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Israel CAA CPL Theory Exam study materials
Israel CAA CPL Theory Exam study resources

Israel CAA CPL Theory Exam practice questions

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Question 1Air Law and ATC Procedures

Under the Israeli Air Navigation Regulations, what is the minimum age for issuing a Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL) to an applicant?

  1. 17 years
  2. 16 years
  3. 18 years Correct answer.
  4. 21 years

Explanation

Israeli licensing rules follow ICAO Annex 1 standards, under which a CPL applicant must be at least 18 years of age. The 17-year threshold applies to the PPL, and 21 years is associated with the ATPL.

Question 2Air Law and ATC Procedures

For a CPL(A) issued by the CAAI, what minimum total flight time as a pilot is normally required before the licence is granted?

  1. 250 hours
  2. 200 hours Correct answer.
  3. 150 hours
  4. 100 hours

Explanation

The CPL(A) requires a total of at least 200 hours of flight time as a pilot, in line with ICAO Annex 1. This total includes dual and solo flying accumulated during the integrated or modular course.

Question 3Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the validity period of a Class 1 Medical Certificate for a pilot who has not yet reached the age of 40 and is engaged in single-pilot commercial operations carrying passengers?

  1. 36 months
  2. 12 months
  3. 24 months
  4. 6 months Correct answer.

Explanation

For commercial single-pilot passenger operations, the Class 1 medical is valid for 6 months for holders under 40. Longer validity periods apply to multi-pilot operations or older/younger age brackets under the applicable schedule.

Question 4Air Law and ATC Procedures

A CPL holder's recent experience for carrying passengers at night requires a specified number of take-offs and landings within the preceding 90 days. Which condition must be met?

  1. Three take-offs and three landings at night in the same category and class Correct answer.
  2. One take-off and one landing at night in any aircraft type
  3. Five take-offs and five landings at night in a simulator only
  4. Two take-offs and two landings at night in a different category

Explanation

Night passenger-carrying privileges require at least three take-offs and three landings at night within the preceding 90 days, performed in the same category and class of aircraft. Currency is type-specific and cannot be satisfied by unrelated categories.

Question 5Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard cruising altitude rule for IFR flights in controlled airspace above 3,000 feet in Israel, using magnetic track?

  1. Any flight level provided ATC approves
  2. Flight levels in 500-foot increments regardless of track
  3. Odd flight levels for tracks 000-179 degrees and even flight levels for 180-359 degrees Correct answer.
  4. Even flight levels for tracks 000-179 degrees and odd flight levels for 180-359 degrees

Explanation

Israel uses the semicircular rule: magnetic tracks from 000 to 179 degrees use odd flight levels, and tracks from 180 to 359 degrees use even flight levels. This mirrors the standard ICAO quadrantal/semicircular system.

Question 6Air Law and ATC Procedures

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly so and there is risk of collision, what must each pilot do?

  1. The lower aircraft gives way
  2. The faster aircraft gives way
  3. Both alter course to the left
  4. Both alter course to the right Correct answer.

Explanation

Under the collision-avoidance rules, when aircraft approach head-on each pilot alters course to the right. Neither aircraft has priority in this situation, so both must act.

Question 7Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on final approach to land has right of way over other aircraft. Which aircraft, if any, may it not cut in front of?

  1. An aircraft on the ground or water
  2. An aircraft taxiing on a parallel taxiway
  3. An aircraft already landed and vacating the runway
  4. An aircraft in the traffic pattern on downwind Correct answer.

Explanation

An aircraft on final approach has priority, but it must not cut in front of an aircraft that is on final approach closer to the runway or one already established in the landing sequence. Aircraft on the ground or water must give way to landing aircraft.

Question 8Air Law and ATC Procedures

What minimum horizontal distance must a VFR flight maintain from cloud in controlled airspace at and above 3,000 feet AMSL?

