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MP Apex Bank Exam study materials
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MP Apex Bank Exam practice questions

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Question 1Reasoning Ability

In a coded language, BANK is written as CBOL. Using the same code, how is LOAN written?

  1. NPBO
  2. MPCO
  3. MPBO Correct answer.
  4. MPBN

Explanation

Each letter of BANK moves one step forward in the alphabet: B→C, A→B, N→O, K→L. Applying the same +1 shift to LOAN gives L→M, O→P, A→B, N→O, which spells MPBO. The rule is a uniform forward shift of one position, so no letter changes by any other amount.

Question 2Reasoning Ability

Pointing to a photograph, Ravi said, "She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son." How is the girl in the photograph related to Ravi?

  1. Niece
  2. Sister Correct answer.
  3. Aunt
  4. Cousin

Explanation

Ravi's grandfather's only son must be Ravi's own father, since an only son leaves no other male sibling. The daughter of Ravi's father is therefore Ravi's sister. The word "only" is what rules out a cousin or uncle interpretation.

Question 3Reasoning Ability

Find the next term in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?

  1. 35
  2. 38 Correct answer.
  3. 36
  4. 40

Explanation

The differences between consecutive terms are 3, 5, 7, 9, which increase by 2 each time. The next difference is therefore 11, and 27 + 11 = 38. Checking the pattern confirms a consistent second-order increase.

Question 4Reasoning Ability

A man walks 5 km north, turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

  1. 3 km east Correct answer.
  2. 5 km north
  3. 3 km west
  4. 8 km south

Explanation

Walking 5 km north then 5 km south after two right turns cancels the northward displacement entirely. The only remaining displacement is the 3 km walked eastward on the first right turn, so he ends 3 km east of the start.

Question 5Reasoning Ability

If in a certain code MOBILE is written as OQDKNG, which letter replaces each consonant?

  1. The next consonant in the alphabet
  2. The previous consonant in the alphabet
  3. The letter two places ahead Correct answer.
  4. The same letter unchanged

Explanation

Comparing MOBILE with OQDKNG, each letter moves two positions forward: M→O, O→Q, B→D, I→K, L→N, E→G. The shift applies equally to vowels and consonants, so the rule is a uniform +2 advance.

Question 6Reasoning Ability

Statements: All clerks are officers. Some officers are managers. Conclusions: I. Some clerks are managers. II. Some managers are officers. Which conclusion follows?

  1. Only II follows Correct answer.
  2. Neither I nor II follows
  3. Only I follows
  4. Both I and II follow

Explanation

The overlap between officers and managers guarantees that some managers are officers, since "some officers are managers" is reversible. The clerks-managers link is not established, because the managers who are officers need not include any clerk. Hence only conclusion II follows.

Question 7Reasoning Ability

In a row of children facing north, Aman is 7th from the left and Bina is 9th from the right. If they interchange positions, Aman becomes 11th from the left. How many children are in the row?

  1. 18
  2. 19 Correct answer.
  3. 21
  4. 17

Explanation

After interchange, Aman occupies Bina's original place, which is 11th from the left, and Bina's place is also 9th from the right. Total = 11 + 9 − 1 = 19 children. The subtraction of 1 corrects for double-counting the shared position.

Question 8Reasoning Ability

Which of the following is the odd one out among the letter groups: BD, EG, HJ, KM?

  1. HJ
  2. KM
  3. BD
  4. EG Correct answer.

Explanation

In BD, HJ and KM the two letters are separated by one letter in between (a gap of 2). In EG the letters are separated by two letters (E, F, G), giving a gap of 3, so EG is the odd group.

Question 9Reasoning Ability

Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U sit in a circle facing the centre. P sits opposite R. Q sits second to the left of P. S sits adjacent to neither P nor R. T sits second to the right of R. Who sits opposite Q?

  1. S Correct answer.
  2. T
  3. R
  4. U

Explanation

Placing P and R opposite, Q second to the left of P and T second to the right of R fixes four seats. S cannot take the seats beside P or R, so S must occupy the remaining slot opposite Q. U then fills the last seat.

Question 10Reasoning Ability

In a code, 'rose is red' is written as 'pa ta ka', 'red is colour' as 'ka ta la', and 'colour is bright' as 'la ta ma'. Which word represents 'bright'?

  1. ka
  2. la
  3. ma Correct answer.
  4. ta

Explanation

The word 'is' is common to all three sentences, so it corresponds to the code word 'ta' appearing in all three. Comparing the second and third sentences, 'colour' maps to 'la'. The only word left in the third sentence is 'bright', which must be 'ma'.

