FAA ADX flashcards

32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.

Dispatcher minimum age

14 CFR 65.53 requires an aircraft dispatcher applicant to be at least 23 years of age and able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language.

Dispatcher duty period limit

Under 14 CFR 121.465, no certificate holder may schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 hours of duty in any 24-consecutive-hour period, with at least 8 hours of rest.

Shared operational control

Under 14 CFR 121.533 the certificate holder holds operational control; 121.535 assigns specific dispatcher duties and 121.537 assigns pilot in command authority and responsibility.

Knowledge test currency

A dispatcher applicant must pass the required FAA knowledge test within the 24 months preceding application for the practical test, or the results expire and retesting is required.

Dispatcher drug and alcohol testing

Flight dispatchers are safety-sensitive employees covered by 14 CFR Part 120, subject to pre-employment, random, reasonable-suspicion, and post-accident drug and alcohol testing.

Dispatcher certificate expiration

An FAA aircraft dispatcher certificate issued under Part 65 carries no expiration date; currency is maintained through the certificate holder's approved training and checking program.

Domestic fuel reserve

For domestic Part 121 operations, required fuel includes taxi fuel, fuel to the destination, fuel to the most distant alternate, and 45 minutes at normal cruising consumption.

Destination alternate exception

14 CFR 121.619 allows a turbojet release without a destination alternate when, for one hour before and after ETA, ceiling is 1,500 ft above minimums and visibility is 3 SM.

Pressure altitude formula

Pressure altitude equals indicated altitude plus 1,000 times the quantity 29.92 minus the current altimeter setting; each 0.01 inch of error is about 10 feet.

Wind correction angle

Wind correction angle equals the arcsine of wind speed times the sine of the wind angle off course, divided by true airspeed; it converts true course into true heading.

V1 decision speed

V1 is the speed at which the crew must continue the takeoff after an engine failure; it is selected so accelerate-stop distance equals accelerate-go distance.

Second segment climb gradient

Minimum second segment climb gradients with one engine inoperative, gear up, and takeoff flaps are 2.4 percent for two-engine, 2.7 percent for three-engine, and 3.0 percent for four-engine aircraft.

MEL category B

A minimum equipment list Category B item must be repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery, unless the operator's approved MEL states otherwise.

Release amendment

The dispatcher must amend or reissue a dispatch release whenever weather, fuel, equipment, or routing conditions make the original release no longer valid for the flight.

Balanced field length

Balanced field length is the runway length at which accelerate-stop distance equals the engine-failure takeoff distance, obtained by selecting the optimum V1 speed.

METAR ceiling definition

Ceiling is the height of the lowest broken or overcast layer, or the vertical visibility into an obscuration such as fog, heavy snow, or blowing dust.

AIRMET Zulu

AIRMET Zulu advises of moderate icing and freezing levels, while AIRMET Sierra covers IFR conditions and mountain obscuration and AIRMET Tango covers turbulence and strong winds.

Convective SIGMET issuance

Convective SIGMETs are issued at 55 minutes past the hour for tornadoes, hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter, and surface wind gusts of 50 knots or more.

Standard lapse rate

In the standard atmosphere temperature decreases about 2 degrees Celsius per 1,000 feet, reaching roughly minus 56.5 degrees Celsius at the tropopause near 36,000 feet.

Freezing rain hazard

Freezing rain causes the most severe airframe icing because large supercooled droplets spread aft and freeze as clear ice, adding rapid and often asymmetric weight.

TAF issue times

Terminal aerodrome forecasts are issued four times daily at 0000, 0600, 1200, and 1800 UTC and typically cover forecast periods of 24 to 30 hours.

Class A airspace

Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to flight level 600, is IFR only, and requires all aircraft to set 29.92 inches of mercury on the altimeter.

Class B entry requirements

Flight in Class B airspace requires an explicit ATC clearance, a private pilot certificate or better, and a Mode C transponder within the 30-nautical-mile Mode C veil.

MEA obstacle clearance

A minimum enroute altitude provides at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance, and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous terrain, within 4 nautical miles of the airway centerline.

MOCA limitation

A minimum obstruction clearance altitude assures obstacle clearance along a route segment but guarantees navigation signal reception only within 22 nautical miles of the referenced VOR.

RVSM airspace

Reduced vertical separation minimum airspace covers flight levels 290 through 410, uses 1,000-foot vertical separation, and requires RVSM-approved aircraft, altimetry, and trained crews.

250 knot speed limit

Below 10,000 feet MSL no aircraft may exceed 250 knots indicated airspeed, except where a higher speed is specifically authorized by the Administrator or an approved deviation.

MEL category C

A minimum equipment list Category C item may remain inoperative for up to 10 consecutive calendar days, excluding the day of discovery, before repair is required.

Hypoxic hypoxia

Hypoxic hypoxia results from insufficient oxygen reaching the blood, as at high cabin altitude; symptoms include euphoria, impaired judgment, and cyanosis with little warning.

Clean aircraft concept

No aircraft may take off with frost, snow, or ice adhering to wings, control surfaces, or stabilizers; deicing fluid and a published holdover time protect critical surfaces.

Time of useful consciousness

At flight level 350 the time of useful consciousness after an abrupt decompression is roughly 30 to 60 seconds, so oxygen masks must be donned immediately.

Dispatcher emergency role

Under 14 CFR 121.557 the pilot in command may deviate from regulations in an emergency; the dispatcher assists, coordinates support, and must be kept informed.