DGCA CPL Air Regulations cheat sheet

Aircraft Rules 1937 are framed under the Aircraft Act 1934; CARs issued by DGCA under those Rules carry statutory force.

CAR Series letters denote subject: Section 2 (airworthiness), Section 3 (air transport), Section 7 (flight crew standards), Section 8 (aircraft operations).

Aircraft classification by AUW: below 5,700 kg is light; aeroplanes above 5,700 kg fall under heavier categories with stricter CAR applicability.

Registration mark format VT-XXX; the marks are painted on the fuselage and repeated on the underside of the wing for heavier aircraft.

Certificate of Registration remains valid while the aircraft is on the Indian register; change of ownership requires re-issue.

Violation of the Aircraft Rules is punishable under the Aircraft Act with imprisonment and/or fine; DGCA may also suspend or cancel licences.

Rules require reporting of accidents and incidents to DGCA and AAIB within the timeframes specified in the applicable CAR.

No person may operate an Indian-registered aircraft without a valid Certificate of Airworthiness and Certificate of Registration on board.

Chicago Convention 1944 Article 1: every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.

Article 5 (non-scheduled) and Article 6 (scheduled air services) govern the right to fly over or into another State's territory.

Article 12: rules of the air over the high seas apply without exception; each State must ensure its rules conform to ICAO standards.

Five freedoms of the air: overflight, technical stop, disembark carriage, embark carriage, and cabotage (the fifth is not granted automatically).

Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing; Annex 2 - Rules of the Air; Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft; Annex 8 - Airworthiness.

Annex 13 - Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation; Annex 14 - Aerodromes; Annex 17 - Security; Annex 19 - Safety Management.

Differences from ICAO Standards are filed with the Council and published; Standards are binding unless a difference is filed, Recommended Practices are not.

Warsaw Convention 1929 and Montreal Convention 1999 govern carrier liability for passengers, baggage and cargo.

CPL minimum age is 18 years; ATPL minimum age is 21 years; PPL minimum age is 17 years.

CPL requires 200 hours total flight time including 100 hours PIC, 20 hours cross-country and 10 hours instrument flight.

Class 1 medical is required for CPL/ATPL; Class 2 for PPL; validity of the medical certificate is age-dependent.

Pilot licences are valid for 10 years from date of issue; ratings are valid for 2 years unless otherwise specified.

A type rating is endorsed on the licence and must be renewed by demonstrating proficiency before expiry.

Recent experience for carrying passengers: 3 take-offs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days in the same type.

ATPL requires 1,500 hours total flight time including the specified cross-country, night and instrument components.

Licence holders must maintain a personal logbook recording flight time, and the logbook is evidence of experience.

AOC is issued under CAR Section 3, Series C; the operator must have an approved operations manual and a designated post-holder for flight operations.

Aircraft must carry documents: Certificate of Registration, Certificate of Airworthiness, crew licences, journey log, and the operations manual.

Minimum fuel planning: taxi fuel plus trip fuel plus contingency plus alternate fuel plus final reserve (30 minutes for turbine aircraft).

VFR minima in controlled airspace: 5 km flight visibility and 1,500 m horizontal, 300 m vertical distance from cloud at and above 3,050 m AMSL.

A flight plan must be filed before departure and closed on arrival; failure to close activates alerting services.

MEL/CDL define dispatch conditions; no flight may depart with a defect not covered by the MEL or an approved deferral.

Crew duty time limitations and rest requirements are prescribed by CAR; flight time limitations vary with crew complement.

Operations manual must be carried on board; the PIC is responsible for the safe conduct of the flight.

Certificate of Airworthiness is issued after type certification and inspection; it remains valid subject to compliance with maintenance and airworthiness directives.

Airworthiness Directives are mandatory; compliance must be recorded within the stated time or cycle limit.

Aircraft maintenance programme must be approved and is based on manufacturer's recommendations and regulatory requirements.

Continuing airworthiness is managed by CAMO; maintenance is performed by an approved maintenance organisation (CAR 145).

Aircraft logbook, engine logbook and propeller logbook must record all maintenance and component changes.

Modifications and repairs require approval; major modifications need a supplementary type certificate or equivalent approval.

Weight and balance must be within limits before every flight; loading sheet is part of the flight documentation.

Pre-flight inspection is the PIC's responsibility; the certificate of release to service must be valid before dispatch.

Runway designators are based on magnetic heading rounded to the nearest 10 degrees, e.g. 09/27.

