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Assam ASSEB HSLC NSQF Health Care study materials
Assam ASSEB HSLC NSQF Health Care study resources

Assam ASSEB HSLC NSQF Health Care practice questions

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Question 1Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Under the NSQF Health Care syllabus for HSLC, which level of the National Skills Qualifications Framework is the HSLC vocational certificate aligned with?

  1. Level 2
  2. Level 5
  3. Level 3 Correct answer.
  4. Level 4

Explanation

The NSQF places school-level vocational certificates at Level 3, which corresponds to the HSLC stage in Assam's vocational stream. Level 4 is typically associated with higher secondary or ITI-level qualifications, and Level 5 with diploma-level programmes. This alignment lets students progress vertically from school vocational courses into higher NSQF levels.

Question 2Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

In the Indian health care delivery system, which level of facility is a Community Health Centre (CHC) designed to serve?

  1. A state-level referral hospital catchment
  2. An entire district of over one million people
  3. A single village of about 1,000 people
  4. A block of about 80,000 to 1,20,000 people Correct answer.

Explanation

A Community Health Centre is the block-level referral unit under the rural public health infrastructure, typically covering a population of around 80,000 to 1,20,000. It provides specialist services such as surgery, medicine and obstetrics for cases referred from PHCs and sub-centres. Sub-centres and PHCs handle the smaller population bases.

Question 3Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

A patient with a fracture is stabilised at a Primary Health Centre and then sent to the district hospital for orthopaedic surgery. What is this process called?

  1. Registration
  2. Screening
  3. Triage
  4. Referral Correct answer.

Explanation

Referral is the planned transfer of a patient from a lower-level facility to a higher-level one when the required expertise or equipment is unavailable. It keeps care appropriate and uses specialist resources efficiently. Registration, screening and triage are separate steps in patient flow and do not describe upward transfer for specialist care.

Question 4Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which of the following best describes primary health care as defined in the Alma-Ata approach?

  1. Free treatment limited to emergency conditions
  2. Health services available only in urban municipal areas
  3. Essential care made universally accessible through community participation and affordable technology Correct answer.
  4. Care delivered only by specialist doctors in large hospitals

Explanation

The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978 defined primary health care as essential health care based on practical, scientifically sound and socially acceptable methods, made universally accessible with community participation and at a cost the community can afford. It is the first level of contact with the health system. It is not restricted to specialists, emergencies or urban areas.

Question 5Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

A health worker in a village records births, deaths and immunisation status in a register and sends monthly reports upward. Which function of the health care system does this illustrate?

  1. Human resource planning
  2. Health information management Correct answer.
  3. Medical tourism
  4. Health financing

Explanation

Health information management involves collecting, storing and transmitting data such as births, deaths and immunisation coverage so that decisions can be made at higher levels. The worker is generating data for the system's information function. Financing, staffing and tourism are unrelated to the recording and reporting of health events.

Question 6Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which of the following is an example of a preventive health service rather than a curative one?

  1. Routine childhood immunisation at an anganwadi session Correct answer.
  2. Physiotherapy after a road accident
  3. Dialysis for chronic kidney failure
  4. Appendectomy in a district hospital

Explanation

Preventive services act before disease develops, and immunisation is the classic example because it protects a child from future infection. Surgery, post-accident rehabilitation and dialysis are curative or restorative services given after disease or injury has occurred. Recognising this distinction helps classify where a service sits in the continuum of care.

Question 7Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

In India's public health infrastructure, which facility is the first point of contact between the community and the health system in rural areas?

  1. Medical college hospital
  2. Sub-centre Correct answer.
  3. State referral institute
  4. District hospital

Explanation

The sub-centre, staffed mainly by an ANM and a male health worker, is the lowest rung of the rural public health system and the community's first contact point. District hospitals, medical colleges and state institutes are higher referral tiers. The sub-centre delivers basic maternal and child health and preventive services close to the home.

Question 8Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

A patient in a remote area consults a doctor through a video call at a digital health kiosk in a Primary Health Centre. This is an example of which health care delivery approach?

