AP Police SI study materials
AP Police SI study resources

AP Police SI practice questions

One question at a time. Build your AP Police SI understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1General Awareness and Current Affairs

The Indian Constitution divides governmental powers between the Union and the States. Which list contains subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate?

  1. State List
  2. Residuary powers of the States
  3. Concurrent List
  4. Union List Correct answer.

Explanation

Under the Seventh Schedule, the Union List carries subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs and currency, on which only Parliament legislates. The State List is for the States, while the Concurrent List is shared. Residuary subjects fall to the Union, not the States.

Question 2General Awareness and Current Affairs

In the Indian federal setup, 'police' and 'public order' are placed in which schedule list, making the State government primarily responsible for policing?

  1. Residuary subjects
  2. Concurrent List
  3. State List Correct answer.
  4. Union List

Explanation

Entries 1 and 2 of the State List cover public order and police respectively, which is why law and order is a State subject and State police forces function under State control. Parliament's role in policing is limited to Union territories, central agencies and coordination.

Question 3General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which body recommends the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, a matter that affects State funding for services including policing?

  1. Comptroller and Auditor General
  2. NITI Aayog
  3. Finance Commission Correct answer.
  4. Election Commission

Explanation

Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission constituted every five years to recommend devolution of central taxes and grants-in-aid to States. Its recommendations determine the fiscal space available to States for subjects such as police and public order.

Question 4General Awareness and Current Affairs

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by which amendment?

  1. 42nd Amendment, 1976 Correct answer.
  2. 44th Amendment, 1978
  3. 73rd Amendment, 1992
  4. 52nd Amendment, 1985

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Part IVA (Article 51A) listing Fundamental Duties, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. A duty to send children to school was later added by the 86th Amendment.

Question 5General Awareness and Current Affairs

A police officer arrests a person without a warrant. Under the Constitution, which Article protects the arrested person's right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and to consult a lawyer?

  1. Article 32
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 22 Correct answer.
  4. Article 21

Explanation

Article 22 guarantees safeguards for persons arrested, including being informed of the grounds of arrest, the right to consult and be defended by a lawyer, and production before a magistrate within 24 hours. These safeguards flow into the Code of Criminal Procedure as well.

Question 6General Awareness and Current Affairs

Under the Right to Information framework, a citizen seeks information held by a public authority. Which statement correctly describes the general timeline for a Public Information Officer to respond?

  1. Within 30 days, with 48 hours where life or liberty is involved Correct answer.
  2. Within 90 days unless extended
  3. Within 15 days in all cases
  4. Within 7 days in all cases

Explanation

The RTI Act requires the Public Information Officer to dispose of a request within 30 days ordinarily, and within 48 hours where the information concerns the life or liberty of a person. The Act does not set a uniform 15-day or 7-day period for all cases.

Question 7General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy rather than a Fundamental Right?

  1. Right to equality before law
  2. Prohibition of child labour below fourteen years in hazardous work
  3. Promotion of a uniform civil code Correct answer.
  4. Right to freedom of religion

Explanation

Article 44 directs the State to endeavour to secure a uniform civil code, and it is a Directive Principle enforceable only through State action, not in court. Equality, religion and the prohibition of hazardous child employment are fundamental rights under Articles 14, 25 and 24.

Question 8General Awareness and Current Affairs

The Reserve Bank of India manages monetary policy. Which instrument does it use to directly change the cost at which banks borrow short-term funds from the RBI?

  1. Cash Reserve Ratio
  2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  3. Open market operations
  4. Repo rate Correct answer.

Explanation

The repo rate is the rate at which banks borrow short-term funds from the RBI against government securities, so changing it directly alters borrowing cost. CRR and SLR affect the quantum of funds banks must hold, while open market operations affect liquidity through buying and selling securities.

Question 9General Awareness and Current Affairs

The Goods and Services Tax in India is described as a 'destination-based' tax. What does this mean?

  1. Tax is levied only on services
  2. Tax accrues to the State where the goods are produced
  3. Tax is collected only by the Union government
  4. Tax accrues to the State where the goods are consumed Correct answer.

Explanation

Under the destination principle, GST revenue accrues to the jurisdiction where final consumption takes place, which is why inter-State supplies attract IGST and are apportioned to the consuming State. Origin-based taxation would accrue revenue to the producing State.

Question 10General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which of the following persons is not eligible to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha?

  1. A person who is a registered elector in the constituency
  2. A person who is of unsound mind and declared so by a competent court Correct answer.
  3. A person who has completed eighteen years of age
  4. A person who is ordinarily resident in the constituency

Explanation

Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 disqualifies a person of unsound mind declared so by a competent court from registration as an elector. Age of eighteen, ordinary residence and registration are qualifying conditions for voting.