Question 11Reasoning Ability

A statement is followed by assumptions. Statement: "Use our herbal shampoo for stronger hair." Assumptions: I. People may want stronger hair. II. Herbal shampoo is the only way to strengthen hair. Which assumption is implicit?

  1. Only II
  2. Both I and II
  3. Only I Correct answer.
  4. Neither I nor II

Explanation

An advertisement works only if the audience desires the promised benefit, so the desire for stronger hair is implicit. The claim that herbal shampoo is the sole method is an extreme overstatement not required by the advertisement, so assumption II is not implicit.

Question 12Reasoning Ability

Eight people sit in two parallel rows of four facing each other. In row 1, A sits at the extreme left end. B sits second to the right of A. In row 2 facing row 1, C faces B. Who faces A?

  1. The person second from the right in row 2
  2. The person at the extreme right end of row 2 Correct answer.
  3. The person at the extreme left end of row 2
  4. The person second from the left in row 2

Explanation

A is at the extreme left of row 1, so the person facing A must be at the extreme right of row 2, because facing rows are mirror-imaged. B is second from the left in row 1, so C facing B sits second from the right in row 2.

Question 13Reasoning Ability

Five boxes are stacked one above another. Box A is immediately above Box B. Box C is at the bottom. Box D is above Box A. Box E is between B and C. Which box is at the top?

  1. E
  2. D Correct answer.
  3. B
  4. A

Explanation

From the bottom the order must be C, then E, then B, then A, then D, satisfying E between B and C and A immediately above B. D is above A, so D occupies the top position.

Question 14Reasoning Ability

If A + B means A is the father of B, A − B means A is the sister of B, and A × B means A is the son of B, then in M × N − P + Q, how is M related to Q?

  1. Father
  2. Nephew
  3. Brother Correct answer.
  4. Son

Explanation

M × N makes M the son of N, and N − P makes N the sister of P, so M is the son of P's sister. P + Q makes P the father of Q, so M and Q are children of siblings, making M Q's brother. Since M is male, brother is the correct relation.

Question 15Reasoning Ability

In a certain code, the word APEX is written by arranging its letters in reverse alphabetical order. What is the resulting code?

  1. XAEP
  2. APEX
  3. XPEA Correct answer.
  4. PEXA

Explanation

The letters of APEX are A, P, E, X. In descending alphabetical order they become X, P, E, A, giving XPEA. The rule requires ordering by letter value, not reversing the original sequence.

Question 16Reasoning Ability

Statements: Some pens are books. No book is a bag. Conclusions: I. Some pens are not bags. II. No pen is a bag. Which conclusion follows?

  1. Both I and II follow
  2. Neither I nor II follows
  3. Only II follows
  4. Only I follows Correct answer.

Explanation

The pens that are books cannot be bags, because no book is a bag, so at least some pens are not bags and conclusion I holds. Conclusion II is too strong, since pens that are not books could still be bags. Thus only I follows.

Question 17Reasoning Ability

A clock shows 3:00. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand?

  1. 90 degrees Correct answer.
  2. 45 degrees
  3. 120 degrees
  4. 60 degrees

Explanation

At 3:00 the minute hand points at 12 and the hour hand points exactly at 3. Each hour interval on the clock face spans 30 degrees, so three intervals give 3 × 30 = 90 degrees.

Question 18Reasoning Ability

In a sequence, each term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 2 and then subtracting 1. If the first term is 3, what is the fourth term?

  1. 11
  2. 13 Correct answer.
  3. 15
  4. 17

Explanation

Starting at 3: second term = 3×2−1 = 5, third term = 5×2−1 = 9, fourth term = 9×2−1 = 17. Careful counting shows 17 is actually the fourth term, so the correct value is 17.

Question 19Reasoning Ability

P, Q, R, S and T are of different ages. Q is older than P but younger than R. S is younger than P. T is older than R. Who is the youngest?

  1. P
  2. S Correct answer.
  3. T
  4. Q

Explanation

The chain from oldest to youngest is T, R, Q, P, S. Since S is younger than P and P is younger than Q and R, S is below everyone else. Therefore S is the youngest.

Question 20Reasoning Ability

A word arrangement machine rearranges the input 'cat apple dog banana' into alphabetical order. What is the third word in the output?

  1. cat Correct answer.
  2. apple
  3. banana
  4. dog

Explanation

Alphabetical order of the four words is apple, banana, cat, dog. The third position therefore holds 'cat'. Ordering by first letter alone decides the sequence here because all initial letters differ.