Aerodrome reference point (ARP) is the designated geographical centre of the aerodrome; aerodrome elevation is the highest point of the landing area.

Aerodrome operating minima include visibility/RVR, DA/MDA and cloud base; RVR is reported in metres.

Tora, toda, asda and lda are declared distances; each may differ from the physical runway length.

Annex 14 obstacle limitation surfaces protect the approach, take-off climb, transitional, inner horizontal and conical surfaces.

Aerodrome beacon flashes green-white at a civil aerodrome; taxiway edge lights are blue, centreline green, stop bars red.

VOR, DME, ILS and NDB are standard navigation aids; ILS categories I, II and III depend on RVR and decision height minima.

ATS units provide flight information, alerting, air traffic control and advisory services; ATC clearance is required in controlled airspace.

Accident definition (Annex 13): person fatally or seriously injured, aircraft sustains damage or structural failure, or aircraft is missing - occurring between boarding and disembarkation.

Incident is an occurrence, other than an accident, that affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Serious incident includes near collisions, runway incursions, engine failure, and other occurrences listed in Annex 13.

Notification of an accident must be sent to the State of Occurrence, State of Registry, State of Operator, State of Design and State of Manufacture.

The State of Occurrence institutes the investigation and is responsible for the final report; the AAIB investigates Indian accidents.

SMS has four components: safety policy, safety risk management, safety assurance and safety promotion.

Annex 17 security measures include screening, access control, and the protection of the security-restricted area.

Just culture distinguishes inadvertent errors from gross negligence or wilful violation; reporting systems protect reporters.

Aerodrome emergency plan must be tested at least once every two years; full-scale exercise with all agencies at least once every two years.

Wind direction indicator is a truncated cone; it must be visible from the air and indicates the direction of the wind.

Runway markings: threshold stripes, touchdown zone, aiming point, centreline, and displaced threshold arrows.

Precision approach Category I DH is not lower than 60 m (200 ft); Category II DH below 60 m but not lower than 30 m.

RVR is the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centreline can see the runway markings or lights.

Aerodrome control tower provides aerodrome control service; approach control provides approach control service; area control provides area control service.

Secondary surveillance radar uses interrogation and transponder replies; Mode C provides pressure altitude.

Aerodrome reference code comprises a code number (1-4) based on reference field length and a letter (A-F) based on wingspan.

Article 20 of the Chicago Convention requires aircraft to carry nationality and registration marks.

Article 29 lists documents to be carried on board: certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness, crew licences, journey log, and radio licence.

Article 30 requires aircraft to carry radio equipment and the flight crew to hold appropriate licences.

Article 33: certificates of airworthiness and licences issued by the State of Registry are recognised by other States if they meet or exceed minimum standards.

Article 37 requires each contracting State to collaborate in securing the highest practicable degree of uniformity in regulations and procedures.

Annex 2 flight rules include VFR and IFR; VFR flight is not permitted in Class A airspace.

The ICAO Council adopts Annexes by a two-thirds majority of its members.

A State may denounce the Chicago Convention with 12 months' notice to the United States government.

PPL privileges: act as PIC of aircraft carrying passengers but not for remuneration or hire.

CPL privileges: act as PIC of aircraft in commercial operations, and as co-pilot in operations requiring an ATPL.

Instrument rating requires the specified instrument flight time and an instrument flying test.

Instructor rating requires the applicant to hold a valid licence and to demonstrate instructional ability in the flying test.

Medical fitness: a pilot must not exercise licence privileges while unfit; a medical certificate can be suspended by the DGCA.

Language proficiency is required at operational level (Level 4) or higher; Level 4 requires re-evaluation at intervals.

Licence endorsement for each type is required before acting as PIC or co-pilot of that type.

Student pilot licence is issued for solo flight training; solo flight requires an endorsement by the authorised instructor.

AOC applicant must demonstrate financial viability and the organisational structure required by CAR Section 3.

Operations specifications define the routes, types of aircraft, and operations authorised under the AOC.

The operator must establish a safety management system acceptable to the DGCA.

Cabin crew training and licensing requirements are prescribed; number of cabin crew depends on passenger seating capacity.

Dangerous goods carriage requires approval and trained personnel; the technical instructions are based on ICAO Annex 18.

Aircraft must carry emergency equipment appropriate to the route: life jackets, life rafts, emergency locator transmitter, fire extinguishers, first aid kits.

Operational control is exercised by the operator; the PIC retains final authority for the flight.

Record-keeping of flight time, duty and rest must be retained for the period prescribed by the CAR.

