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Question 1General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form?
- Article 15
- Article 17 Correct answer.
- Article 23
- Article 19
Explanation
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making it one of the few fundamental rights enforceable against private individuals as well as the State. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds such as religion, race, caste and sex.
Question 2General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
- The Vice-President
- The Prime Minister
- The Chief Justice of India Correct answer.
- The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation
Article 60 requires the President to be sworn in by the Chief Justice of India, and in the Chief Justice's absence the senior-most Supreme Court judge available performs the duty. The oath affirms allegiance to the Constitution and faithful discharge of the office.
Question 3General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which body conducts elections to the offices of President and Vice-President of India?
- The Supreme Court
- The Rajya Sabha Secretariat
- The Election Commission of India Correct answer.
- NITI Aayog
Explanation
The Election Commission of India, under Article 324, superintends and controls the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to Parliament, State legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President. The actual poll for the President is held through an electoral college of elected members.
Question 4General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following Indian states?
- Karnataka
- Kerala
- Andhra Pradesh
- Rajasthan Correct answer.
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer crosses eight Indian states, including Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Rajasthan lies along this latitude, whereas Kerala and Karnataka are entirely south of it.
Question 5General Knowledge and Current Affairs
What is the chemical name of common baking soda?
- Sodium chloride
- Calcium carbonate
- Sodium bicarbonate Correct answer.
- Sodium carbonate
Explanation
Baking soda is sodium bicarbonate, with the formula NaHCO3, a mild base that releases carbon dioxide when heated or treated with acid. Sodium carbonate, by contrast, is washing soda.
Question 6General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which is the largest gland in the human body?
- Thyroid
- Liver Correct answer.
- Pancreas
- Pituitary
Explanation
The liver is the largest gland in the human body, weighing roughly 1.5 kg in adults, and it secretes bile while performing metabolic and detoxifying functions. The pancreas is the second-largest gland.
Question 7General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Who wrote the novel 'Godaan'?
- Rabindranath Tagore
- Sarojini Naidu
- Munshi Premchand Correct answer.
- Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Explanation
'Godaan' (1936) is a Hindi novel by Munshi Premchand, regarded as one of the finest works of Indian literature, depicting rural poverty and exploitation. Tagore and Bankim Chandra wrote primarily in Bengali.
Question 8General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which Indian city is known as the 'Silicon Valley of India'?
- Chennai
- Pune
- Bengaluru Correct answer.
- Hyderabad
Explanation
Bengaluru is called the Silicon Valley of India because of its concentration of information technology firms, start-ups and research institutions. Hyderabad is often called Cyberabad for its IT cluster.
Question 9General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Under the Indian Penal Code, which Section defines theft?
- Section 302
- Section 420
- Section 378 Correct answer.
- Section 390
Explanation
Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code defines theft as dishonestly taking movable property out of another person's possession without consent. Section 390 defines robbery and Section 420 cheating.
Question 10General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The doctrine of 'basic structure' was propounded by the Supreme Court in which case?
- Golaknath v. State of Punjab
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.
- Minerva Mills v. Union of India
- Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Explanation
In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a thirteen-judge bench held that Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure. Later cases applied and expanded the doctrine.
Question 11General Knowledge and Current Affairs
A person accused of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment is produced before a magistrate. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the maximum period for which such a person may be remanded to police custody at one time is:
- 10 days
- 30 days
- 7 days
- 15 days Correct answer.
Explanation
Under Section 167 of the CrPC, the maximum period for police custody remand at a time is 15 days, whereas judicial custody can be extended up to 60 or 90 days depending on the offence. The 15-day police custody limit is cumulative.
Question 12General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in which year?
- 1935
- 1947
- 1949 Correct answer.
- 1969
Explanation
The RBI was established in 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and was nationalised on 1 January 1949. The 1969 event refers to the nationalisation of fourteen major commercial banks.
Question 13General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is a Kharif crop in India?
- Gram
- Mustard
- Rice Correct answer.
- Wheat
Explanation
Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon around June and harvested in autumn; rice, maize, cotton and jowar are examples. Wheat, mustard and gram are Rabi crops grown in winter.
Question 14General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which fundamental duty in Article 51A requires citizens to protect and improve the natural environment?
- Article 51A(b)
- Article 51A(g) Correct answer.
- Article 51A(j)
- Article 51A(f)
Explanation
Article 51A(g) casts a duty on every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. These duties were inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
Question 15General Knowledge and Current Affairs
A contract is voidable at the option of the aggrieved party when consent is caused by:
- Undue influence Correct answer.