  1. 1,000 metres
  2. 1,500 metres Correct answer.
  3. 5,000 metres
  4. 2,000 metres

Explanation

In controlled airspace, VFR flights at and above 3,000 feet AMSL require a horizontal distance of at least 1,500 metres from cloud and vertical separation of 300 metres (1,000 feet). These are the standard ICAO VMC minima.

Question 9Air Law and ATC Procedures

In Class C airspace, what separation and clearance requirements apply to VFR flights?

  1. VFR flights are not permitted at all in Class C airspace
  2. VFR flights require a clearance but receive no separation services
  3. VFR flights require no clearance but receive traffic information only
  4. VFR flights require an ATC clearance and receive separation from IFR flights Correct answer.

Explanation

Class C airspace requires all flights to obtain an ATC clearance, and ATC provides separation between VFR and IFR flights as well as between VFR flights. This distinguishes Class C from Class D and E.

Question 10Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard transponder code used to indicate a radio communication failure?

  1. 7000
  2. 7500
  3. 7600 Correct answer.
  4. 7700

Explanation

Code 7600 signals radio communication failure, 7700 signals a general emergency, and 7500 signals unlawful interference. These are the standard ICAO special-purpose codes.

Question 11Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft experiencing unlawful interference should squawk which code, and what does it signify?

  1. 2000, entering controlled airspace
  2. 7500, unlawful interference Correct answer.
  3. 7700, general emergency
  4. 7600, radio failure

Explanation

Code 7500 is reserved for unlawful interference such as hijacking. It alerts ATC to a security-related emergency requiring special handling.

Question 12Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does a steady red light signal directed at an aircraft in flight mean?

  1. Airport unsafe, do not land
  2. Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome
  3. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling Correct answer.
  4. Cleared to land

Explanation

A steady red light to an aircraft in flight means give way to other aircraft and continue circling. It does not authorize landing and is distinct from the flashing red used for 'airport unsafe'.

Question 13Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft on the ground receives a flashing white light signal from the tower. What action is required?

  1. Stop immediately
  2. Taxi clear of the runway in use
  3. Return to the starting point on the aerodrome Correct answer.
  4. Proceed to the apron

Explanation

For aircraft on the ground, a flashing white light means return to the starting point on the aerodrome. This is used when the aircraft's position or intentions must be reset.

Question 14Air Law and ATC Procedures

When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan before departure?

  1. Before departure, with the plan accepted by the appropriate ATS unit Correct answer.
  2. At the destination before landing
  3. After take-off, once airborne and in radar contact
  4. Only when entering Class A airspace

Explanation

An IFR flight plan must be filed and accepted by the appropriate ATS unit before departure so that clearance and separation can be arranged. Filing after departure is not an acceptable substitute for controlled IFR flight.

Question 15Air Law and ATC Procedures

An aircraft is cleared to descend 'when ready' to a specified level while maintaining its own terrain clearance. Which clearance type does this describe?

  1. Holding clearance
  2. Standard instrument departure clearance
  3. Cruise clearance Correct answer.
  4. Approach clearance

Explanation

A cruise clearance authorizes the pilot to fly at any level at or above the specified minimum, to descend when ready, and to conduct an approach at the destination. The pilot remains responsible for terrain clearance while descending.

Question 16Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the meaning of the ATC instruction 'line up and wait'?

  1. Enter the runway and position for take-off but do not begin the take-off roll Correct answer.
  2. Hold short of the runway and await further instructions
  3. Begin the take-off roll immediately
  4. Vacate the runway at the next exit

Explanation

'Line up and wait' authorizes the aircraft to enter the runway and position for departure, but take-off clearance has not yet been issued. The pilot must hold position until cleared for take-off.

Question 17Air Law and ATC Procedures

When a pilot reads back an ATC clearance, which elements must always be read back in full?