Type certificate is issued by the State of Design; the State of Registry validates it before issuing a C of A.

Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) is issued following a review of continuing airworthiness records and a physical survey.

Component life limits and overhaul periods are specified in the maintenance programme and must not be exceeded.

Defect reporting: serious defects must be reported to the DGCA within the prescribed time; the MEL governs dispatch.

Aircraft weighing: maximum take-off mass, maximum landing mass and maximum zero-fuel mass must not be exceeded.

Fuel and oil records must be maintained; fuel quality checks are part of the pre-flight procedure.

Compass swing and pitot-static/altimeter system checks are required at intervals prescribed by the CAR.

Aircraft must be maintained in accordance with the approved programme; a certificate of release to service is issued after maintenance.

The sole objective of an investigation is prevention of accidents and incidents, not apportionment of blame or liability.

Accident investigation reports are made public; the final report is submitted to the State of Occurrence and to ICAO where required.

Flight data recorder and cockpit voice recorder must be preserved and protected; the CVR is not used for disciplinary purposes except in limited cases.

Occurrence categories include runway excursion, loss of control in flight, CFIT, and mid-air collision.

Safety recommendations are addressed to the appropriate authority; the authority should respond with action taken.

The DGCA issues safety directives and circulars; compliance is mandatory where the directive states so.

Emergency response planning includes the aerodrome emergency plan and the operator's emergency response plan.

Voluntary reporting systems supplement mandatory occurrence reporting and support safety data collection.

Runway strip is the area including the runway and stopway, cleared and graded for the protection of aircraft.

Runway end safety area (RESA) extends beyond the runway end and is intended to reduce damage to aircraft undershooting or overrunning.

Clearway is an area beyond the runway end over which an aircraft can climb to a specified height.

Stopway is a defined rectangular area beyond the take-off runway end suitable for stopping an aircraft in the event of an aborted take-off.

Apron is the defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate aircraft for loading, unloading, refuelling or maintenance.

Taxiway guidance signs: mandatory instruction signs are red with white inscription; information signs are yellow with black inscription.

Aerodrome meteorological minima and the aerodrome operating minima are published in the AIP.

Aerodrome lighting: approach lights, runway edge lights (white), threshold lights (green), and runway end lights (red).

AIP India is the official publication of aeronautical information; it is amended by AIP amendments and supplemented by NOTAM.

NOTAM is issued for information of temporary or permanent nature that is essential to flight operations.

Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) provides information that does not qualify for a NOTAM.

Aircraft registration is maintained by the DGCA; change of registration requires application and approval.

Rule 29 of the Aircraft Rules deals with the licensing of pilots and the conditions of issue.

Rule 3 of the Aircraft Rules defines the applicability of the Rules to aircraft registered in India and to foreign aircraft operating in India.

DGCA is the regulatory authority; AAIB is the accident investigation body; BCAS handles civil aviation security.

Foreign aircraft operating in India must comply with Indian rules and the conditions of their authorisation.

Annex 3 - Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation; Annex 4 - Aeronautical Charts; Annex 5 - Units of Measurement.

Annex 7 - Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks; Annex 9 - Facilitation; Annex 10 - Aeronautical Telecommunications.

Annex 11 - Air Traffic Services; Annex 12 - Search and Rescue; Annex 15 - Aeronautical Information Services.

Annex 16 - Environmental Protection (aircraft noise and engine emissions); Annex 18 - The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air.

SARPs are Standards and Recommended Practices; Standards use 'shall', Recommended Practices use 'should'.

Annex 14 volumes: Volume I Aerodrome Design and Operations; Volume II Heliports.

Annex 10 volumes: Volume I Radio Navigation Aids; Volume II Communication Procedures; Volume III Communication Systems; Volume IV Surveillance and Collision Avoidance Systems; Volume V Aeronautical Radio Frequency Spectrum Utilisation.

PANS documents (PANS-OPS, PANS-ATM) provide procedures; they are not Annexes but are referenced by them.

Take-off minima are specified for the runway and are based on RVR or visibility and, where applicable, the lowest cloud base.

Alternate aerodrome weather minima must be met at the estimated time of arrival; the alternate must be within the specified distance.

Minimum equipment list (MEL) categories: A (no time limit), B (3 days), C (10 days), D (120 days).

Emergency equipment: life jackets for each occupant when over water; life rafts for extended over-water operations.

Oxygen requirements depend on cabin pressure altitude and flight duration; supplemental oxygen is required above specified altitudes.