- Fraud
- Coercion by a stranger to the contract
- Mistake of fact
Explanation
Under Section 19A of the Indian Contract Act, a contract induced by undue influence is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained. Coercion and fraud also render a contract voidable, but the question specifically asks about undue influence as the correct option.
Question 16General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which body prepares the National Income estimates in India?
- Ministry of Finance
- NITI Aayog
- Central Statistics Office Correct answer.
- Reserve Bank of India
Explanation
The Central Statistics Office (now part of the National Statistical Office) compiles national income estimates, including GDP and GVA. The RBI publishes monetary and banking statistics but not the official national income series.
Question 17General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The Battle of Plassey was fought in which year?
- 1857
- 1757 Correct answer.
- 1764
- 1761
Explanation
The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 between the British East India Company under Robert Clive and the forces of Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal. The victory established Company political power in Bengal.
Question 18General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of a civil suit under the Code of Civil Procedure?
- Framing of issues, pleadings, evidence, service of summons, judgment
- Service of summons, evidence, pleadings, framing of issues, judgment
- Pleadings, service of summons, framing of issues, evidence, judgment Correct answer.
- Pleadings, framing of issues, service of summons, judgment, evidence
Explanation
A civil suit ordinarily proceeds through the filing of pleadings, service of summons on the defendant, framing of issues, recording of evidence and finally judgment and decree. This sequence reflects the structure of the CPC.
Question 19General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The Right to Education was inserted as a fundamental right by which constitutional amendment?
- 44th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- 86th Amendment Correct answer.
- 73rd Amendment
Explanation
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, guaranteeing free and compulsory education to children aged six to fourteen, and added a corresponding fundamental duty. It came into force in 2010 through enabling legislation.
Question 20General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of Indian space missions?
- Chandrayaan-1, Chandrayaan-2, Mangalyaan, Chandrayaan-3
- Chandrayaan-2, Chandrayaan-1, Mangalyaan, Chandrayaan-3
- Chandrayaan-1, Mangalyaan, Chandrayaan-2, Chandrayaan-3 Correct answer.
- Mangalyaan, Chandrayaan-1, Chandrayaan-3, Chandrayaan-2
Explanation
Chandrayaan-1 was launched in 2008, Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission) in 2013, Chandrayaan-2 in 2019 and Chandrayaan-3 in 2023. This sequence reflects ISRO's progression from lunar to interplanetary missions.
Question 21General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The concept of 'directive principles of state policy' in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country?
- Canada
- United States
- Ireland Correct answer.
- United Kingdom
Explanation
The directive principles in Part IV were inspired by the Irish Constitution, which in turn drew on the Spanish Constitution. They guide state policy towards social and economic democracy but are not directly enforceable in courts.
Question 22General Knowledge and Current Affairs
A contract is entered into by a minor for the purchase of a bicycle. Which statement best reflects the legal position under Indian law?
- The contract is void ab initio and cannot be ratified on attaining majority Correct answer.
- The contract is valid if the minor paid the full price
- The contract is voidable at the option of the minor on attaining majority
- The contract is valid and enforceable against the minor's guardian
Explanation
Under Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, a contract with a minor is void ab initio because a minor lacks the capacity to contract under Section 11. On attaining majority, the person cannot ratify such an agreement, though a fresh contract may be made.
Question 23General Knowledge and Current Affairs
In a prosecution under Section 302 IPC, the accused pleads alibi. Which burden of proof applies?
- The accused must prove alibi beyond reasonable doubt
- The accused must establish alibi to the standard of preponderance of probabilities Correct answer.
- The prosecution must disprove alibi beyond reasonable doubt as part of its case
- No burden lies on either party; the court must investigate
Explanation
The prosecution bears the primary burden of proving guilt beyond reasonable doubt, but an accused who raises a plea such as alibi must establish it to the standard of preponderance of probabilities. This is because the burden lies on the accused to introduce and prove facts within his special knowledge.
Question 24General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following best describes the doctrine of 'res judicata' as applied in Indian civil procedure?
- A plaintiff may sue on the same cause of action in a different court
- A court may review its own judgment at any time on the same facts
- A matter already decided by a competent court cannot be re-litigated between the same parties Correct answer.
- A judgment is binding only on the parties who actually appeared in court
Explanation
Section 11 of the CPC embodies res judicata: a final decision by a competent court bars a subsequent suit between the same parties on the same matter, ensuring finality and preventing multiplicity of proceedings. The rule applies even to parties claiming under those who litigated.
Question 25General Knowledge and Current Affairs
A State legislature passes a law on a subject in the Concurrent List that conflicts with an existing central law. Which principle governs the repugnancy?