Question 11General Awareness and Current Affairs

An official is accused of demanding and accepting a bribe to clear a file. Which law is the primary statute under which such a public servant may be prosecuted in India?

  1. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
  2. Indian Penal Code provisions on theft
  3. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
  4. Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 Correct answer.

Explanation

The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 specifically criminalises demand and acceptance of gratification by public servants, and it was amended in 2018 to cover bribe-givers as well. Theft provisions and commercial statutes do not address official corruption.

Question 12General Awareness and Current Affairs

A crowd attacks a police station and the officer in charge uses force to disperse it. Which constitutional provision permits reasonable restrictions on the freedom of assembly in the interest of public order?

  1. Article 25
  2. Article 19(1)(b) read with 19(3) Correct answer.
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 19(1)(a) read with 19(2)

Explanation

Article 19(1)(b) guarantees the right to assemble peaceably and without arms, and clause (3) permits reasonable restrictions in the interests of public order. This is the provision that justifies regulating assemblies that threaten order.

Question 13General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which body is constituted under the Constitution to conduct elections to Parliament, State legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President?

  1. Election Commission of India Correct answer.
  2. Finance Commission
  3. Union Public Service Commission
  4. NITI Aayog

Explanation

Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India as an independent constitutional authority for superintendence and conduct of elections to Parliament, State legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President. Panchayat and municipal elections are handled by State Election Commissions.

Question 14General Awareness and Current Affairs

The National Human Rights Commission is primarily mandated to do which of the following?

  1. Appoint judges to High Courts
  2. Prosecute offenders directly in criminal courts
  3. Inquire into complaints of violation of human rights and recommend remedial action Correct answer.
  4. Frame the annual Union Budget

Explanation

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 empowers the NHRC to inquire into complaints of human rights violations, visit jails, and recommend action to governments. It cannot itself prosecute or award punishment, and it has no budgetary or judicial appointment role.

Question 15General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct description of the 'zero hour' in a parliamentary sitting?

  1. The time fixed for the President's address
  2. The first hour of the sitting reserved for the Question Hour
  3. The period reserved for the Budget speech
  4. The time immediately after the Question Hour when members raise matters without prior notice Correct answer.

Explanation

Zero hour is the period immediately following the Question Hour when members raise urgent matters without prior notice; it is an Indian parliamentary innovation not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. The Question Hour itself is the first hour ordinarily devoted to questions.

Question 16General Awareness and Current Affairs

A Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament is presented to the President. Which of the following is true of the President's options for an ordinary Bill?

  1. The President may amend the Bill before assent
  2. The President may withhold assent, return the Bill for reconsideration, or give assent Correct answer.
  3. The President must always give assent
  4. The President may refer the Bill directly to the Supreme Court for a binding opinion

Explanation

Under Article 111, for an ordinary Bill the President may give assent, withhold assent, or return the Bill for reconsideration; if it is passed again and presented, assent must be given. The President cannot amend a Bill, and reference to the Supreme Court under Article 143 is advisory, not a step in the legislative process.

Question 17General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the principal function of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

  1. To audit the accounts of the Union and States and report to Parliament and legislatures Correct answer.
  2. To conduct elections to local bodies
  3. To prepare the Union Budget
  4. To advise the President on appointments to tribunals

Explanation

Articles 148 to 151 make the CAG responsible for auditing Union and State accounts and laying audit reports before Parliament and State legislatures. The CAG is the guardian of the public purse and does not prepare budgets or conduct elections.

Question 18General Awareness and Current Affairs

The Panchayati Raj system was given constitutional status by which amendment, and what minimum reservation for women did it mandate in Panchayats?

  1. 73rd Amendment; one-third of seats Correct answer.
  2. 86th Amendment; one-third of seats
  3. 74th Amendment; one-half of seats
  4. 61st Amendment; one-fourth of seats

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, giving constitutional status to Panchayats and requiring not less than one-third reservation of seats for women. The 74th Amendment dealt with municipalities.

Question 19General Awareness and Current Affairs

A person is detained under a preventive detention law. Which safeguard is available to such a detainee under Article 22?

  1. Right to a jury trial
  2. Right to be informed of the grounds of detention and to make a representation Correct answer.
  3. Production before a magistrate within 24 hours
  4. Right to be released on bail automatically

Explanation

Article 22(5) requires that a preventive detainee be communicated the grounds of detention and be given the earliest opportunity to make a representation against the order. The 24-hour production rule in clause (2) applies to punitive, not preventive, detention.

