. The portfolio approach is to:

  1. cancel the flagship to fund the new event entirely.
  2. use cash from the mature event to fund growth of the new event. Correct answer.
  3. invest equally in both regardless of performance.
  4. divest both and start a third event.

Explanation

Portfolio management balances cash-generating assets against growth investments so the whole portfolio remains healthy. The mature, high-share event funds the growth event until it becomes self-sustaining. Equal investment regardless of performance ignores the different roles each event plays.

Question 20Strategic Planning

A planner estimates a 30% chance that a new trade show will earn $200,000 and a 70% chance it will lose $50,000. The expected monetary value is:

  1. $35,000
  2. $95,000
  3. $25,000 Correct answer.
  4. $60,000

Explanation

Expected monetary value weights each outcome by its probability and sums the results. The gain contributes 0.30 × $200,000 = $60,000, and the loss contributes 0.70 × −$50,000 = −$35,000. The sum is $25,000, which can be compared against alternative uses of the same resources.

Question 21Project Management

What is the primary purpose of conducting a needs assessment before committing resources to a meeting or event?

  1. To decide whether a meeting is the right solution and what it must achieve Correct answer.
  2. To assign staff to on-site registration shifts and pre-event briefing sessions
  3. To finalize the venue contract, deposit schedule, and cancellation terms with the hotel
  4. To reconcile the final audited expense report against the approved budget

Explanation

A needs assessment documents the gap between current and desired performance and tests whether an event is the appropriate intervention before money and staff are committed. Its output - the performance gap and desired business outcomes - becomes the basis for objectives, scope, and design. Contracting and staffing decisions come later and depend on its findings.

Question 22Project Management

A work breakdown structure organizes the project into which of the following?

  1. A chronological list of every supplier invoice expected during the planning cycle
  2. A ranking of project risks ordered by probability and by financial impact
  3. Progressively smaller deliverable-oriented pieces of the project scope Correct answer.
  4. The internal organizational chart of the sponsoring organization

Explanation

A work breakdown structure decomposes the total scope into progressively smaller deliverable-oriented components, ending in work packages that can be estimated, scheduled, and assigned. It is organized around what must be produced, not around chronology, risk, or reporting lines. The lowest-level work packages feed cost and duration estimates.

Question 23Project Management

Two parallel activities - A, with a duration of 3 days, and B, with a duration of 4 days - must both be finished before activity C, with a duration of 2 days, can begin. Assuming no lag and no other dependencies, what is the earliest that C can finish?

  1. Day 7
  2. Day 6 Correct answer.
  3. Day 9
  4. Day 4

Explanation

The longest preceding path governs when C can start: B takes 4 days, which is later than A's 3 days, so C begins on day 4. Adding C's 2-day duration gives an earliest finish of day 6. Summing all three durations would wrongly assume the parallel activities run in sequence.

Question 24Project Management

A client keeps adding networking sessions to an already approved program without adjusting the budget, timeline, or resources. How should this situation be characterized and handled?

  1. Scope creep that should be processed through formal change control Correct answer.
  2. A routine variance handled during post-event reconciliation
  3. Resource leveling applied to the program schedule
  4. Progressive elaboration of the approved scope baseline

Explanation

Uncontrolled additions to approved scope, delivered without corresponding adjustments to time, cost, or resources, are scope creep. The remedy is formal change control: document the request, assess its impact on the baselines, and obtain approval or rejection before work proceeds. Progressive elaboration, by contrast, refines detail without adding scope.

Question 25Project Management

A Gantt chart is used primarily to do which of the following?

  1. Calculate the present value of future sponsorship revenue
  2. Record attendee feedback ratings by session and by speaker
  3. Show activities as bars on a calendar to display timing and overlap Correct answer.
  4. Document the legal terms agreed with each supplier

Explanation

A Gantt chart is a bar chart that plots scheduled activities against a calendar, making durations, overlaps, and sequencing visible at a glance. It is a scheduling and communication tool, not a financial or contractual instrument. Dependencies may be drawn as links, but the chart's core function is time-based visualization.

Question 26Project Management

Which element is most important to include in a request for proposal for meeting space so that responses can be compared fairly?

  1. A guarantee that the lowest-priced proposal will be selected
  2. An open-ended invitation for venues to propose any package they wish
  3. The names of competing venues that have already been contacted
  4. A clear statement of requirements, dates, space needs, and response format Correct answer.

Explanation

An RFP must state requirements clearly and prescribe the response format so every supplier answers the same questions, which is what makes side-by-side evaluation possible. Without a common structure, proposals vary in content and cannot be scored on the same criteria. Selection should follow stated evaluation criteria rather than price alone.