- The State law prevails because it is later in time
- Both laws are automatically void
- The central law prevails only if it received presidential assent
- The State law prevails if it received presidential assent and the central law does not occupy the field Correct answer.
Explanation
Under Article 254, if a State law on a Concurrent List subject is repugnant to a central law, the central law generally prevails, but the State law prevails if it has received the President's assent and the central law does not occupy the same field. This is the doctrine of repugnancy.
Question 26General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India?
- Article 40
- Article 48
- Article 44 Correct answer.
- Article 51
Explanation
Article 44 sits in Part IV among the Directive Principles and directs the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code across India. Being a Directive Principle, it is not enforceable in courts but guides state policy. Article 40 deals with panchayats, Article 48 with agriculture and animal husbandry, and Article 51 with international peace and security.
Question 27General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by which authority?
- The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- The President of India Correct answer.
- The Prime Minister
- The Chief Justice of India
Explanation
Under Article 148 of the Constitution, the CAG is appointed by the President of India. The CAG holds office for six years or until attaining 65 years of age, whichever is earlier, and can be removed only in the manner provided for a Supreme Court judge. The office is independent of the executive in the discharge of its audit duties.
Question 28General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which writ is issued by a court to a person holding public office directing that a public duty be performed?
- Quo warranto
- Mandamus Correct answer.
- Certiorari
- Habeas corpus
Explanation
Mandamus literally means 'we command' and is issued to compel performance of a public duty where the authority has failed to act. Habeas corpus secures release from unlawful detention, certiorari quashes a lower tribunal's order, and quo warranto questions the authority of a person holding a public office. Mandamus generally does not lie against a private individual.
Question 29General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement without consideration is valid in which situation?
- When it is made in restraint of marriage of a minor
- When it is made by a person of unsound mind during a lucid interval
- When it is made out of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation and is in writing and registered Correct answer.
- When it is made orally between business partners for mutual benefit
Explanation
Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act treats an agreement without consideration as void, but carves out exceptions. One exception is an agreement made out of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation, provided it is in writing and registered. Agreements in restraint of marriage are void under Section 26.
Question 30General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct meaning of the maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat' in Indian criminal law?
- Ignorance of the law is no excuse for its violation Correct answer.
- The benefit of doubt goes to the accused
- A person cannot be tried twice for the same offence
- An act done under mistake of fact is always excused
Explanation
The maxim means ignorance of the law excuses no one, and it underlies the presumption that every person knows the law of the land. Mistake of fact, by contrast, can be a defence under Sections 76 and 79 of the Indian Penal Code, but mistake of law generally is not. The rule protects the legal system from claims that a person simply did not know the prohibition.
Question 31General Knowledge and Current Affairs
A police officer arrests a person without a warrant for a cognizable offence. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the arrested person must ordinarily be produced before a magistrate within what period?
- Twenty-four hours of arrest, excluding time of journey Correct answer.
- Immediately, without any allowance for travel
- Seven days of arrest
- Forty-eight hours of arrest
Explanation
Article 22(2) of the Constitution and the corresponding provision in the Code of Criminal Procedure require that an arrested person be produced before the nearest magistrate within twenty-four hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey. Detention beyond that period without magisterial authorisation is illegal. This safeguard is a fundamental right not available to preventive detention in the same form.
Question 32General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct expansion of the abbreviation 'NCLT' in the Indian legal system?
- National Corporate Legal Tribunal
- National Company Law Tribunal Correct answer.
- National Civil Litigation Tribunal
- National Commercial Law Tribunal
Explanation
NCLT stands for the National Company Law Tribunal, constituted under the Companies Act, 2013. It adjudicates company law matters such as insolvency applications, amalgamations, and oppression and mismanagement petitions. Appeals from NCLT orders lie to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).
Question 33General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian States?
- Eight Correct answer.
- Nine
- Six
- Five
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer crosses India through eight States: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. It does not pass through any Union Territory in the commonly cited list. This is a standard geography fact tested in general knowledge sections.
Question 34General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which Indian economist is associated with the 'Mahalanobis model' used in the Second Five Year Plan?
- Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis Correct answer.
- Jagdish Bhagwati
- C. Rajagopalachari
- V. K. R. V. Rao
Explanation
Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, founder of the Indian Statistical Institute, designed the growth model emphasising heavy industry that shaped the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61). C. Rajagopalachari opposed that plan's emphasis and favoured agriculture and small industry. V. K. R. V. Rao and Jagdish Bhagwati are distinguished economists but not the authors of this model.
Question 35General Knowledge and Current Affairs
The Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded to which Indian-born author in 1913?