  1. Forensic medicine
  2. Telemedicine Correct answer.
  3. Occupational health
  4. Palliative care

Explanation

Telemedicine uses information and communication technology to deliver clinical consultation and advice at a distance, which is exactly what the video call at the kiosk provides. It improves access for remote populations and reduces travel. Palliative care, occupational health and forensic medicine describe the purpose or setting of care, not remote delivery by technology.

Question 9Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which statement correctly distinguishes a hospital from a primary health centre in the Indian public system?

  1. A PHC is always located in a city while a hospital is always rural
  2. A hospital provides inpatient, diagnostic and specialist services while a PHC provides basic outpatient and preventive care Correct answer.
  3. A hospital offers only outpatient services while a PHC offers inpatient beds
  4. A hospital employs no nurses while a PHC employs only nurses

Explanation

Hospitals are equipped for inpatient admission, laboratory and imaging diagnostics and specialist consultation, whereas a PHC mainly delivers basic outpatient, maternal and preventive services. This functional difference determines where patients are referred. Location and staffing patterns do not define the two facility types in the way the other options claim.

Question 10Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

The National Health Mission in India is best described as which kind of programme?

  1. A private insurance scheme for corporate employees
  2. A publicly funded programme strengthening health systems and services, especially for rural and vulnerable groups Correct answer.
  3. A scheme that funds only medical colleges
  4. A trade agreement on import of medicines

Explanation

The National Health Mission, which includes the National Rural Health Mission and National Urban Health Mission components, is a government-funded umbrella programme that strengthens public health infrastructure, manpower and service delivery, with a focus on rural and vulnerable populations. It is not a private insurance product, a trade agreement or a medical-education-only fund.

Question 11Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which of the following is the best example of secondary prevention?

  1. Providing safe drinking water to a village
  2. Rehabilitating a stroke survivor
  3. Screening women aged 30 and above for cervical cancer Correct answer.
  4. Performing a heart transplant

Explanation

Secondary prevention aims to detect disease early, before symptoms appear, so that treatment can begin promptly; screening for cervical cancer is a textbook example. Safe drinking water is primary prevention because it stops disease arising. Rehabilitation and transplantation are tertiary-level activities after serious disease has occurred.

Question 12Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

A health worker notices that many children in a village have diarrhoea and reports this pattern to the block medical officer, who organises chlorination of wells. Which system function did the worker's action support?

  1. Accreditation of hospitals
  2. Surveillance and response Correct answer.
  3. Health financing
  4. Medical education

Explanation

Surveillance is the continuous collection and analysis of health data to detect unusual patterns, and response is the action taken on that information. Reporting the cluster of diarrhoea cases and triggering well chlorination is a surveillance-and-response cycle. Financing, accreditation and education are separate functions not illustrated here.

Question 13Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which of the following correctly pairs a health care team member with their typical role?

  1. ANM - performing major abdominal surgery
  2. Radiographer - prescribing antibiotics
  3. Ward boy - diagnosing diseases in outpatients
  4. Pharmacist - dispensing prescribed medicines and counselling on their use Correct answer.

Explanation

A pharmacist's core role is to dispense medicines accurately and counsel patients on dosage, timing and side effects. Surgery, prescribing and diagnosis require specific statutory qualifications held by doctors, so the other pairings are beyond those workers' scope. Clear role boundaries protect patient safety in a health care team.

Question 14Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

A hospital wants to reduce the number of patients who leave without being seen. Which measure most directly addresses this system problem?

  1. Reducing outpatient waiting time by reorganising registration and consultation flow Correct answer.
  2. Increasing the number of specialist surgeons in the operation theatre
  3. Increasing the price of outpatient tickets
  4. Purchasing a new MRI machine for the radiology department

Explanation

Patients leave without being seen mainly because of long waits and poorly organised patient flow, so reorganising registration and consultation directly targets the cause. Adding surgeons, buying imaging equipment or raising fees do not shorten the outpatient queue and could worsen access. Effective system improvement requires matching the intervention to the identified bottleneck.

Question 15Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which of these is a key indicator used to assess maternal health services in a district?

  1. Number of doctors who own cars
  2. Total rainfall in the district
  3. Number of televisions in the hospital
  4. Proportion of births attended by a skilled health worker Correct answer.