Smoking is prohibited on board; the PIC has authority over the aircraft and may take necessary action for safety.

Passenger briefing must cover seat belts, exits, oxygen and life jackets where applicable.

Air operator must ensure crew are trained in emergency procedures and that training is recorded.

Airspace classes A to G: Class A is IFR only; Class C permits VFR with clearance; Class G is uncontrolled.

Semi-circular rule: magnetic tracks 000-179 use odd flight levels; 180-359 use even flight levels (subject to the table in force).

Transition altitude is the altitude at which the altimeter is set to standard pressure; transition level is the lowest flight level available above it.

Radar separation minima depend on the radar system and the airspace; the standard is 5 NM or 3 NM in certain areas.

Reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) is 1,000 ft between FL290 and FL410.

Position reporting is required at compulsory reporting points; the report includes position, time, altitude and next position.

Emergency frequencies: 121.5 MHz (civil) and 243.0 MHz (military); distress signal MAYDAY, urgency signal PAN-PAN.

SSR codes: 7700 emergency, 7600 radio failure, 7500 unlawful interference.

The investigator-in-charge is appointed by the investigating authority and has authority over the investigation.

States may appoint an accredited representative to participate in an investigation; the State of Registry, Operator, Design and Manufacture are entitled to participate.

The preliminary report is submitted within 30 days of the accident; the final report is submitted as soon as practicable.

The investigation report includes findings, causes and safety recommendations; the causes are stated as a finding of fact.

Cockpit voice recorder recordings are used only for accident or incident investigation, subject to the protections in Annex 13.

The AAIB (Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau) investigates accidents and serious incidents in India.

Notification must be sent without delay by the fastest available means to the appropriate authorities.

Safety recommendations may be addressed to ICAO, States, and manufacturers; responses are tracked.

Annex 17 requires each State to establish a national civil aviation security programme.

Screening of passengers and cabin baggage is mandatory; hold baggage is screened according to the State's programme.

Security-restricted areas are those to which access is controlled; persons and vehicles require authorisation.

The operator must ensure that baggage is protected from unauthorised interference from the point of screening to boarding.

Unlawful interference includes hijacking and sabotage; the PIC follows the operator's procedure and notifies ATC with code 7500.

Crew identification and access control are part of the security programme.

Security equipment and procedures must be tested and quality controlled.

BCAS is the security regulator in India; it oversees the implementation of security measures at airports.

Safety risk is the combination of the probability of a hazardous event and the severity of its consequences.

Risk assessment uses a matrix combining likelihood and severity to produce a risk index.

Safety performance indicators (SPIs) and targets are used to monitor the effectiveness of the SMS.

Hazard identification is a continuous process; hazards are collected from reports, audits, and data analysis.

Safety assurance includes monitoring, audits, and management of change.

Safety promotion includes training, communication and a positive safety culture.

The accountable executive is responsible for the SMS and for ensuring resources are available.

SMS is required for operators, maintenance organisations, and aerodrome operators under CAR and ICAO Annex 19.

Runway incursion is any unauthorised presence on a runway; prevention includes clearances and signage.

Aerodrome control service issues clearances for landing, take-off and taxi; the pilot must read back clearances.

Bird strike hazard is managed through bird control and reporting; strikes are reported to the aerodrome operator.

Foreign object debris (FOD) control is part of aerodrome inspections; regular inspections are required.

Aerodrome inspection includes the runway, taxiway, apron, lighting and signage.

Aerodrome rescue and firefighting category depends on the aircraft size and movement; the category determines the response time and equipment.

Aerodrome operating minima are published for each runway and approach; they are based on the approach aid and lighting.

The aerodrome manual contains the procedures for aerodrome operations and is approved by the regulator.

Class 1 medical certificate validity is 12 months for pilots under 40 and 6 months for pilots over 40, subject to the CAR.

Medical examination includes vision, hearing, cardiovascular, and general physical examination.

Colour vision requirements apply to pilots; defective colour vision may restrict privileges.

A pilot must not fly after consuming alcohol within the specified period; the limit is prescribed by the CAR.

Logbook entries must be signed and include date, aircraft type, registration, route, flight time and conditions.

Licence and medical certificate must be carried on board during flight.

Renewal of a rating requires the applicant to meet the recency and proficiency requirements.

A licence may be suspended or cancelled for violation of rules or for medical unfitness.

Type certificate is issued for the aircraft type; production certificate is issued for the manufacturing organisation.

Airworthiness certification includes design, production and continued airworthiness.