Question 20General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which of the following institutions is responsible for the compilation of the National Accounts Statistics and estimation of GDP in India?

  1. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Correct answer.
  2. NITI Aayog
  3. Reserve Bank of India
  4. Securities and Exchange Board of India

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, through the National Statistical Office, compiles national accounts and releases GDP estimates. The RBI uses these data for policy but does not compile the national accounts.

Question 21General Awareness and Current Affairs

Under the Constitution, which authority has the power to declare a particular caste, race or tribe as a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe?

  1. The State Legislature
  2. The Parliament by law Correct answer.
  3. The Supreme Court
  4. The Governor of the State

Explanation

Articles 341 and 342 empower the President to specify Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for each State, but the list can be modified only by an Act of Parliament. State legislatures, courts and Governors cannot add or remove entries.

Question 22General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which of the following is a correct statement about the National Disaster Management Authority of India?

  1. It is a State-level body for each district
  2. It is chaired by the President
  3. It is chaired by the Prime Minister Correct answer.
  4. It functions under the Ministry of Defence

Explanation

The Disaster Management Act, 2005 provides that the Prime Minister chairs the National Disaster Management Authority, which lays down policies and guidelines for disaster management. State authorities are chaired by Chief Ministers and district authorities by Collectors.

Question 23General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a state of emergency in the whole or part of India on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion?

  1. Article 352 Correct answer.
  2. Article 360
  3. Article 368
  4. Article 356

Explanation

Article 352 covers national emergency arising from war, external aggression or armed rebellion, and the 44th Amendment substituted 'armed rebellion' for 'internal disturbance' while adding safeguards. Article 356 deals with failure of constitutional machinery in a State and Article 360 with financial emergency.

Question 24General Awareness and Current Affairs

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for the creation of protected areas. Which of the following best describes a 'sanctuary' as distinct from a 'national park' under that Act?

  1. A sanctuary permits certain regulated activities and grazing rights may be allowed, while a national park is more strictly protected Correct answer.
  2. A national park may be declared only with the consent of the local panchayat
  3. A sanctuary is always larger than a national park
  4. A sanctuary is declared by the Supreme Court, while a national park is declared by the State

Explanation

Under the Act, a national park enjoys stricter protection with no grazing or rights allowed, whereas a sanctuary allows certain regulated activities and existing rights may be permitted by the State. Both are notified by the State government.

Question 25General Awareness and Current Affairs

Which of the following is the correct expansion of the term 'FIR' as used in Indian criminal procedure?

  1. Filed Incident Register
  2. Formal Investigation Record
  3. First Information Report Correct answer.
  4. Final Investigation Report

Explanation

An FIR is the First Information Report recorded by police under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (now Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita), setting the criminal law in motion. It is distinct from a final report filed after investigation.

Question 26General Awareness and Current Affairs

A Sub-Inspector of Police in Andhra Pradesh is asked to explain the constitutional position on the official language of the State. Which statement is constitutionally accurate?

  1. Only the languages listed in the Eighth Schedule may be adopted by a State
  2. Hindi is the compulsory official language of every State in the Indian Union
  3. A State legislature may adopt any language used in India as its official language Correct answer.
  4. The official language of a State is decided by the Governor after consulting the High Court

Explanation

Article 345 allows the legislature of a State to adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State, or Hindi, as the official language of that State. The Eighth Schedule lists languages for Union purposes and for recognition, but it does not restrict a State's choice under Article 345. The Governor has no such role, and Hindi is not imposed on States as a compulsory official language.

Question 27General Awareness and Current Affairs

During a law-and-order briefing, an officer refers to the 'First Information Report' in a cognizable offence. Which statement best describes its legal character under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita framework?

  1. It is a confession made by the accused that is admissible as substantive evidence
  2. It is the first recorded information about a cognizable offence, which sets the investigation in motion Correct answer.
  3. It is a statement recorded by a Magistrate during the trial of the accused
  4. It is a formal charge sheet filed by police before the Magistrate after investigation ends

Explanation

The FIR is the earliest recorded information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence and it triggers the police's power and duty to investigate. It is not a charge sheet, which comes at the end of investigation, nor is it a judicial record prepared by a Magistrate. Information given to police is also not a confession admissible as substantive evidence.

Question 28General Awareness and Current Affairs

A police officer is told that the National Green Tribunal has been approached against a project. Which description of the NGT is correct?