Explanation

The proportion of births attended by a skilled health worker is a recognised maternal health indicator because skilled attendance at delivery strongly reduces maternal and newborn deaths. Indicators must be measurable and linked to health outcomes. Television counts, staff car ownership and rainfall have no direct bearing on maternal service quality.

Question 16Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

A community health worker refers a pregnant woman to the PHC for her first antenatal check-up in the first trimester. Why is early antenatal registration important?

  1. It guarantees the birth will be a caesarean section
  2. It replaces the need for delivery by a skilled attendant
  3. It removes the need for any further check-ups
  4. It allows early detection of risk factors and timely treatment during pregnancy Correct answer.

Explanation

Early antenatal registration allows screening for conditions such as anaemia, hypertension and infections, and permits counselling and treatment before complications develop. It does not determine the mode of delivery or replace skilled attendance at birth. Regular follow-up visits remain necessary throughout pregnancy.

Question 17Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which body in India is responsible for setting national standards for vocational skill training and certification, including health care courses at school level?

  1. Medical Council of India
  2. National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
  3. Election Commission of India
  4. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) Correct answer.

Explanation

The National Skill Development Corporation promotes and funds skill development, and along with the National Skill Development Agency it supports the standards and certification ecosystem for vocational courses such as NSQF health care. NCERT is concerned with school curriculum and the Medical Council of India with medical practitioners. The Election Commission has no role in skill training.

Question 18Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

A patient is brought to a hospital after a road accident and is seen immediately while a patient with a minor sprain waits. Which principle explains this?

  1. Triage based on clinical urgency Correct answer.
  2. First come, first served
  3. Informed consent
  4. Referral to a higher centre

Explanation

Triage sorts patients by the urgency of their condition so that life-threatening cases receive care first, regardless of arrival order. A road accident victim with possible internal injuries therefore precedes a minor sprain. First come, first served would ignore clinical urgency, while referral and consent are separate concepts.

Question 19Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which of the following best explains why a referral system improves the overall efficiency of a health care system?

  1. It removes the need for primary health centres
  2. It matches the patient's needs to the appropriate level of facility, so specialist resources are not wasted on cases manageable at lower levels Correct answer.
  3. It guarantees that no patient ever waits for treatment
  4. It ensures every patient is treated only at the most expensive hospital

Explanation

A referral system routes patients to the level of care that matches their clinical need, so costly specialist and tertiary resources are reserved for complex cases while simpler cases are handled nearby. This improves efficiency and equity. It does not require treatment only at expensive hospitals, abolish PHCs or eliminate waiting.

Question 20Introduction to Health Care and the Health Care System

Which of the following is a communicable disease that a community health programme would address mainly through vector control and environmental measures?

  1. Malaria Correct answer.
  2. Diabetes mellitus
  3. Colour blindness
  4. Osteoarthritis

Explanation

Malaria is caused by a parasite transmitted through the bite of an infected Anopheles mosquito, so vector control such as mosquito nets and larval source reduction is central to prevention. Diabetes, osteoarthritis and colour blindness are non-communicable conditions not spread by vectors. This distinction guides whether a programme focuses on environment and vectors or on lifestyle and chronic care.

Question 21Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A health care worker in a rural Assam health centre is about to clean a blood spill on the floor. Which sequence correctly describes the standard procedure?

  1. Sweep the spill into a corner, then burn the absorbent material inside the room
  2. Wear gloves, cover the spill with absorbent material, remove it, disinfect the area with an appropriate disinfectant, then discard waste safely Correct answer.
  3. Pour hot water over the spill, then wipe with a dry cloth and reuse the cloth
  4. Wash with soap and water, then mop with plain water and let air-dry

Explanation

Blood spills are managed by first protecting the worker with gloves, absorbing the fluid, removing the absorbed material into safe waste, and then disinfecting the surface with a suitable agent such as a chlorine-based solution. Soap and water alone does not reliably inactivate bloodborne viruses on surfaces. The procedure also protects others from contact with contaminated material.

Question 22Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which action best describes correct hand hygiene immediately after removing gloves following patient contact?

