UKOM Sp.PD flashcards
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32 cards. Read the term and the definition here. The deck at the top of this page is optional.
- STEMI reperfusion window
- Primary PCI is preferred if achievable within 120 minutes of first medical contact; otherwise fibrinolysis within 30 minutes of diagnosis, then transfer for angiography.
- CHA2DS2-VASc anticoagulation threshold
- Anticoagulation is recommended for men with score ≥2 and women with score ≥3; score 1 in men or 2 in women warrants consideration. DOACs preferred except mechanical valves.
- Light's criteria
- Pleural fluid is exudative if pleural/serum protein ratio >0.5, pleural/serum LDH ratio >0.6, or pleural LDH exceeds two-thirds the upper normal serum LDH.
- CURB-65 components
- Confusion, Urea >7 mmol/L, Respiratory rate ≥30/min, Blood pressure systolic <90 or diastolic ≤60 mmHg, and age ≥65 years. Each scores one point.
- GOLD spirometry criterion
- COPD is confirmed when post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC is below 0.70, indicating persistent airflow limitation not fully reversible.
- Glasgow-Blatchford score
- A pre-endoscopy score using urea, hemoglobin, systolic blood pressure, heart rate, melena, syncope, liver disease, and cardiac failure. Score ≤1 identifies very low-risk upper GI bleeding.
- Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis threshold
- SBP is diagnosed when ascitic fluid polymorphonuclear cell count is ≥250/mm³. Treat with IV cefotaxime plus albumin 1.5 g/kg on day 1 and 1 g/kg on day 3.
- Refeeding syndrome risk criteria
- Risk includes BMI <16, unintentional weight loss >15% in 3–6 months, little oral intake >10 days, and low baseline phosphate, potassium, or magnesium.
- KDIGO AKI stage 1
- Increase in serum creatinine ≥0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours, or 1.5–1.9 times baseline within 7 days, or urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h for 6–12 hours.
- Hyperkalemia emergency sequence
- Give IV calcium gluconate for cardiac protection, then insulin with dextrose and nebulized salbutamol to shift potassium intracellularly; consider bicarbonate and dialysis for refractory cases.
- Dialysis indications AEIOU
- Acidosis refractory to treatment, Electrolyte disturbance such as hyperkalemia, Intoxication with dialyzable toxins, fluid Overload, and Uremia with pericarditis, encephalopathy, or bleeding.
- DKA diagnostic triad
- Hyperglycemia >250 mg/dL, metabolic acidosis with pH <7.3 and bicarbonate <18 mmol/L, and ketonemia or ketonuria with elevated anion gap.
- Thyroid storm treatment order
- Give thionamide (PTU or methimazole) first, then iodine at least one hour later, plus beta-blocker, hydrocortisone, supportive care, and treatment of the precipitating cause.
- Adrenal crisis immediate therapy
- Draw cortisol and ACTH if possible, then give hydrocortisone 100 mg IV immediately followed by 50 mg every 6 hours, with isotonic saline and glucose as needed.
- Febrile neutropenia empiric therapy
- ANC <500/µL with fever ≥38.3 °C once or ≥38.0 °C sustained over 1 hour requires blood cultures and antipseudomonal beta-lactam within 60 minutes.
- Tumor lysis syndrome features
- Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia from rapid cell breakdown. Prevent with hydration and allopurinol; rasburicase for high-risk patients.
- Multiple myeloma CRAB criteria
- HyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, and Bone lesions. SLiM criteria include ≥60% plasma cells, light chain ratio ≥100, and more than one MRI lesion.
- Anaphylaxis first-line drug
- Epinephrine 0.3–0.5 mg intramuscularly (1:1000) in the anterolateral thigh, repeated every 5–15 minutes. Antihistamines and steroids are adjuncts only.
- Gout urate target
- Urate-lowering therapy aims for serum urate below 6 mg/dL, or below 5 mg/dL in patients with tophi. Do not start or stop therapy during an acute flare.
- Giant cell arteritis management
- In patients over 50 with new headache, jaw claudication, or visual symptoms, start prednisone 40–60 mg immediately and obtain temporal artery biopsy within two weeks.
- Sepsis-3 definition
- Suspected infection plus an acute increase in SOFA score of at least 2 points. Septic shock adds vasopressor need for MAP ≥65 mmHg and lactate >2 mmol/L after fluids.
- Dengue warning signs
- Abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, fluid accumulation, mucosal bleeding, lethargy, liver enlargement >2 cm, and rising hematocrit with falling platelets. Avoid NSAIDs and intramuscular injections.
- Severe malaria treatment
- IV artesunate is first-line for severe falciparum malaria, defined by parasitemia >5%, cerebral involvement, acidosis, hypoglycemia, or renal failure.
- Status epilepticus sequence
- First-line benzodiazepine (IV lorazepam or IM midazolam), then second-line levetiracetam, valproate, or phenytoin, then anesthetic agents for refractory cases.
- Bacterial meningitis dexamethasone
- Dexamethasone 10 mg IV is given before or with the first antibiotic dose, especially in suspected pneumococcal meningitis, without delaying antibiotics for lumbar puncture.
- GCS score interpretation
- Eye 1–4, verbal 1–5, motor 1–6, total 3–15. A score of 8 or less indicates need for airway protection; motor response carries the strongest prognosis.
- Delirium identification tool
- The 4AT or CAM screen detects acute fluctuating attention and altered consciousness. Treat the underlying cause; reserve antipsychotics for severe agitation or danger.
- Fried frailty phenotype
- Weight loss, exhaustion, low physical activity, slow gait speed, and weakness. Three or more criteria indicate frailty; one or two indicate prefrailty.
- Adult BLS compression parameters
- Compress at 100–120 per minute to a depth of 5–6 cm, allow full recoil, minimize interruptions, and use a 30:2 ratio before an advanced airway is placed.
- Parkland burn formula
- Give 4 mL × body weight in kg × percentage total body surface area burned of lactated Ringer solution in the first 24 hours, with half in the first 8 hours.
- Informed consent elements
- Diagnosis, proposed treatment, alternatives, risks and benefits, and prognosis must be explained to a competent patient, who then agrees voluntarily; document the discussion.
- SBAR handover structure
- Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. It provides a structured, concise transfer of clinical information during referral or shift change.