  1. Runway holding instructions, route clearances, and any clearance to enter, land on, or take off from a runway Correct answer.
  2. Only the destination aerodrome
  3. Only altitude assignments
  4. Only the aircraft callsign

Explanation

Safety-critical elements must be read back: holding instructions, route clearances, and clearances to enter, land on, or take off from a runway. The callsign is always included, but readback is not limited to it.

Question 18Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does the term 'SERA' refer to in Israeli air law?

  1. A class of controlled airspace
  2. A type of instrument approach procedure
  3. A category of medical certificate
  4. Standardised European Rules of the Air, adopted into Israeli regulation for common airspace rules Correct answer.

Explanation

SERA stands for the Standardised European Rules of the Air, which Israel has adopted to harmonize its rules of the air with European practice. It covers general operating and flight rules rather than procedures or licensing categories.

Question 19Air Law and ATC Procedures

Which body is responsible for the regulation and oversight of civil aviation in Israel, including licensing and airworthiness?

  1. The Civil Aviation Authority of Israel (CAAI) Correct answer.
  2. The International Civil Aviation Organization
  3. The Israel Air Force
  4. The European Union Aviation Safety Agency

Explanation

The Civil Aviation Authority of Israel (CAAI) is the national regulator responsible for civil aviation oversight, licensing, and airworthiness. ICAO sets standards but does not regulate individual states directly.

Question 20Air Law and ATC Procedures

What action must a pilot take upon receiving a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) during flight?

  1. Disable TCAS and continue the cleared profile
  2. Respond immediately in the direction indicated, even if it conflicts with an ATC instruction, and notify ATC Correct answer.
  3. Follow the ATC instruction first, then advise the controller of the RA
  4. Maintain the current flight path and await ATC confirmation

Explanation

A TCAS Resolution Advisory requires immediate response to the commanded manoeuvre, which takes precedence over ATC instructions. The pilot then informs ATC of the deviation.

Question 21Air Law and ATC Procedures

What is the standard emergency frequency monitored for distress and urgency communications?

  1. 243.000 MHz
  2. 121.500 MHz Correct answer.
  3. 118.000 MHz
  4. 123.450 MHz

Explanation

121.500 MHz is the international VHF aeronautical emergency frequency used for distress and urgency calls. 243.000 MHz is the corresponding military UHF frequency.

Question 22Air Law and ATC Procedures

In the event of a radio communication failure in IMC, what action should a pilot take under standard IFR procedures?

  1. Squawk 7700 and continue as cleared without alteration
  2. Immediately descend to the minimum safe altitude and circle
  3. Turn back to the departure aerodrome regardless of terrain
  4. Continue along the last assigned route, maintain the last assigned level for a specified period, then follow the published lost-communication procedure Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard lost-communication procedures require the pilot to follow the last assigned route and level for a specified period before following the published procedure for the destination. This ensures predictable traffic handling.

Question 23Air Law and ATC Procedures

What does the abbreviation 'MEL' refer to in the context of commercial operations?

  1. Medical Examination Log, the record of pilot medical checks
  2. Mandatory Emergency Level, the threshold for declaring an emergency
  3. Minimum Equipment List, which defines items that may be inoperative while dispatching the aircraft Correct answer.
  4. Maximum Envelope Limit, the structural limit of the airframe

Explanation

The Minimum Equipment List specifies which equipment may be inoperative for dispatch under defined conditions. It allows safe operation while preserving airworthiness requirements.

Question 24Air Law and ATC Procedures

A pilot operating a commercial flight must ensure that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness remains valid. Which statement best describes this requirement?

  1. The C of A must be valid and the aircraft maintained per the approved maintenance programme Correct answer.
  2. The C of A may lapse provided the flight is short
  3. The C of A is replaced by the pilot's licence for private operations
  4. The C of A is required only for international flights

Explanation

A valid Certificate of Airworthiness, supported by maintenance in accordance with the approved programme, is a precondition for commercial flight. The certificate is not waived by flight duration or route type.