Question 27Project Management

In a RACI chart, which role designates the one person who ultimately answers for a deliverable and holds decision authority?

  1. Consulted
  2. Responsible
  3. Informed
  4. Accountable Correct answer.

Explanation

Accountable is the role that owns the outcome and holds decision authority; there should be exactly one accountable person per deliverable. Responsible refers to the person performing the work, while consulted and informed describe two-way and one-way communication relationships. Separating accountable from responsible prevents diffusion of ownership.

Question 28Project Management

When should a post-event debrief with the planning team ideally take place?

  1. After the final invoice is paid and the event file has been closed
  2. At the next annual planning cycle, once the new budget is approved
  3. Immediately after the event, with findings documented for reuse Correct answer.
  4. Only if a serious incident occurred that requires an insurance claim

Explanation

Recollection fades quickly, so the debrief should happen while details, decisions, and problems are still fresh. Findings should be documented and stored so they become reusable lessons for future projects rather than personal memory. Waiting until a later cycle or until financial close loses the detail needed to act on the findings.

Question 29Project Management

What is the main reason to hold a contingency reserve in a meeting budget?

  1. To fund optional add-ons that the planning team decides to include during the event
  2. To increase the commission paid to the housing provider for the room block
  3. To replace the need for signed supplier contracts and certificates of insurance
  4. To cover identified risks and approved changes without reopening the budget Correct answer.

Explanation

A contingency reserve is sized from risk analysis and set aside to absorb the cost of identified risks and approved changes without renegotiating the total budget. Access is normally controlled by a defined approval threshold so the reserve is not spent casually. It supplements rather than replaces contracts, insurance, and other risk treatments.

Question 30Project Management

Which statement correctly distinguishes a milestone from an activity in a project schedule?

  1. A milestone must always be assigned to an external supplier
  2. A milestone marks a significant achievement and has zero duration Correct answer.
  3. A milestone can only be defined once the event has ended
  4. A milestone consumes the largest share of the project budget

Explanation

A milestone is a marker of a significant point or achievement and has zero duration, so it consumes no resources and no time. Activities, by contrast, have durations, consume resources, and produce deliverables. Milestones are used to track progress and trigger decisions or payments.

Question 31Project Management

A stakeholder communication plan should primarily specify which of the following?

  1. The floor plan of the exhibit hall and the location of fire exits
  2. Who needs what information, in what format, and how often Correct answer.
  3. The tax treatment of speaker honoraria and travel reimbursements
  4. The seating order for the awards dinner and the head table

Explanation

A communication plan defines the audience, the information each audience needs, the channel and format, the frequency, and the owner of each message. It is built from the stakeholders' influence, interest, and information requirements. Financial, facility, and protocol details are separate plans that may be communicated through it.

Question 32Project Management

After identifying the risks associated with an outdoor opening reception, what should the planning team do next?

  1. Assess probability and impact, then assign an owner and a response Correct answer.
  2. Publish the list of risks to all registered attendees before the event
  3. Remove from the register any risk considered unlikely to occur
  4. Purchase insurance to cover every risk that has been identified

Explanation

Once risks are identified, they are analyzed for probability and impact and then given an owner and a planned response, which is what makes the register an active management tool. Responses may include avoidance, transfer, mitigation, or acceptance. Risks should not be deleted simply because they seem unlikely, since low-probability events can carry high impact.

Question 33Project Management

A registration system build has a budget of $40,000. Half of the planned work is complete, and $25,000 has been spent. What does this indicate?

  1. It is under budget by $5,000 at the halfway point
  2. It is over budget: earned value is $20,000 against $25,000 spent Correct answer.
  3. Cost performance cannot be judged until the schedule is also measured
  4. It is on schedule but overspent by fifty percent

Explanation

Earned value equals the percentage of work completed multiplied by the budget, or $20,000, while actual cost is $25,000. The cost variance is therefore minus $5,000, meaning the project has spent more than the value of work delivered. Schedule performance is a separate measure derived from planned versus earned value.

Question 34Project Management

A planner estimates a task with an optimistic duration of 4 days, a most likely duration of 6 days, and a pessimistic duration of 14 days. Using the PERT weighted average of (optimistic + 4 × most likely + pessimistic) ÷ 6, what is the expected duration?

  1. 8 days
  2. 7 days Correct answer.
  3. 6 days
  4. 9 days

Explanation

Applying the formula gives (4 + 24 + 14) ÷ 6, which equals 42 ÷ 6, or 7 days. The weighted average pulls the estimate above the most likely value because the pessimistic case is far from the mode. The simple arithmetic mean of the three estimates would understate the risk-weighted expectation.