- Rudyard Kipling
- V. S. Naipaul
- Mulk Raj Anand
- Rabindranath Tagore Correct answer.
Explanation
Rabindranath Tagore received the 1913 Nobel Prize in Literature, the first Asian to do so, largely for 'Gitanjali'. Rudyard Kipling, though born in Bombay, won the prize in 1907 as a British writer. V. S. Naipaul won in 2001 and Mulk Raj Anand never received the prize.
Question 36General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which body in India is constitutionally entrusted with the conduct of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures?
- Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
- Law Commission of India
- Election Commission of India Correct answer.
- NITI Aayog
Explanation
Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India and vests it with superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs handles legislative business, and the Law Commission recommends legal reforms.
Question 37General Knowledge and Current Affairs
In Indian constitutional law, the doctrine of 'colourable legislation' is best described as which of the following?
- The President may amend the Constitution by ordinance
- A law becomes void the moment a court finds it economically unwise
- A State law always prevails over a prior central law
- A legislature cannot do indirectly what it is constitutionally barred from doing directly Correct answer.
Explanation
The doctrine of colourable legislation asks whether a legislature has attempted to achieve indirectly what falls outside its competence to do directly. It is essentially a question of legislative competence and is applied where the form of a law disguises a subject outside the enacting legislature's list. The doctrine does not concern the wisdom or policy of legislation.
Question 38General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following statements about the Finance Commission of India is correct?
- It prepares the annual Union Budget for presentation in Parliament
- It audits the accounts of the Union Government
- It is constituted every five years by the President to recommend distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States Correct answer.
- It is a permanent body chaired by the Prime Minister
Explanation
Article 280 requires the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years, specifying principles for distributing net tax proceeds between the Union and States and for grants-in-aid. It is an advisory constitutional body, not a permanent executive committee. Budget preparation belongs to the Ministry of Finance and audit to the CAG.
Question 39General Knowledge and Current Affairs
A person commits an act in a State that is an offence there but not in the neighbouring State. Which principle of criminal jurisdiction generally governs prosecution in India?
- Universal jurisdiction, so any court may try the offence
- Territorial jurisdiction, so the law of the place of the offence applies Correct answer.
- Nationality jurisdiction, so the offender's domicile governs
- Passive personality jurisdiction, so the victim's origin governs
Explanation
Indian criminal law generally follows the territorial principle, applying the law in force at the place where the offence is committed. Section 177 of the Code of Criminal Procedure requires trial by a court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed. Nationality and universal jurisdiction apply only in specific statutory situations such as extraterritorial offences under special laws.
Question 40General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct description of the 'Doctrine of Eclipse' as applied to pre-constitutional laws?
- A pre-constitutional law inconsistent with fundamental rights becomes dormant but is revived if the inconsistency is removed Correct answer.
- A pre-constitutional law can be amended only by a constitutional amendment
- A pre-constitutional law applies only to the Union and not to States
- A pre-constitutional law is automatically repealed on the commencement of the Constitution
Explanation
Under Article 13(1) read with the eclipse doctrine, a pre-constitutional law inconsistent with fundamental rights is not void ab initio but remains eclipsed and dormant. If a constitutional amendment removes the inconsistency, the law becomes operative again without re-enactment. This distinguishes it from total repeal of the statute.
Question 41General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following Indian institutions issues the 'Annual Report' on the working of the Right to Information Act to Parliament?
- Reserve Bank of India
- NITI Aayog
- Supreme Court of India
- Central Information Commission Correct answer.
Explanation
The Central Information Commission prepares an annual report on the implementation of the Right to Information Act, which is laid before Parliament under Section 25 of the Act. It is an autonomous body constituted under the Act and hears appeals against decisions of central public information officers. The other bodies have no statutory duty to report on RTI implementation.
Question 42General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the enactment of an ordinary central law?
- Assent of the President, introduction of the Bill, passage by both Houses, notification in the Gazette
- Introduction of the Bill, assent of the President, passage by both Houses, notification in the Gazette
- Introduction of the Bill, passage by both Houses, assent of the President, notification in the Gazette Correct answer.
- Introduction of the Bill, notification in the Gazette, passage by both Houses, assent of the President
Explanation
An ordinary Bill is introduced, debated and passed by both Houses of Parliament, then presented to the President for assent under Article 111, and finally brought into force by notification in the Official Gazette. Assent cannot precede parliamentary passage, and notification typically follows assent. Money Bills follow a special procedure with the Lok Sabha's primacy.
Question 43General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the primary source of law in India that is binding and enforceable without legislative enactment?
- A resolution of the Bar Council of India
- A Law Commission report
- Judicial precedent of the Supreme Court Correct answer.