Question 25Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a typical light aircraft hydraulic system, what is the primary function of the accumulator?

  1. To filter contaminants from the fluid returning to the pump
  2. To store pressurised fluid so it can supply short-term peak demand and damp pressure fluctuations Correct answer.
  3. To cool the hydraulic fluid before it returns to the reservoir
  4. To convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical force at the actuator

Explanation

A hydraulic accumulator holds fluid under gas pressure, allowing it to absorb pump pulsations and deliver extra flow during brief high-demand periods such as gear or flap actuation. It supplements the pump rather than replacing its steady output.

Question 26Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

Which statement correctly describes the purpose of a shear section on an engine accessory drive or a shear neck on a component mounting?

  1. It allows the component to slip so that it can be re-timed in flight
  2. It increases the torque transmitted to the accessory during high-power operation
  3. It acts as a vibration damper to smooth accessory drive pulses
  4. It is designed to fail at a set load to protect the engine or structure from further damage Correct answer.

Explanation

A shear section is a deliberately weakened element engineered to break at a defined load, so that a jammed accessory or failed component cannot damage the engine core or airframe structure. It is a sacrificial protective feature, not a tuning or damping device.

Question 27Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

On an aircraft with a constant-speed propeller and a governor, what happens when the pilot moves the propeller control toward high RPM (fine pitch)?

  1. The governor increases oil pressure to the propeller to coarsen the blades
  2. The governor bleeds oil pressure from the propeller hub, allowing the blades to move toward fine pitch Correct answer.
  3. The blade angle is set mechanically by the throttle linkage
  4. The propeller blades are locked until manifold pressure is increased

Explanation

In a typical single-acting constant-speed propeller, oil pressure opposes a spring or counterweight that drives the blades toward fine pitch. Selecting a higher RPM reduces the governor's set speed, so it releases oil pressure and the blades move to a finer angle until RPM matches the setting.

Question 28Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

During a magneto check, an engine continues to run normally when the ignition switch is moved to the LEFT position but the RPM drop is excessive. What is the most likely interpretation?

  1. The ignition switch is shorted to ground on the left circuit
  2. The left magneto is producing weak spark or is incorrectly timed, so the engine is running mainly on the right magneto Correct answer.
  3. The right magneto is faulty and should be replaced before flight
  4. The engine is running on both magnetos and the drop is normal

Explanation

Selecting LEFT grounds the right magneto, so the engine runs on the left magneto alone. An excessive drop indicates the left magneto is weak, misfiring, or mistimed rather than that the right one is at fault.

Question 29Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the fuel selector valve being placarded with a BOTH position on many light twins, and what limitation applies?

  1. It balances fuel only during ground operations and must be off in flight
  2. It permits crossfeed between tanks and may be used for all phases including single-engine operation
  3. It allows both engines to feed from both tanks but is normally prohibited in some phases because a failed engine can draw fuel from the good engine's tank Correct answer.
  4. It selects the auxiliary boost pump rather than the tank source

Explanation

A BOTH position lets each engine draw from either tank, but if one engine fails, the running engine can continue to draw from both tanks, potentially starving itself. For this reason many aircraft restrict BOTH in critical phases such as takeoff, landing, or single-engine operation.

Question 30Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a piston engine, what is the effect of an excessively lean mixture at high power settings?

  1. Exhaust gas temperature rises and internal component temperatures can reach damaging levels Correct answer.
  2. The mixture becomes richer automatically as altitude increases
  3. Cylinder head temperatures fall because less fuel is burned
  4. Manifold pressure increases, giving more power at the same throttle setting

Explanation

Leaning beyond the recommended setting reduces the fuel available for cooling and combustion, raising combustion and exhaust gas temperatures. Sustained high power with an over-lean mixture can cause detonation and damage exhaust valves or pistons.

Question 31Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the primary purpose of a cowl flap system on an air-cooled piston engine installation?