  1. It is a statutory tribunal that hears environmental cases and can award relief and compensation Correct answer.
  2. It is a department under the Ministry of Environment that grants environmental clearances
  3. It is an advisory body that can only recommend action to the Pollution Control Boards
  4. It is a constitutional court that hears only writ petitions relating to pollution

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal was created by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, as a specialised statutory body for environmental disputes. It has appellate and original jurisdiction over specified environmental matters and can order relief, compensation and restitution. It is not a constitutional court, an advisory committee, or a clearance-granting department.

Question 29General Awareness and Current Affairs

An officer must explain to trainees why the Election Commission of India is described as a multi-member body with a protected tenure for its members. Which rationale fits the constitutional design?

  1. To enable the Commission to conduct censuses and compile electoral rolls for local bodies only
  2. To allow the Chief Election Commissioner to overrule the government on any policy matter
  3. To give the Commission power to disqualify legislators for defection under the Tenth Schedule
  4. To ensure the Commission can supervise elections without executive interference and with independence of judgment Correct answer.

Explanation

The Election Commission is entrusted with superintendence, direction and control of elections, and its independence is safeguarded by security of tenure and a multi-member structure. This insulation is meant to protect electoral administration from executive pressure. The Commission does not decide general policy questions or defection disputes, which fall to other authorities.

Question 30General Awareness and Current Affairs

A constable is asked which body prepares and presents the Union Budget in Parliament. Which answer is correct?

  1. The Ministry of Finance Correct answer.
  2. The Reserve Bank of India
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. The Comptroller and Auditor General

Explanation

The Union Budget is prepared by the Ministry of Finance and presented in Parliament by the Finance Minister on behalf of the government. The Reserve Bank manages monetary policy, NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, and the CAG audits accounts rather than framing the budget.

Question 31Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A Sub-Inspector candidate solves a numerical ability paper where each question carries equal marks. If he answers 42 out of 50 correctly, what percentage of the paper did he answer correctly?

  1. 88%
  2. 84% Correct answer.
  3. 80%
  4. 76%

Explanation

Percentage is found by dividing the part by the whole and multiplying by 100. Here 42/50 × 100 = 84, so the candidate scored 84 percent. The denominator is the total number of questions, not the number attempted.

Question 32Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A police station records 1,248 FIRs in a year. Rounded to the nearest hundred, how many FIRs should be reported in the annual summary?

  1. 1,200 Correct answer.
  2. 1,250
  3. 1,300
  4. 1,000

Explanation

To round to the nearest hundred, look at the tens digit. The tens digit of 1,248 is 4, which is less than 5, so the hundreds digit stays and the rest becomes zero, giving 1,200.

Question 33Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A constable's monthly salary is ₹36,000. If 15% is deducted as provident fund, what amount is deducted each month?

  1. ₹4,800
  2. ₹5,400 Correct answer.
  3. ₹6,000
  4. ₹5,040

Explanation

Fifteen percent of 36,000 equals 36,000 × 15/100 = 5,400. The deduction is a fraction of the gross salary, so multiply the salary by 0.15.

Question 34Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A police jeep travels 180 km in 3 hours. At the same uniform speed, how far will it travel in 5 hours?

  1. 270 km
  2. 360 km
  3. 240 km
  4. 300 km Correct answer.

Explanation

Speed equals distance divided by time, so 180 ÷ 3 = 60 km per hour. In 5 hours the jeep covers 60 × 5 = 300 km. This is a direct proportion between time and distance at constant speed.

Question 35Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

What is the average (arithmetic mean) of the daily crime counts recorded over five days: 12, 18, 9, 15, and 21?

  1. 16
  2. 14
  3. 15 Correct answer.
  4. 18

Explanation

The mean is the sum of all observations divided by the number of observations. The sum is 12 + 18 + 9 + 15 + 21 = 75, and 75 ÷ 5 = 15.

Question 36Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A candidate must attempt 3 sections in a fixed order. In how many different orders can the sections be arranged?

  1. 6 Correct answer.
  2. 12
  3. 3
  4. 9

Explanation

The number of arrangements of n distinct items is n factorial. For 3 sections this is 3! = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 possible orders.

Question 37Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A police store has 96 batons to be distributed equally among 8 beats. How many batons does each beat receive?

  1. 12 Correct answer.
  2. 14
  3. 10
  4. 16

Explanation

Equal distribution means dividing the total by the number of groups. Here 96 ÷ 8 = 12, so each beat gets 12 batons.

Question 38Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

Simplify: 15 + 8 × 3 − 6 ÷ 2.

  1. 39
  2. 36 Correct answer.
  3. 42
  4. 30

Explanation

Following BODMAS, multiplication and division are done before addition and subtraction. So 8 × 3 = 24 and 6 ÷ 2 = 3, giving 15 + 24 − 3 = 36.