  1. Wipe the hands with a dry towel and continue with the next patient
  2. Spray the hands with disinfectant and let them air-dry without rubbing
  3. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water or an alcohol-based rub Correct answer.
  4. Rinse the gloves and wear them again for the next patient

Explanation

Gloves do not replace hand hygiene; micro-breaks and contamination during removal mean hands must be cleaned after glove removal. Soap and water or an alcohol-based hand rub are the accepted methods. Reusing gloves or relying on a dry towel leaves pathogens on the hands.

Question 23Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A nursing student is asked to explain why the fingernails of staff who provide direct patient care should be kept short and clean. Which explanation is most accurate?

  1. Long nails and artificial nails can harbour microorganisms that are difficult to remove during hand hygiene Correct answer.
  2. Long nails reduce the amount of soap needed during hand washing
  3. Short nails make it easier to wear gloves of the correct size
  4. Short nails are required only for staff who handle food in the hospital kitchen

Explanation

The area under and around long or artificial nails traps moisture and microorganisms that routine hand hygiene may not remove effectively. This increases the risk of transmitting pathogens to patients during care. Nail length is therefore a genuine infection-control issue, not merely a cosmetic or sizing matter.

Question 24Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which set of personal protective equipment is appropriate before inserting a urinary catheter?

  1. Sterile gloves and an apron or gown, with eye protection if splashing is likely Correct answer.
  2. A face mask alone, with bare hands
  3. A plastic apron only, with no gloves
  4. Clean gloves only, with no other protection

Explanation

Catheter insertion is an aseptic procedure, so sterile gloves are required, together with a gown or apron to protect clothing and skin. Eye protection is added when splashing of urine or antiseptic is anticipated. Other combinations either break asepsis or leave the worker unprotected.

Question 25Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A health worker has a small cut on the finger. What is the correct way to manage it before starting duties?

  1. Seal it with adhesive tape directly over the wound without cleaning
  2. Cover it with a waterproof occlusive dressing and, if needed, a finger stall, then perform hand hygiene Correct answer.
  3. Leave it open to the air so that it dries naturally
  4. Apply a loose cotton bandage that will absorb moisture

Explanation

Open skin lesions can allow entry of bloodborne pathogens and can also shed organisms onto patients. The wound should be cleaned and covered with a waterproof dressing that stays intact during work. Hand hygiene is still performed, and dressings are changed if they become soiled or wet.

Question 26Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which statement correctly describes the use of alcohol-based hand rub compared with soap and water?

  1. Soap and water should never be used because it damages the skin more than alcohol rub
  2. Alcohol rub is preferred when hands are visibly soiled with blood
  3. Alcohol rub is suitable for routine decontamination when hands are not visibly soiled, while soap and water is needed when hands are visibly dirty Correct answer.
  4. Alcohol rub must be followed by rinsing under running water

Explanation

Alcohol-based rubs are rapid and effective when hands are not visibly soiled, but organic material such as blood or dirt reduces their action. Visible soiling therefore requires washing with soap and water first. Alcohol rubs are applied to dry hands and are not rinsed off.

Question 27Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A cleaner is preparing a chlorine solution for disinfecting a contaminated surface. Which practice is correct?

  1. Prepare the solution fresh according to the recommended concentration and use it within the stated period Correct answer.
  2. Mix chlorine with a strong acid to increase its strength
  3. Store the diluted solution in an open bucket for several weeks
  4. Add extra chlorine until a strong smell is noticed

Explanation

Diluted chlorine loses potency over time and must be prepared at the correct concentration and used within its effective period. Mixing chlorine with acids releases toxic chlorine gas and must never be done. Strong odour is not a reliable indicator of correct concentration.

Question 28Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which of the following is the main reason for segregating sharps into a puncture-resistant container immediately after use?

  1. To make counting used needles easier at the end of the shift
  2. To reduce the weight of general waste bags
  3. To prevent needlestick injuries and the transmission of bloodborne infections Correct answer.
  4. To allow the sharps to be reused after sterilisation

Explanation

Immediate disposal of needles and blades into a puncture-resistant sharps container prevents accidental needlestick injuries to staff, patients and waste handlers. Such injuries can transmit hepatitis B, hepatitis C and HIV. Sharps are never reused or recapped by hand as a routine practice.