  1. To regulate cooling airflow over the cylinders by varying the exit area Correct answer.
  2. To reduce propeller noise during climb
  3. To increase ram air pressure in the induction system
  4. To provide additional lift at low speed

Explanation

Cowl flaps control the exit area for cooling air, allowing the pilot to manage cylinder head and oil temperatures. Opening them increases airflow and cooling; closing them reduces drag and prevents over-cooling.

Question 32Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

An aircraft electrical system uses a 28-volt DC bus supplied by an alternator. What is the function of the overvoltage protection unit?

  1. It trips the alternator field circuit if bus voltage exceeds a set limit, protecting avionics Correct answer.
  2. It disconnects the battery from the bus when the master switch is turned off
  3. It converts AC to DC for the battery
  4. It limits current to the starter motor during engine start

Explanation

Overvoltage protection monitors bus voltage and removes the alternator field if the voltage rises above a safe threshold, preventing damage to sensitive avionics. It acts on the field circuit rather than the battery master.

Question 33Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the voltage regulator in a DC charging system?

  1. To step the battery voltage up for the avionics bus
  2. To maintain generator or alternator output within a designed range by controlling field current Correct answer.
  3. To convert the AC output into DC
  4. To prevent reverse current flow from the battery to the generator

Explanation

The voltage regulator modulates field current so that the generator or alternator output stays within the designed voltage range as load and RPM change. This protects the battery and electrical equipment from over- or under-voltage.

Question 34Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

A pilot notices that the ammeter shows a discharge with the engine running above idle and all electrical equipment switched on. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. The charging system output is insufficient to carry the load, so the battery is supplying the deficit Correct answer.
  2. The ammeter is indicating normal operation because discharge is expected in flight
  3. The alternator is producing excessive voltage and the overvoltage unit has failed
  4. The battery is being overcharged and the regulator should be adjusted

Explanation

A discharge indication with the engine running means the charging source is not meeting the electrical load, so the battery is making up the difference. The pilot should shed non-essential loads and investigate the charging system.

Question 35Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the static dischargers (static wicks) fitted to the trailing edges of aircraft control surfaces?

  1. To reduce static electricity build-up by bleeding charge into the atmosphere, protecting radio reception Correct answer.
  2. To act as antennas for the VHF communication system
  3. To provide lightning protection by conducting strikes to the airframe
  4. To improve aerodynamic balance of the control surfaces

Explanation

Static dischargers provide a controlled path for accumulated static charge to dissipate into the air, reducing precipitation static interference with radios. They are not structural or lightning-protection devices.

Question 36Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of the pitot heat system on an aircraft?

  1. To warm the cabin air supply at altitude
  2. To prevent ice formation in the pitot tube that would cause erroneous airspeed indications Correct answer.
  3. To heat the static ports only during descent
  4. To maintain fuel temperature in the tanks

Explanation

Pitot heat warms the pitot tube to prevent ice blockage, which would trap pressure and cause unreliable or frozen airspeed indications. Blocked pitot tubes are a serious hazard, so the system is normally checked before flight in icing conditions.

Question 37Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

On an aircraft with hydraulically powered flight controls and no manual reversion, what is the significance of a hydraulic system low-pressure warning during flight?

  1. It indicates a filter bypass and can be ignored until landing
  2. It indicates the reservoir is overfull and fluid is venting overboard
  3. It warns of loss of hydraulic pressure that may degrade or remove control authority, requiring immediate action Correct answer.
  4. It confirms that the standby pump has automatically engaged and normal control is available

Explanation

A low-pressure warning means the hydraulic system may no longer be delivering the pressure needed to move the controls or operate services. Without manual reversion, control authority may be reduced or lost, so the crew must act immediately per the checklist.

Question 38Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of a torque link (scissors) on an aircraft landing gear oleo strut?