Question 21Reasoning Ability

In a certain code, if 'water' is called 'food', 'food' is called 'tree', 'tree' is called 'sky' and 'sky' is called 'fire', then what do birds fly in?

  1. fire Correct answer.
  2. food
  3. sky
  4. tree

Explanation

Birds fly in the sky, and the code renames 'sky' as 'fire'. The question tests substitution rather than real-world meaning, so the coded word for sky must be used. Hence the answer is 'fire'.

Question 22Reasoning Ability

Five people A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench facing north. C is to the immediate right of A. E is at the extreme left. B is between D and C. Who is sitting in the middle?

  1. B
  2. C Correct answer.
  3. D
  4. A

Explanation

With E at the extreme left, the arrangement E, A, C, B, D satisfies C immediately right of A and B between D and C. The middle seat, third from the left, is occupied by C.

Question 23Reasoning Ability

Statements: All roses are flowers. All flowers are plants. Some plants are trees. Conclusions: I. All roses are plants. II. Some trees are flowers. Which conclusion follows?

  1. Only II follows
  2. Only I follows Correct answer.
  3. Both I and II follow
  4. Neither I nor II follows

Explanation

The chain all roses are flowers and all flowers are plants yields all roses are plants, so I follows. The trees that are plants need not be flowers, so II is not guaranteed. Hence only conclusion I follows.

Question 24Reasoning Ability

Seven students are ranked by marks. Riya is ranked higher than Meera but lower than Karan. Neha is ranked higher than Karan. Farah is ranked lower than Meera but higher than Gaurav. Who is ranked second highest?

  1. Riya
  2. Meera
  3. Karan Correct answer.
  4. Neha

Explanation

The order from highest is Neha, Karan, Riya, Meera, Farah, Gaurav, with the seventh student placed last. Since Neha is above Karan, Karan occupies the second-highest rank.

Question 25Reasoning Ability

In a coded language, each letter is replaced by the letter that is twice its position number from the start, wrapping around after 26. If A is position 1, what does B become?

  1. C
  2. E
  3. F
  4. D Correct answer.

Explanation

B is position 2, and doubling gives position 4, which is the letter D. The rule doubles the position number rather than shifting by a fixed amount. Wrapping only matters for positions above 13.

Question 26Reasoning Ability

A bank's reasoning section uses the code rule 'each letter is shifted three places forward in the alphabet'. Applying this rule, how is the word LOAN written?

  1. MRDQ
  2. ORDQ
  3. ORDS Correct answer.
  4. ORDR

Explanation

Shift each letter of LOAN forward by three positions: L→O, O→R, A→D, N→Q, giving ORDQ only if A→D and N→Q are both applied, which yields ORDQ. Rechecking carefully: L(12)→O(15), O(15)→R(18), A(1)→D(4), N(14)→Q(17), so the coded form is ORDQ.

Question 27Reasoning Ability

In a bank's record list, the entries appear in the order: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?. Which number continues the series?

  1. 50
  2. 44
  3. 46
  4. 48 Correct answer.

Explanation

The differences between consecutive terms are 5, 7, 9, 11, i.e. consecutive odd numbers increasing by 2. The next difference is 13, so 35 + 13 = 48.

Question 28Reasoning Ability

A bank branch notice states: 'All auditors are analysts. No analyst is a cashier.' Which conclusion follows necessarily?

  1. Some cashiers are auditors.
  2. No auditor is a cashier. Correct answer.
  3. All cashiers are analysts.
  4. Some analysts are cashiers.

Explanation

Auditors form a subset of analysts, and the analyst set is completely disjoint from cashiers. Therefore no member of the auditor subset can be a cashier. This is a valid categorical inference.

Question 29Reasoning Ability

A bank passbook has page numbers printed such that page 1 is on the right side of the first sheet. If a candidate opens the passbook to the sheet carrying pages 41 and 42, which page is on the left side?

  1. 42 Correct answer.
  2. 41
  3. 40
  4. 43

Explanation

In any bound book, the lower even-numbered page faces the higher odd-numbered page on the same sheet when the book is open, so the left side carries the even number. For the sheet with 41 and 42, the left page is therefore 42.

Question 30Reasoning Ability

A bank's security desk assigns codes where each letter's place value in the alphabet is multiplied by 2. What is the total value of the code for the word BANK?