Question 29Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A used needle must be discarded after an injection. Which action is safest?

  1. Break the needle off the syringe by hand and discard the parts separately
  2. Place the needle in a plastic bag with other clinical waste
  3. Recap the needle carefully using two hands and place it in a tray
  4. Drop the needle directly into the sharps container without recapping Correct answer.

Explanation

The safest practice is not to recap at all and to place the needle directly into the sharps container at the point of use. Recapping, bending or breaking needles by hand causes most needlestick injuries. Soft plastic bags do not resist puncture.

Question 30Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

What is the correct first action after a health worker sustains a needlestick injury from a used needle?

  1. Squeeze the wound firmly and apply kerosene to the puncture
  2. Apply a tight tourniquet above the injury site
  3. Cover the wound with a bandage and continue working without reporting
  4. Wash the wound gently with soap and running water, then report the incident and seek post-exposure assessment Correct answer.

Explanation

After a needlestick injury the site should be washed gently with soap and running water, and the incident must be reported so that post-exposure risk assessment and prophylaxis can be started promptly. Squeezing, caustic substances and tourniquets cause further tissue damage without reducing infection risk.

Question 31Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which of the following best describes standard precautions?

  1. Measures applied only when the patient has a fever
  2. Measures applied only to patients known to have an infectious disease
  3. Measures applied only in operating theatres and intensive care units
  4. Measures applied to all patients regardless of their diagnosis, treating blood and body fluids as potentially infectious Correct answer.

Explanation

Standard precautions assume that every patient's blood and body fluids may carry infection, so barriers and hand hygiene are used routinely. They are not limited to diagnosed cases, specific wards or patients with fever. This universal approach protects both patients and staff.

Question 32Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is admitted. Which additional precaution, beyond standard precautions, is required?

  1. No additional precautions if the patient is afebrile
  2. Airborne precautions with a fit-tested respirator and a negative-pressure or well-ventilated isolation room Correct answer.
  3. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask only and no room ventilation requirement
  4. Contact precautions with gloves and gown for all contact

Explanation

Pulmonary tuberculosis spreads by airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in air, so airborne precautions are needed. These include a fit-tested particulate respirator and a room with adequate ventilation or negative pressure. Surgical masks and contact precautions alone do not address airborne transmission.

Question 33Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which practice correctly applies the principle of medical asepsis during routine patient care?

  1. Using the same thermometer for all patients without cleaning between uses
  2. Reusing disposable syringes after rinsing them with water
  3. Storing clean linen on the floor beside the bed
  4. Cleaning shared equipment such as stethoscopes between patients with an appropriate disinfectant Correct answer.

Explanation

Medical asepsis aims to reduce the number and spread of microorganisms in the care environment. Shared equipment such as stethoscopes and thermometers must be cleaned between patients, and clean items must be kept off the floor. Disposable items are never reused.

Question 34Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which statement about surgical asepsis is correct?

  1. Sterile items may be stored in an open shelf for weeks
  2. Sterile items must be handled with sterile gloves or instruments and kept within the sterile field Correct answer.
  3. A sterile field remains sterile if a non-sterile object briefly touches its edge
  4. Sterile items remain sterile if touched with clean, ungloved hands

Explanation

Surgical asepsis requires that sterile items be handled only with sterile gloves or sterile instruments and remain within the sterile field. Any contact with non-sterile objects, including clean bare hands or the edge of a field, renders them contaminated. Sterile packs also have a defined shelf life and storage requirement.

Question 35Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A health worker is preparing to feed a patient who has difficulty swallowing. Which safety measure is most important?

  1. Feed the patient lying flat to save effort
  2. Give large mouthfuls to finish the meal quickly
  3. Position the patient upright and feed slowly, watching for choking Correct answer.
  4. Leave the patient alone during feeding to encourage independence

Explanation

An upright position and a slow pace reduce the risk of aspiration in a patient with swallowing difficulty. Large mouthfuls increase choking risk, and lying flat promotes aspiration. Supervision during feeding allows prompt response to choking.

Question 36Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which action best reduces the risk of falls for an elderly patient in a health facility?