  1. To damp shimmy oscillations during taxi
  2. To lock the gear in the down position after extension
  3. To allow the strut to extend and compress while preventing rotation of the lower leg relative to the upper leg Correct answer.
  4. To provide the main structural attachment between the wing and the gear

Explanation

The torque link is a hinged linkage that permits the oleo to extend and retract while transmitting torsional loads, keeping the wheel assembly aligned. Without it, the lower leg could rotate freely and steering or wheel alignment would be lost.

Question 39Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What happens to the indicated airspeed if the static port becomes blocked while the aircraft climbs?

  1. The airspeed indicator reads higher than actual airspeed Correct answer.
  2. The airspeed indicator reads zero
  3. The airspeed indicator reads lower than actual airspeed
  4. The airspeed indication remains accurate because only the pitot source matters

Explanation

With a blocked static port, trapped static pressure remains at the level where the blockage occurred while the pitot pressure falls with climb. The pressure difference across the instrument increases, so the airspeed indicator over-reads as altitude increases.

Question 40Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the function of a fire detection loop in an engine compartment?

  1. To extinguish a fire by releasing agent automatically
  2. To vent smoke overboard from the cabin
  3. To shut down the engine automatically when a fire is detected
  4. To sense a temperature or rate-of-rise condition and trigger a warning in the cockpit Correct answer.

Explanation

A fire detection loop senses overheat or fire conditions and provides a cockpit warning so the crew can act. Extinguishing and shutdown are separate functions initiated by the crew or dedicated systems.

Question 41Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

A transport aircraft is equipped with a Halon fire extinguishing bottle for the engine. What is the primary mechanism by which Halon suppresses a fire?

  1. It displaces all oxygen from the compartment
  2. It coats the fuel surface to prevent vapour release
  3. It chemically interrupts the combustion chain reaction Correct answer.
  4. It cools the fire by absorbing heat into water vapour

Explanation

Halon agents primarily act by chemically interrupting the free-radical chain reaction of combustion, which stops the fire at low concentration. Cooling and oxygen displacement are secondary or minor effects compared with the chemical action.

Question 42Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the purpose of the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) and how is it typically activated?

  1. It broadcasts the aircraft's altitude to air traffic control continuously
  2. It provides a backup radio for normal communications
  3. It records cockpit audio for accident investigation
  4. It transmits a distress signal on impact or manual selection to aid search and rescue Correct answer.

Explanation

An ELT transmits a distress signal, typically on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz, when triggered by impact or manual activation, helping search and rescue locate the aircraft. It is not a communication or recording device.

Question 43Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a pressurised aircraft, what is the function of the outflow valve?

  1. To relieve excessive pressure only in an emergency
  2. To admit conditioned air into the cabin
  3. To mix recirculated cabin air with fresh air
  4. To regulate cabin pressure by controlling the rate at which air leaves the cabin Correct answer.

Explanation

The outflow valve modulates the escape of cabin air to maintain the selected cabin altitude and rate of change. The inflow of conditioned air is controlled separately, so the outflow valve is the primary pressure regulator.

Question 44Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the primary purpose of an anti-icing system on the leading edge of a wing compared with a de-icing system?

  1. Anti-icing removes ice after formation, whereas de-icing prevents formation
  2. Anti-icing prevents ice from forming, whereas de-icing removes ice after it has formed Correct answer.
  3. Both systems operate only on the ground
  4. Anti-icing is used only on the tailplane

Explanation

Anti-icing systems, such as thermal bleed air on the leading edge, keep surfaces above freezing so ice does not accumulate. De-icing systems, such as inflatable boots, allow ice to form and then break it away periodically.

Question 45Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

A turbocharged piston engine is climbing at high altitude with the wastegate fully closed. What is the effect on manifold pressure if the throttle remains fully open?

  1. Manifold pressure is unaffected by the wastegate position
  2. Manifold pressure falls below sea-level value because the turbocharger cannot maintain it
  3. Manifold pressure continues to rise indefinitely with altitude
  4. Manifold pressure is maintained at the selected value until the turbocharger reaches its maximum output, after which it falls Correct answer.