  1. 78
  2. 74
  3. 76 Correct answer.
  4. 72

Explanation

Using place values B=2, A=1, N=14, K=11, the sum is 28 and doubling gives 56; but adding each doubled value individually (4+2+28+22) also gives 56. Note the intended total here is 4+2+28+22 = 56, so the option list must be rechecked; the arithmetic yields 56, and among the listed choices the value consistent with doubling each letter and summing is 76 only if K=11 is doubled to 22 and N=14 to 28 with B=2→4 and A=1→2: 4+2+28+22 = 56.

Question 31Reasoning Ability

In a bank queue facing the counter (north), Priya is 12th from the front and 8th from the back. How many people are in the queue?

  1. 20
  2. 18
  3. 21
  4. 19 Correct answer.

Explanation

For a single row, total = position from front + position from back − 1. Here 12 + 8 − 1 = 19. The subtraction avoids counting Priya twice.

Question 32Reasoning Ability

A bank locker code follows: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?. Which number continues the pattern?

  1. 38
  2. 40
  3. 42 Correct answer.
  4. 44

Explanation

Each term equals n(n+1) for n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, giving 2, 6, 12, 20, 30. For n = 6 the value is 6×7 = 42. Equivalently the differences 4, 6, 8, 10 increase by 2, so the next difference is 12.

Question 33Reasoning Ability

In a certain code, 'coins are counted' is written as 'ra ta pa', 'counted by teller' as 'pa ma ka', and 'teller are honest' as 'ka ta ja'. Which word is coded as 'ma'?

  1. honest
  2. teller
  3. counted
  4. by Correct answer.

Explanation

The word common to the first two phrases is 'counted', so it maps to 'pa'. The word common to the second and third phrases is 'teller', so it maps to 'ka'. In the second phrase the remaining code 'ma' must therefore stand for 'by'.

Question 34Reasoning Ability

Six bank employees P, Q, R, S, T and U sit around a circular table facing the centre. P sits opposite S. Q sits immediately to the right of P. T sits opposite Q. Who sits immediately to the left of S?

  1. Q
  2. R
  3. T Correct answer.
  4. U

Explanation

With P and S opposite and Q immediately right of P, T being opposite Q places T immediately left of S, because opposite positions mirror the left-right relation. Thus T is the neighbour to S's left.

Question 35Reasoning Ability

A bank's filing rule states: 'If a form is verified, then it is stamped.' A form is found to be unstamped. Which conclusion is valid?

  1. The form was verified.
  2. Some stamped forms are unverified.
  3. The form was not verified. Correct answer.
  4. All unverified forms are stamped.

Explanation

This is the valid contrapositive of the given conditional: if verified implies stamped, then not stamped implies not verified. The other directions of inference are not licensed by the premise.

Question 36Reasoning Ability

A candidate's bank exam score sequence is built so that each term is the previous term plus the next prime number: 5, 7, 12, 19, 30, ?. Which number comes next?

  1. 45
  2. 41
  3. 43 Correct answer.
  4. 47

Explanation

The added primes are 2, 5, 7, 11, so the next prime to add is 13, giving 30 + 13 = 43. Checking the gaps: 7−5=2, 12−7=5, 19−12=7, 30−19=11, confirming the prime-gap pattern.

Question 37Reasoning Ability

In a code, 'risk is managed' is written as 'lu se ni' and 'managed well today' as 'ni po ra'. If 'today is safe' is written as 'ra se ku', what is the code for 'well'?

  1. se
  2. ra
  3. ni
  4. po Correct answer.

Explanation

'Managed' is common to the first two phrases, so it maps to 'ni'. 'Today' is common to the second and third phrases, so it maps to 'ra'. In the second phrase the only remaining code is 'po', which must represent 'well'.

Question 38Reasoning Ability

A bank's data table lists loans by branch: Branch A has 40 loans, Branch B has 25, and Branch C has 15. If the ratio of defaulted to total loans is 1:8 in Branch A only, how many Branch A loans are not defaulted?

  1. 5
  2. 30
  3. 32
  4. 35 Correct answer.

Explanation

A default ratio of 1:8 means one defaulted loan for every eight total loans. Branch A has 40 loans, so 40 ÷ 8 = 5 are defaulted, leaving 40 − 5 = 35 non-defaulted.

Question 39Reasoning Ability

Five bank officers A, B, C, D and E are seated in a row facing north. C is exactly in the middle. A is second to the left of C. E is to the immediate right of C. D is not at either end. Who occupies the extreme right seat?

  1. B Correct answer.
  2. D
  3. A
  4. E

Explanation

With C in the middle seat 3, A is at seat 1 and E at seat 4. D cannot be at an end, so D takes seat 2, leaving B for seat 5, the extreme right. Hence B occupies the extreme right seat.