- A press release of the Ministry of Law
Explanation
Under Article 141 of the Constitution, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within India, making judicial precedent an enforceable source of law. Law Commission reports are recommendatory, ministerial press releases are executive information, and Bar Council resolutions bind only the profession. Precedent operates alongside legislation and custom as a recognised source.
Question 44General Knowledge and Current Affairs
In the context of Indian administrative law, the principle of 'natural justice' in its minimum content requires which of the following?
- A hearing by an unbiased adjudicator after notice of the allegations Correct answer.
- A right to be represented by a senior advocate at public expense
- A right to appeal to the Supreme Court in every administrative matter
- A written judgment delivered within thirty days of hearing
Explanation
The minimum content of natural justice comprises the rule against bias (nemo judex in causa sua) and the right to a fair hearing (audi alteram partem), which presupposes notice of the allegations. These principles apply to administrative and quasi-judicial bodies even absent statutory procedure. There is no general rule of a thirty-day judgment deadline or state-funded senior counsel.
Question 45General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following statements about the Indian Penal Code's treatment of 'culpable homicide' and 'murder' is accurate?
- Culpable homicide always requires premeditation while murder does not
- Culpable homicide is the genus and murder is a species within it Correct answer.
- Murder is the genus and culpable homicide is a species within it
- The two terms are entirely synonymous in the Code
Explanation
Section 299 defines culpable homicide, and Section 300 defines murder as a particular aggravated form of culpable homicide. Every murder is culpable homicide, but not every culpable homicide amounts to murder, as the exceptions in Section 300 reduce it. The distinction turns on the degree of intention and knowledge and the exceptions.
Question 46General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct description of the 'rule against perpetuity' in Indian property and transfer law?
- No lease can exceed ninety-nine years
- No interest in property can be created to take effect after a period beyond the life of a living person plus a minority term Correct answer.
- No property can be transferred without registration
- No person can transfer property to more than one person at a time
Explanation
Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act embodies the rule against perpetuity, which limits the creation of future interests to the life of a person living at the date of transfer plus the minority period of the ultimate beneficiary. The rule prevents property from being tied up indefinitely. It concerns remoteness of vesting rather than registration or the number of transferees.
Question 47General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct expansion of 'ADR' in the Indian legal context?
- Arbitration and Drafting Rules
- Appellate Dispute Registry
- Alternative Dispute Resolution Correct answer.
- Administrative Dispute Review
Explanation
ADR stands for Alternative Dispute Resolution, comprising mechanisms such as arbitration, mediation, conciliation and negotiation used to resolve disputes outside ordinary litigation. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 promote such mechanisms. Lok Adalats are a prominent Indian ADR institution.
Question 48General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following describes the constitutional position of the Attorney General of India?
- He is appointed by the President and is the first law officer of the Union but is not a member of the Cabinet Correct answer.
- He is a member of the Cabinet and votes in the Lok Sabha
- He is elected by both Houses of Parliament and holds office for five years
- He is appointed by the Chief Justice of India and functions as a judge
Explanation
Article 76 provides that the President appoints a person qualified to be a Supreme Court judge as Attorney General, who advises the Government of India on legal matters and appears in important cases. He is the first law officer of the Union but is not a member of the Cabinet and has no vote in Parliament. He may speak in either House but cannot vote.
Question 49General Knowledge and Current Affairs
A State Government issues an executive order that conflicts with a central statute on a Concurrent List subject. Which of the following best states the legal position?
- Both instruments are suspended until Parliament decides
- The executive order prevails because the State has exclusive executive authority
- The executive order prevails if it was issued earlier in time
- The executive order is invalid to the extent of repugnancy because executive power cannot override a valid central law Correct answer.
Explanation
Under Article 256 and Article 254, executive power is exercised subject to law, so a State executive order cannot displace a valid law made by Parliament on a Concurrent List subject. Repugnancy is resolved in favour of the central law unless the State law received presidential assent. Executive action cannot achieve what the legislature itself could not validly do.
Question 50General Knowledge and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the correct description of the 'National Green Tribunal' in India?
- It is a department of the Ministry of Environment that drafts environmental policy
- It is an advisory committee of the Supreme Court on environmental matters
- It is a statutory body with original jurisdiction over environmental disputes and appeals under specified environmental laws Correct answer.
- It is a constitutional court established under Article 324 of the Constitution
Explanation
The National Green Tribunal was established by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, as a specialised statutory body to hear environmental disputes and appeals under laws such as the Water Act and the Air Act. It is not a constitutional court and is not part of the executive. Its decisions are appealable to the Supreme Court.