Explanation

With the wastegate closed, all exhaust gas drives the turbocharger, which maintains manifold pressure until it reaches its maximum rotational speed or critical altitude. Beyond that point, the turbocharger cannot keep up with decreasing ambient pressure and manifold pressure falls.

Question 46Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

In a constant-speed propeller system, what is the purpose of the feathering position?

  1. To allow the propeller to overspeed for better cooling
  2. To increase thrust during a go-around
  3. To set the blades to a high-drag angle to slow the aircraft during descent
  4. To set the blades to a low-drag angle so a failed engine produces minimum drag and the propeller stops windmilling Correct answer.

Explanation

Feathering rotates the blades to a near-edge-on, high-pitch angle that minimises drag and stops windmilling after an engine failure. This reduces asymmetric drag and helps the aircraft maintain altitude and control.

Question 47Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

What is the significance of the critical engine on a twin-engine aircraft with both propellers turning clockwise?

  1. It is the engine closest to the fuel selector
  2. It is the engine that produces more thrust at high altitude
  3. It is the engine whose failure produces the greatest adverse yaw and control difficulty Correct answer.
  4. It is the engine that must be started first

Explanation

The critical engine is the one whose failure most adversely affects performance and control, typically because of asymmetric thrust and the P-factor of the remaining engine. On a conventional clockwise-rotation twin, the left engine is usually critical.

Question 48Aircraft General Knowledge – Airframe, Systems, Electrics, Powerplant and Emergency Equipment

An aircraft is fitted with a DC generator and a battery. What is the purpose of the reverse-current cutout relay?

  1. To prevent the battery from discharging back through the generator when generator output falls below battery voltage Correct answer.
  2. To reverse the polarity of the generator during start
  3. To disconnect the generator when the master switch is off
  4. To cut out the battery during overvoltage

Explanation

The reverse-current cutout opens the circuit when current tries to flow from the battery into the generator, which would otherwise discharge the battery and damage the generator. It connects the generator to the bus only when its output exceeds battery voltage.

Question 49Flight Planning and Monitoring

In CPL flight planning, which mass is used as the basis for calculating the take-off and landing distances certified in the aircraft flight manual?

  1. The maximum certified take-off mass Correct answer.
  2. The landing mass with zero fuel
  3. The actual take-off mass with the planned fuel load
  4. The operating empty mass plus payload only

Explanation

AFM performance data are published for the maximum certified take-off and landing masses, and the pilot applies corrections for pressure altitude, temperature, wind and slope before comparing with the actual mass. Planning is normally done against the most limiting of these values, so the certified maximum mass is the reference datum for the published figures.

Question 50Flight Planning and Monitoring

An aircraft has a maximum structural landing mass of 3,200 kg and a maximum take-off mass of 3,500 kg. For a planned flight the trip fuel is 250 kg and the fuel remaining at the destination after approach and taxi is 60 kg. What is the maximum traffic load that may be carried if the operating empty mass is 2,100 kg?

  1. 1,040 kg
  2. 890 kg Correct answer.
  3. 950 kg
  4. 1,100 kg

Explanation

Landing mass equals take-off mass minus trip fuel, so the landing limit caps take-off mass at 3,200 + 250 = 3,450 kg, which is below the structural take-off limit. The allowed take-off mass is therefore 3,450 kg, and traffic load = 3,450 − 2,100 − 310 = 1,040 kg; however the fuel remaining at destination of 60 kg must still be on board at landing, so the landing mass limit gives 3,200 − 2,100 − 60 = 1,040 kg as well, and the take-off limit governs at 3,450 kg. Recomputing with the landing-mass constraint as the binding case gives 3,200 − 2,100 − 310 = 790 kg, so the correct regulated answer is obtained by applying the landing limit to the total fuel on board.