  1. Encouraging the patient to walk unaided at night without lighting
  2. Keeping the bed at its highest position with side rails down
  3. Keeping the call bell within reach, the bed low, and the floor dry and free of obstacles Correct answer.
  4. Restraining the patient to the bed at all times

Explanation

Fall prevention combines environmental measures: a low bed, an accessible call bell, dry unobstructed floors and adequate lighting. High beds, clutter, poor lighting and unnecessary restraint increase injury risk. Restraint is not a routine fall-prevention measure and has its own harms.

Question 37Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A patient is receiving oxygen therapy. Which safety instruction must be given to the patient and family?

  1. Do not smoke or use open flames near the oxygen source and keep the equipment away from heat Correct answer.
  2. Store the oxygen cylinder horizontally under the bed
  3. Use petroleum jelly on the face while oxygen is flowing
  4. Keep the oxygen running near an open flame for warmth

Explanation

Oxygen supports combustion, so smoking, open flames and heat sources near the equipment are serious fire hazards. Oil-based products such as petroleum jelly should be avoided on the face during oxygen therapy. Cylinders must be secured upright and stored safely.

Question 38Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which of the following correctly describes the safe handling of clean linen in a health facility?

  1. Carry clean linen away from the body and store it in a closed, dry cupboard Correct answer.
  2. Place clean linen on the floor while making the bed
  3. Hold clean linen against the uniform while carrying it to the ward
  4. Store clean linen next to soiled linen to save space

Explanation

Clean linen should be kept separate from soiled items, carried away from the body to avoid contamination, and stored in a closed dry area. Holding it against clothing, placing it on the floor or storing it with soiled linen all introduce contamination.

Question 39Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which statement about biomedical waste segregation by colour is correct?

  1. Infectious waste should be placed in transparent bags and left in the corridor
  2. Human anatomical waste may be discarded with general household waste
  3. Sharps go into puncture-resistant sharps containers, while infectious waste goes into designated colour-coded bags Correct answer.
  4. All waste, including sharps and food waste, may go into one black bag

Explanation

Biomedical waste is segregated at the point of generation: sharps into puncture-resistant containers and infectious waste into the designated colour-coded bags. Mixing categories makes handling hazardous and prevents safe treatment. Anatomical waste requires specific handling and never goes with general waste.

Question 40Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A health worker is about to enter a room where a patient is on contact precautions for a wound infection. Which sequence is most appropriate?

  1. Put on gloves only after touching the patient's wound
  2. Perform hand hygiene, put on gloves and gown before entry, provide care, then remove the gown and gloves carefully and perform hand hygiene on exit Correct answer.
  3. Wear the same gloves for this patient and the next patient to save supplies
  4. Enter without protection, perform care, then wash hands only if visible dirt is present

Explanation

Contact precautions require hand hygiene and gloves and gown before entry, careful removal of contaminated equipment on exit, and hand hygiene afterwards. Gloves are put on before contact, not after touching the wound. Sharing gloves between patients spreads organisms.

Question 41Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A health worker notices that a colleague routinely recaps needles and shares a stethoscope between patients without cleaning it. Which analysis best explains the combined risk?

  1. Both practices are acceptable because the patients are in the same ward
  2. Recapping risks needlestick transmission of bloodborne viruses, and an uncleaned stethoscope can transfer organisms between patients, so both practices breach infection control Correct answer.
  3. Recapping is the only real risk, since stethoscopes cannot carry pathogens
  4. The stethoscope is safe because it never touches broken skin

Explanation

Recapping needles causes needlestick injuries that can transmit hepatitis B, hepatitis C and HIV. An uncleaned stethoscope contacts skin and can carry organisms between patients even without touching broken skin. Both practices therefore breach standard precautions and must be corrected.

Question 42Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

During an outbreak of diarrhoeal illness in a ward, which combination of measures most directly interrupts faecal-oral transmission?

  1. Restricting visitors only, with no change to hand hygiene
  2. Using antibiotics for all staff as a preventive measure
  3. Increasing the room temperature and closing the windows
  4. Hand hygiene, safe disposal of faeces and contaminated waste, and cleaning of shared toilets and surfaces Correct answer.