Question 39Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A constable's monthly saving is 20% of his salary. If his salary rises by 25% while his saving rate stays the same, by what percentage does his saving increase?

  1. 20%
  2. 5%
  3. 30%
  4. 25% Correct answer.

Explanation

Saving is a fixed fraction (20%) of salary, so saving changes in the same proportion as salary. A 25% rise in salary therefore produces a 25% rise in saving.

Question 40Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A sum of ₹8,000 is invested at 5% simple interest per annum. What total amount will be received after 3 years?

  1. ₹9,200 Correct answer.
  2. ₹8,400
  3. ₹9,000
  4. ₹9,600

Explanation

Simple interest is P × R × T ÷ 100 = 8,000 × 5 × 3 ÷ 100 = 1,200. Adding interest to principal gives 8,000 + 1,200 = 9,200.

Question 41Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

Two constables can complete a route check in 12 days and 18 days respectively. Working together, in how many days will they finish the same route check?

  1. 9 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 7.2 days Correct answer.
  4. 15 days

Explanation

Work rates add: 1/12 + 1/18 = 3/36 + 2/36 = 5/36 per day. The time taken is the reciprocal, 36/5 = 7.2 days.

Question 42Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A train 150 metres long passes a stationary police post in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/h?

  1. 54 km/h Correct answer.
  2. 60 km/h
  3. 36 km/h
  4. 45 km/h

Explanation

Speed = distance ÷ time = 150 ÷ 10 = 15 m/s. To convert to km/h, multiply by 18/5, giving 15 × 18/5 = 54 km/h.

Question 43Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

The average age of 5 constables is 28 years. When a new constable joins, the average becomes 29 years. What is the age of the new constable?

  1. 30 years
  2. 34 years Correct answer.
  3. 35 years
  4. 29 years

Explanation

The original total is 5 × 28 = 140. The new total for 6 members is 6 × 29 = 174. The difference, 174 − 140 = 34, is the new constable's age.

Question 44Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A police vehicle's fuel tank holds 60 litres. If it consumes 8 litres per 100 km, how far can it travel on a full tank?

  1. 720 km
  2. 600 km
  3. 480 km
  4. 750 km Correct answer.

Explanation

Distance equals capacity divided by consumption per 100 km, then multiplied by 100. So 60 ÷ 8 × 100 = 750 km.

Question 45Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

The ratio of FIRs registered in two police stations is 3:5. If the second station registered 480 FIRs, how many did the first register?

  1. 240
  2. 320
  3. 288 Correct answer.
  4. 300

Explanation

The ratio 3:5 means the first station's count is 3/5 of the second's. So 480 × 3/5 = 288 FIRs.

Question 46Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A candidate scores 45% in a written test and fails by 20 marks. If the pass mark is 50%, what is the total number of marks for the test?

  1. 400 Correct answer.
  2. 500
  3. 200
  4. 300

Explanation

The gap between 45% and 50% is 5%, which equals 20 marks. So 5% of total = 20, giving total = 20 × 100 ÷ 5 = 400 marks.

Question 47Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A sum doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. What is the annual rate of interest?

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 25%
  4. 12.5% Correct answer.

Explanation

Doubling means the interest equals the principal, so interest is 100% of P. Using SI = P × R × T ÷ 100, we set P = P × R × 8 ÷ 100, giving R = 100 ÷ 8 = 12.5%.

Question 48Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A constable walks at 5 km/h and reaches the station 6 minutes late. If he walks at 6 km/h, he reaches 2 minutes early. What is the distance to the station?

  1. 3 km
  2. 5 km
  3. 4 km Correct answer.
  4. 6 km

Explanation

The difference in time is 8 minutes = 8/60 hours. If distance is d, then d/5 − d/6 = 8/60. This gives d/30 = 2/15, so d = 4 km.

Question 49Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

In how many ways can a 3-member patrol team be selected from 8 constables?

  1. 112
  2. 56 Correct answer.
  3. 24
  4. 336

Explanation

Selection ignores order, so use combinations: 8C3 = 8!/(3!·5!) = (8 × 7 × 6)/(3 × 2 × 1) = 56.

Question 50Arithmetic and Numerical Ability

A candidate's average score over 4 tests is 72. To raise the average to 75 over 5 tests, what must he score in the fifth test?

  1. 90
  2. 87 Correct answer.
  3. 75
  4. 80

Explanation

The current total is 4 × 72 = 288. The required total for 5 tests is 5 × 75 = 375. The fifth score must be 375 − 288 = 87.