Question 35Project Management

A task cannot begin until the preceding task has been fully completed. Which dependency type describes this relationship?

  1. Finish-to-finish
  2. Start-to-start
  3. Start-to-finish
  4. Finish-to-start Correct answer.

Explanation

Finish-to-start means the successor cannot begin until the predecessor finishes, and it is the most common dependency in event schedules. Start-to-start allows both tasks to begin together, finish-to-finish ties their completions, and start-to-finish is rare and used mainly for just-in-time delivery of supplies.

Question 36Project Management

For a large conference project, what does the project charter most importantly provide?

  1. Formal authorization of the project, its objectives, and the manager's authority Correct answer.
  2. A detailed room-by-room set of audiovisual specifications for every breakout session
  3. The final attendance figures and the post-event satisfaction scores
  4. A schedule of every individual task with named owners and due dates

Explanation

The charter formally authorizes the project, states its objectives and high-level scope, and identifies the project manager with the authority to apply resources. It is a high-level document created during initiation, before detailed planning. Specifications, task-level schedules, and results are produced later.

Question 37Project Management

Two critical activities both require the same small audiovisual crew at the same time, and no additional crew can be hired. What is the most appropriate scheduling response?

  1. Remove one of the activities from the approved schedule baseline
  2. Declare the schedule unachievable and cancel the project
  3. Reschedule or split one activity, accepting a shift in the critical path Correct answer.
  4. Assign both activities to the same crew at the same time and accept the quality risk

Explanation

When a scarce resource is genuinely constrained, leveling requires shifting or splitting work so the resource is not over-allocated, and because both activities are critical this can move the project completion date. The resulting schedule change should then be reflected through change control. Simply over-allocating the crew or deleting approved scope are not legitimate scheduling techniques.

Question 38Project Management

What is the main purpose of the pre-convention meeting held on site before an event?

  1. Finalize the marketing plan for next year's event
  2. Collect attendee feedback about the previous year's event
  3. Negotiate the final contract price, deposit schedule, and cancellation terms with the venue
  4. Confirm operational details and responsibilities for venue, suppliers, and team Correct answer.

Explanation

A pre-convention meeting brings the venue, key suppliers, and the planning team together to confirm setups, timing, contacts, and who does what, so that expectations match before doors open. It is an operational alignment tool conducted shortly before the event. Pricing, evaluation, and future marketing are separate processes.

Question 39Project Management

A client shortens the planning timeline by four weeks while scope and budget remain fixed. What is the most likely consequence?

  1. Higher risk and either higher cost or reduced quality Correct answer.
  2. An automatic extension of the venue contract at no charge
  3. No effect, because scope, time, and cost are independent variables
  4. A guaranteed reduction in the total cost of the event

Explanation

Scope, time, cost, and quality are interdependent, so compressing the schedule while holding the others fixed usually requires expedited services, overtime, or reduced quality, and it increases risk. The trade-offs should be made explicit and approved rather than assumed. Assuming the constraints are independent is a common planning error.

Question 40Project Management

A well-written objective for a project such as a product launch meeting should be which of the following?

  1. Written after the event so that actual results can be reflected
  2. Limited to the number of attendees who register for the event
  3. Broad enough to cover any outcome the sponsor may want later
  4. Specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound Correct answer.

Explanation

Objectives should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound so that success can be judged against a stated standard. Writing them before the event allows design, budget, and marketing decisions to be aligned to them. Overly broad objectives cannot be evaluated, and a single attendance count rarely captures the intended business outcome.

Question 41Risk Management

Which statement best describes the function of a force majeure clause in a meeting contract?

  1. It fixes the amount of attrition damages that the group must pay to the venue.
  2. It requires the planner to purchase event cancellation insurance.
  3. It transfers all liability for attendee injuries to the venue.
  4. It excuses performance when an uncontrollable event prevents the meeting. Correct answer.

Explanation

Force majeure clauses address unforeseeable events beyond the parties' control-such as natural disasters, war, or government restrictions-that make performance impossible or impracticable, usually allowing cancellation without penalty. They do not set attrition damages, mandate insurance purchases, or shift injury liability.

Question 42Risk Management

A planner asks a supplier for a certificate of insurance. What does this document primarily show?