Special flight permits may be issued for aircraft that do not meet all requirements, subject to conditions.

Export certificate of airworthiness is issued for aircraft being exported.

Aircraft registration marks must be displayed in accordance with Annex 7; the marks are VT- followed by three letters.

Weight and balance records must be maintained and updated when equipment is changed.

Maintenance records must be retained for the period specified; they are evidence of compliance.

Airworthiness directives are issued by the State of Design and adopted by the State of Registry.

First freedom: the right to fly over a foreign State without landing.

Second freedom: the right to land for technical purposes (fuel or maintenance) without embarking or disembarking traffic.

Third freedom: the right to put down traffic taken on in the home State.

Fourth freedom: the right to take on traffic destined for the home State.

Fifth freedom: the right to carry traffic between two foreign States on a service originating or terminating in the home State.

Cabotage is the carriage of traffic between two points within the same State by a foreign carrier; it is generally not granted.

Traffic rights are granted through bilateral air services agreements.

The ICAO Council has 36 members elected by the Assembly for a three-year term.

VFR flight requires compliance with the visibility and cloud distance minima; at night, additional requirements apply.

IFR flight requires the aircraft to be equipped for instrument flight and the pilot to hold an instrument rating.

Special VFR may be authorised in controlled airspace when the weather is below VFR minima, subject to ATC clearance.

Aircraft must be equipped with the required instruments and equipment for the type of operation.

Emergency descent procedures and communication failure procedures are specified in the operations manual.

The PIC must ensure that the aircraft is airworthy and that the flight can be completed safely before departure.

Weather minima for take-off and landing are specified for the aerodrome and runway.

Flight time limitations and rest periods are prescribed to manage fatigue.

TORA is the take-off run available; TODA is the take-off distance available (TORA plus clearway).

ASDA is the accelerate-stop distance available (TORA plus stopway); LDA is the landing distance available.

Runway centreline marking is a broken white line; runway edge markings are white lines.

Threshold markings are piano-key stripes; the aiming point is a pair of broad white bars.

Displaced threshold is marked with arrows and a threshold bar; the area before it is not available for landing.

Taxiway centreline is a yellow line; holding position markings consist of two solid and two broken yellow lines.

Runway holding position signs are red with white inscription and are located at the holding position.

Aerodrome identification sign displays the aerodrome name and is located at the aerodrome.

Mandatory occurrence reporting covers accidents, serious incidents, and incidents specified in the CAR.

Reports must be submitted within the timeframe specified; failure to report may result in enforcement action.

The report should include the nature of the occurrence, the aircraft, the crew, the weather and the action taken.

Confidential reporting systems allow reporters to remain anonymous.

Safety data is analysed to identify trends and hazards; the analysis feeds the SMS.

The regulator may issue safety directives based on occurrence analysis.

Occurrence reports are shared with the State of Registry and the State of Operator as required.

The purpose of reporting is prevention, not punishment; just culture principles apply.

VHF communication is line-of-sight; range depends on altitude and antenna height.

HF communication is used for long-range oceanic communication.

SSR Mode A provides identity; Mode C provides altitude; Mode S provides selective addressing.

ACAS/TCAS provides traffic alerts and resolution advisories; the pilot must follow a resolution advisory.

GPWS/EGPWS provides warnings of terrain proximity; the pilot must respond to warnings.

ADS-B broadcasts position and other data; it is used for surveillance in some airspace.

Communication failure procedures: squawk 7600, follow the specified procedures and land at the suitable aerodrome.

Emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.

DGCA may suspend or cancel a licence for violation of the rules or for unsafe conduct.

Penalties under the Aircraft Act include imprisonment and fines; the amount depends on the offence.

Enforcement action may include warning, suspension, or cancellation of the licence or approval.

Appeals against DGCA orders lie to the appellate authority as provided in the Act and Rules.

Operators must comply with the conditions of their AOC; non-compliance may lead to suspension.

The DGCA conducts surveillance and audits to verify compliance.

Findings from audits must be closed within the specified timeframe.

Aircraft may be grounded if found not airworthy; the DGCA may issue a grounding order.

The maintenance programme is based on the manufacturer's maintenance planning document and the operator's experience.

Scheduled maintenance includes checks at specified intervals; the intervals are stated in the programme.

Condition monitoring and on-condition maintenance are used where permitted.

Hard time limits require component overhaul or replacement at specified intervals.

Reliability programmes may be used to adjust intervals, subject to approval.

Maintenance must be performed by approved organisations or certified personnel.