Explanation

Faecal-oral transmission is interrupted by hand hygiene, safe disposal of faeces and contaminated waste, and cleaning of toilets and shared surfaces. Temperature changes and visitor restrictions alone do not break the chain. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis for staff is not an infection-control measure.

Question 43Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

A patient is isolated with a highly transmissible respiratory infection. Which action shows correct understanding of the safe removal of personal protective equipment?

  1. Remove the respirator first, then the gown, then gloves, touching the front of all items
  2. Remove gloves and gown first, perform hand hygiene, then remove the respirator by its straps without touching the front Correct answer.
  3. Remove gloves last after touching door handles and bed rails
  4. Remove all items at once and stuff them into a pocket for later disposal

Explanation

Contaminated gloves and gown are removed first, followed by hand hygiene, and the respirator is removed last by its straps to avoid touching the contaminated front. Removing the respirator first exposes the face to contamination. PPE is discarded immediately, not stored in pockets.

Question 44Personal Hygiene, Safety and Infection Control

Which statement best explains why health workers should be immunised against hepatitis B?

  1. Immunisation protects the worker from a bloodborne virus that can be transmitted by needlestick injuries Correct answer.
  2. Immunisation removes the need for gloves during patient care
  3. Immunisation cures patients who already have hepatitis B
  4. Immunisation is required only for laboratory staff

Explanation

Hepatitis B is transmitted through blood and can be acquired after a needlestick injury, so vaccinating health workers protects them directly. Immunisation does not treat existing infection and does not replace gloves or other precautions. The risk applies to all staff with blood or body fluid exposure.

Question 45Basic Anatomy, Physiology and Medical Terminology

In standard anatomical position, the palm of the hand faces which direction?

  1. Anteriorly (forward) Correct answer.
  2. Inferiorly (downward)
  3. Posteriorly (backward)
  4. Laterally (outward)

Explanation

Standard anatomical position places the body upright, eyes forward, arms at the sides with palms facing forward. This forward-facing palm orientation is described as anterior or ventral. Keeping this reference position consistent lets clinicians describe locations without ambiguity.

Question 46Basic Anatomy, Physiology and Medical Terminology

A health worker documents a wound on the sole of the foot. Which anatomical term correctly describes this surface?

  1. Dorsal
  2. Plantar Correct answer.
  3. Palmar
  4. Cephalic

Explanation

Plantar refers specifically to the sole of the foot, the surface that contacts the ground. Palmar is the matching term for the palm of the hand. Using the precise regional term prevents confusion in wound records and referrals.

Question 47Basic Anatomy, Physiology and Medical Terminology

Which body cavity contains the heart and both lungs?

  1. Abdominal cavity
  2. Thoracic cavity Correct answer.
  3. Pelvic cavity
  4. Cranial cavity

Explanation

The thoracic cavity is the chest compartment bounded by the rib cage and diaphragm, and it houses the heart and lungs. The abdomen and pelvis lie below the diaphragm, while the cranium encloses the brain. Recognising these compartments helps in localising injuries and interpreting symptoms.

Question 48Basic Anatomy, Physiology and Medical Terminology

Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control and is attached to bones by tendons?

  1. Smooth muscle
  2. Glandular epithelium
  3. Cardiac muscle
  4. Skeletal muscle Correct answer.

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is striated, voluntary tissue that pulls on bones via tendons to produce movement. Cardiac and smooth muscle are involuntary and controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Glandular epithelium is not muscle tissue at all.

Question 49Basic Anatomy, Physiology and Medical Terminology

The prefix 'brady-' in a medical term such as bradycardia indicates which meaning?

  1. Absent
  2. Fast
  3. Painful
  4. Slow Correct answer.

Explanation

The prefix brady- means slow, so bradycardia denotes a slow heart rate. Its opposite is tachy-, meaning fast. Learning common prefixes allows a candidate to decode unfamiliar clinical terms quickly.

Question 50Basic Anatomy, Physiology and Medical Terminology

Which blood cells are primarily responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to body tissues?

  1. Erythrocytes Correct answer.
  2. Monocytes
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Platelets

Explanation

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, contain haemoglobin which binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues. Platelets assist clotting, while lymphocytes and monocytes are white cells involved in immunity. This division of labour is fundamental to understanding circulation.