  1. The supplier's business license and tax identification
  2. The supplier's agreement to indemnify the venue
  3. Evidence the supplier holds the required insurance coverage Correct answer.
  4. The supplier's safety record for the past three years of operations

Explanation

A certificate of insurance summarizes the policies in force, including coverage types, limits, and additional insured status, giving the planner evidence that required coverage exists. It is not a guarantee of coverage and does not itself create contractual indemnity.

Question 43Risk Management

Under an indemnification clause, what does the supplier typically agree to do?

  1. Provide proof of workers' compensation coverage before arriving
  2. Cover losses the planner incurs from the supplier's negligence Correct answer.
  3. Maintain a minimum number of hotel rooms for the group's block
  4. Pay the venue a fixed fee if the event is cancelled for any reason

Explanation

Indemnification is a contractual promise by one party to reimburse the other for specified losses, often those arising from the indemnifying party's negligence. It is separate from fees, room block commitments, and proof of workers' compensation insurance.

Question 44Risk Management

Which action best demonstrates a planner fulfilling the duty of care to attendees?

  1. Negotiating the lowest possible room rate for the block
  2. Assessing foreseeable risks and communicating a safety plan Correct answer.
  3. Providing attendees with a list of local restaurants
  4. Publishing a detailed schedule with session times and room locations

Explanation

Duty of care requires the planner to identify foreseeable risks and take reasonable steps to protect attendees, including communicating safety information and plans. Logistical schedules, rate negotiation, and restaurant lists do not address foreseeable harm.

Question 45Risk Management

At an evening reception with a hosted bar, which practice best reduces the planner's alcohol liability exposure?

  1. Using trained servers who stop service to visibly intoxicated guests Correct answer.
  2. Scheduling the reception late in the evening to limit drinking
  3. Offering a discounted drink package to encourage higher attendance at the reception
  4. Allowing attendees to serve themselves from an open bar

Explanation

Alcohol liability is reduced through trained servers, visible monitoring, and cutoffs for intoxicated guests, often supported by food and transportation. Discounted packages, self-service bars, and late scheduling can increase consumption and liability exposure.

Question 46Risk Management

What is the primary purpose of an emergency action plan for an event?

  1. To list the speakers and their audiovisual requirements
  2. To document the event's budget contingencies and payment schedule
  3. To define roles and procedures for responding to an emergency Correct answer.
  4. To outline the marketing plan for future events

Explanation

An emergency action plan assigns roles, defines response procedures, and specifies communication and evacuation steps for incidents. It is not a budget, speaker, or marketing document.

Question 47Risk Management

During an on-site emergency, what should the planner do first with regard to communication?

  1. Post details on all social media channels immediately
  2. Grant media interviews to provide live, real-time updates
  3. Wait for the venue to issue a public statement
  4. Activate preassigned crisis communication roles and channels Correct answer.

Explanation

A crisis communication plan preassigns spokespeople, channels, approval steps, and message templates so accurate information flows quickly and consistently. Immediate uncoordinated posting, waiting passively, or granting live interviews can spread misinformation.

Question 48Risk Management

For a general admission concert with a standing floor, which control most directly reduces the risk of crowd crush at entry?

  1. Broadcasting the headline act on large screens in the lobby to hold early arrivals
  2. Opening all entry gates at the same time
  3. Selling tickets at the door to increase revenue
  4. Using timed entry, staggered gates, and metered flow Correct answer.

Explanation

Crowd crush risk at entry is reduced by controlling the rate and distribution of arrivals through timed entry, staggered gates, and metered flow. Selling more door tickets, opening all gates at once, or holding crowds in tight areas can worsen congestion.

Question 49Risk Management

Which practice best protects attendees from foodborne illness at a catered event?

  1. Reheating leftovers for the next day's breakfast
  2. Holding hot foods at or above the required temperature Correct answer.
  3. Leaving buffet items unrefrigerated to save space
  4. Allowing caterers to self-certify their kitchen practices

Explanation

Safe food handling requires hot foods to be held at or above the required temperature and cold foods at or below it, limiting time in the danger zone. Reheating leftovers, leaving food unrefrigerated, and self-certification without verification increase risk.

Question 50Risk Management

An outdoor festival is forecast to have thunderstorms. What is the most appropriate contingency planning step?

  1. Reduce ticket prices to compensate for possible rain
  2. Ignore the forecast because outdoor events are inherently risky
  3. Set evacuation triggers and shelter locations in advance Correct answer.
  4. Move all activities indoors without notifying attendees

Explanation

Weather contingency planning defines objective triggers for suspension or evacuation and identifies shelter locations and communication methods before the event. Ignoring forecasts, unannounced moves, or price adjustments do not protect attendees.