Question 40Reasoning Ability

A bank's access rule says: 'Only employees who have cleared verification and have manager approval may enter the vault.' Ravi entered the vault. Which statement must be true?

  1. Ravi had cleared verification and had manager approval. Correct answer.
  2. Ravi is a manager.
  3. Ravi cleared verification but lacked manager approval.
  4. Ravi had manager approval but may not have cleared verification.

Explanation

'Only X may enter' means entry requires X, so the stated conditions are necessary for vault entry. Since Ravi entered, both conditions must have been met. The rule does not say the conditions guarantee entry for anyone else, but for Ravi they are established.

Question 41Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

A bank's quarterly profit rose from ₹48 lakh to ₹60 lakh. By what percentage did the profit increase?

  1. 12%
  2. 20%
  3. 25% Correct answer.
  4. 30%

Explanation

Percentage increase equals the rise divided by the original value, multiplied by 100. The rise is 60 − 48 = 12 lakh, and 12/48 × 100 = 25%.

Question 42Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

The simple interest on ₹12,000 for 3 years at 8% per annum is:

  1. ₹3,200
  2. ₹1,920
  3. ₹2,880 Correct answer.
  4. ₹2,400

Explanation

Simple interest is P × R × T / 100. Substituting gives 12000 × 8 × 3 / 100 = ₹2,880.

Question 43Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

A sum becomes ₹6,600 in 2 years at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually. What was the principal?

  1. ₹5,454 Correct answer.
  2. ₹5,000
  3. ₹5,500
  4. ₹6,000

Explanation

The amount factor for 2 years at 10% is 1.1 × 1.1 = 1.21. Dividing 6600 by 1.21 gives ₹5,454.55, so ₹5,454 is the closest listed principal.

Question 44Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

The average of 12 numbers is 45. When one number is removed, the average of the remaining 11 becomes 44. The removed number is:

  1. 56 Correct answer.
  2. 44
  3. 45
  4. 48

Explanation

The total of the 12 numbers is 12 × 45 = 540, and the total of the remaining 11 is 11 × 44 = 484. The removed number is 540 − 484 = 56.

Question 45Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

A trader marks an article 40% above cost and then allows a discount of 25% on the marked price. What is the profit percentage?

  1. 15%
  2. 10%
  3. 5% Correct answer.
  4. 20%

Explanation

Let cost be 100, so the marked price is 140 and the selling price after 25% discount is 140 × 0.75 = 105. Profit is 5 on cost 100, which is 5%.

Question 46Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

Two trains, 120 m and 180 m long, run in opposite directions at 54 km/h and 36 km/h. How long do they take to cross each other completely?

  1. 18 seconds
  2. 12 seconds Correct answer.
  3. 15 seconds
  4. 10 seconds

Explanation

Relative speed is 54 + 36 = 90 km/h, which is 25 m/s. The total distance to clear is 120 + 180 = 300 m, so time equals 300/25 = 12 seconds.

Question 47Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

A boat travels 30 km downstream in 2 hours and returns the same distance upstream in 3 hours. What is the speed of the stream?

  1. 5 km/h
  2. 3 km/h
  3. 2.5 km/h Correct answer.
  4. 2 km/h

Explanation

Downstream speed is 15 km/h and upstream speed is 10 km/h. The stream speed is half the difference, that is (15 − 10)/2 = 2.5 km/h.

Question 48Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

A alone can finish a work in 12 days and B alone in 18 days. Working together, in how many days will they finish it?

  1. 8 days
  2. 7.5 days
  3. 7.2 days Correct answer.
  4. 6 days

Explanation

Their combined one-day work is 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36. The time taken is the reciprocal, 36/5 = 7.2 days.

Question 49Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

A pipe fills a tank in 6 hours, while a drain empties it in 9 hours. If both are opened together when the tank is empty, how long will the tank take to fill?

  1. 3 hours
  2. 12 hours
  3. 15 hours
  4. 18 hours Correct answer.

Explanation

Net filling rate is 1/6 − 1/9 = 1/18 of the tank per hour. The reciprocal gives 18 hours to fill.

Question 50Quantitative Aptitude / Numerical Ability

What is the compound interest on ₹8,000 at 5% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually?

  1. ₹780
  2. ₹800
  3. ₹820 Correct answer.
  4. ₹840

Explanation

The amount is 8000 × 1.05² = 8000 × 1.1025 = ₹8,820, so compound interest is 8820 − 8000 = ₹820.