Records of maintenance must be kept and made available to the regulator.

The certificate of release to service is issued after maintenance and certifies that the work has been done.

Human factors include fatigue, stress, situational awareness, and communication.

Crew resource management (CRM) training is required for flight crew.

Fatigue risk management systems are used to manage crew fatigue.

Decision-making models such as DECIDE and FORDEC are used in training.

Threat and error management (TEM) identifies threats and errors and the countermeasures used.

Situational awareness is the perception and understanding of the environment and the projection of future status.

Communication errors are a common factor in accidents; standard phraseology reduces risk.

Just culture encourages reporting while maintaining accountability for wilful violations.

The ICAO Assembly meets at least once every three years and is the sovereign body of ICAO.

The Council is a permanent body responsible to the Assembly and is elected for a three-year term.

The Council adopts Standards and Recommended Practices as Annexes to the Convention.

The Air Navigation Commission is a technical body that assists the Council.

The Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General.

The Assembly reviews the work of the Organisation and sets policy.

The Council may establish subsidiary bodies as required.

ICAO headquarters is in Montreal, Canada.

Take-off performance must consider runway length, obstacle clearance, and aircraft weight.

Landing performance must consider landing distance available and the condition of the runway.

The aircraft must be able to stop within the ASDA in the event of an aborted take-off.

The climb performance must meet the specified gradients for the segment.

Fuel planning must include reserves for contingency, alternate, and final reserve.

The PIC must ensure that the aircraft performance is adequate for the flight.

Performance data must be available for the runway and conditions.

Contaminated runway performance must be considered when applicable.

Aerodrome rescue and firefighting category is determined by the aircraft size and movement.

The category determines the number of firefighting vehicles and the amount of extinguishing agents.

Response time is the time from the alarm to the arrival at the scene; it is specified for each category.

The rescue and firefighting service must be available during aircraft operations.

Personnel must be trained and equipped for rescue and firefighting.

The service must have communication with the control tower.

The aerodrome emergency plan includes the rescue and firefighting service.

The category may be reduced for certain operations subject to conditions.

The Warsaw Convention 1929 established carrier liability for international carriage.

The Montreal Convention 1999 modernised the liability regime and introduced strict liability for passenger injury.

The Montreal Convention provides for compensation limits that are reviewed periodically.

Carrier liability for baggage and cargo is limited unless a higher value is declared.

The carrier may be exonerated if the damage was caused by the negligence of the passenger.

The conventions apply to international carriage; domestic carriage is governed by national law.

Insurance requirements for carriers are prescribed by the regulator.

The carrier must issue a ticket and baggage check as evidence of the contract of carriage.

An instructor rating requires the applicant to hold a valid licence and to pass an instructional flying test.

The instructor must maintain the recency requirements for the licence and rating.

An examiner is authorised to conduct tests and checks; the authorisation is issued by the regulator.

The examiner must be independent and must not have a conflict of interest.

The examiner records the results of the test and submits them to the regulator.

The standards for the test are specified in the applicable CAR.

Instructor and examiner authorisations are subject to renewal and oversight.

The instructor is responsible for the training and supervision of the student.

The operator must have an emergency response plan that is activated in the event of an accident.

The plan includes notification procedures, communication, and support for survivors and families.

The aerodrome emergency plan coordinates the response of the agencies at the aerodrome.

The plan must be tested through exercises.

The emergency response plan is part of the SMS.

The operator must provide for the care of passengers and crew after an accident.

The plan includes the preservation of evidence and records.

Coordination with the investigation authority is part of the plan.

METAR is a routine aerodrome weather report; SPECI is a special report issued when conditions change significantly.

TAF is an aerodrome forecast; it is issued for the specified validity period.

SIGMET is issued for significant weather such as thunderstorms, turbulence, and icing.

AIRMET is issued for weather that may affect low-level flights.

Wind shear and microburst warnings are issued when detected.

The altimeter setting is QNH for altitude and QFE for height above the aerodrome.

The transition altitude and level are used to change the altimeter setting.

Weather minima for take-off and landing are based on the reported conditions.

Aircraft registration is recorded in the Indian register maintained by the DGCA.

The registration mark is VT- followed by three letters.

The nationality mark is VT and the registration mark is the full mark.

The marks must be displayed on the aircraft in accordance with the rules.

The marks must be painted in a contrasting colour and be legible.

Change of registration requires the approval of the DGCA.

The certificate of registration must be carried on board.

The registration may be cancelled on the request of the owner or on the order of the DGCA.