I85PREP
⌘ K
UPMSP Multipurpose Health Worker with Lab Technique study materials
UPMSP Multipurpose Health Worker with Lab Technique study resources

UPMSP Multipurpose Health Worker with Lab Technique practice questions

One question at a time. Build your UPMSP Multipurpose Health Worker with Lab Technique understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A Multipurpose Health Worker in a village health post is asked which route of administration gives the fastest onset of action for a life-saving drug in an emergency. Which route should be chosen?

  1. Intravenous injection Correct answer.
  2. Subcutaneous injection
  3. Intradermal injection
  4. Oral tablet

Explanation

The intravenous route delivers drug directly into the bloodstream, so it bypasses absorption and produces the most rapid onset, which is why it is preferred in emergencies. Subcutaneous and intradermal routes depend on capillary absorption and are much slower, and oral administration requires gastrointestinal absorption plus first-pass metabolism.

Question 2General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

During a home visit, an MPHW records a client's blood pressure as 148/96 mmHg on two separate occasions. According to standard adult criteria, how should this reading be classified?

  1. Hypertensive crisis
  2. Elevated blood pressure
  3. Stage 1 hypertension Correct answer.
  4. Normal blood pressure

Explanation

Persistent systolic values of 140–159 mmHg with diastolic values of 90–99 mmHg fall into stage 1 hypertension in standard adult classification. Normal pressure is below 120/80 mmHg, elevated pressure is 120–129 systolic with diastolic under 80, and hypertensive crisis requires readings above 180/120 mmHg.

Question 3General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

Which vitamin deficiency is the primary cause of night blindness in a rural population with poor dietary intake of green leafy vegetables and yellow fruits?

  1. Vitamin K
  2. Vitamin A Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D

Explanation

Vitamin A is required to form rhodopsin, the visual pigment of rod cells, so deficiency impairs dim-light vision and causes night blindness. Green leafy vegetables and yellow-orange fruits are major dietary sources of provitamin A carotenoids, and their absence predisposes to this deficiency.

Question 4General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

An MPHW is preparing to give an intramuscular injection to an adult. Which site and technique is most appropriate for routine small-volume injections?

  1. Anterolateral thigh with a needle inserted at 15 degrees
  2. Forearm flexor surface with a needle inserted at 5 degrees
  3. Upper outer buttock with a needle inserted at 45 degrees
  4. Deltoid region with a short needle inserted at 90 degrees Correct answer.

Explanation

The deltoid is a commonly used intramuscular site for small volumes, and intramuscular injections require a 90-degree angle to reach muscle tissue. The upper outer quadrant of the buttock is also valid but is used with a 90-degree angle, not 45 degrees, and the forearm and 15-degree angles describe intradermal technique.

Question 5General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

Which organism is the causative agent of pulmonary tuberculosis?

  1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Correct answer.
  2. Vibrio cholerae
  3. Plasmodium vivax
  4. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Explanation

Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, an acid-fast bacillus that spreads mainly through airborne droplet nuclei from an infectious patient. It is identified in sputum by acid-fast staining or culture, and it is the target of the DOTS regimen used in national programmes.

Question 6General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

In a laboratory, a blood sample is received for routine haemoglobin estimation. Which method is a standard, widely used laboratory technique for measuring haemoglobin concentration?

  1. Kahn test
  2. Widal test
  3. Benedict's test
  4. Cyanmethaemoglobin method Correct answer.

Explanation

The cyanmethaemoglobin method converts haemoglobin to a stable coloured compound measured photometrically, and it is a reference laboratory method for haemoglobin estimation. Newer non-cyanide variants such as SLS-based methods are also common, but the principle remains colorimetric measurement of haemoglobin.

Question 7General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A community health worker is explaining how malaria is transmitted so that villagers can protect themselves. Which statement correctly describes the mode of transmission?

  1. Through drinking water contaminated by human faeces
  2. Through airborne droplets from a coughing patient
  3. Through direct skin contact with an infected person
  4. Through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito Correct answer.

Explanation

Malaria is transmitted when a female Anopheles mosquito takes a blood meal from an infected person and later bites another person, injecting Plasmodium sporozoites. Control therefore focuses on mosquito bite prevention and vector breeding-site reduction rather than on water or contact precautions.

Question 8General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

Which vaccine is given at birth in the national immunisation schedule specifically to protect against tuberculosis?

  1. Oral polio vaccine
  2. Measles-containing vaccine
  3. BCG vaccine Correct answer.
  4. Hepatitis B vaccine

Explanation

BCG, a live attenuated vaccine derived from Mycobacterium bovis, is given at birth or as early as possible to protect against severe forms of childhood tuberculosis such as miliary and meningeal disease. Oral polio and hepatitis B vaccines are also given early but protect against different diseases.

Question 9General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

An MPHW is counselling a pregnant woman about iron and folic acid supplementation. Which complication is most directly reduced by consistent antenatal iron supplementation?

  1. Gestational hypertension
  2. Gestational diabetes
  3. Hyperemesis gravidarum
  4. Maternal iron-deficiency anaemia Correct answer.

Explanation

Iron supplementation during pregnancy replenishes maternal stores and reduces the risk of iron-deficiency anaemia, which contributes to maternal weakness, low birth weight, and increased maternal mortality. It does not directly prevent metabolic or hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.

Question 10General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A stool sample from a patient with rice-watery diarrhoea is sent to the laboratory. Which finding would most support a diagnosis of cholera?

  1. Presence of ova of Ascaris lumbricoides
  2. Presence of comma-shaped motile bacilli on hanging drop preparation Correct answer.
  3. Presence of broad non-septate hyphae
  4. Presence of acid-fast bacilli on Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Explanation

Vibrio cholerae appears as comma-shaped, rapidly motile bacilli, and the hanging drop preparation demonstrates this darting motility, which is a classic screening finding. Confirmation is by culture on selective media such as TCBS agar, where colonies appear yellow.

Question 11General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A 2-year-old child is brought with a history of watery stools for two days and sunken eyes. The MPHW decides to start oral rehydration therapy. Which solution should be used?

  1. Plain boiled water only
  2. Low-osmolarity oral rehydration salts dissolved in the correct volume of clean water Correct answer.
  3. Undiluted fruit juice
  4. Concentrated sugar syrup diluted with milk

Explanation

Low-osmolarity ORS is the standard for treating dehydration from diarrhoea because it contains the correct balance of sodium, glucose, potassium, and citrate that promotes water absorption. It must be dissolved in the exact volume of clean water specified on the packet, since incorrect dilution can worsen electrolyte imbalance.

Question 12General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A laboratory technician needs to sterilise a metal surgical instrument that will be used immediately. Which method achieves sterilisation by moist heat at 121 degrees Celsius and 15 pounds per square inch?

  1. Boiling for 5 minutes
  2. Dry heat in a hot air oven at 100 degrees Celsius
  3. Autoclaving for 15 minutes Correct answer.
  4. Chemical disinfection with 70 percent alcohol

Explanation

Autoclaving uses saturated steam under pressure at 121 degrees Celsius and 15 psi for about 15 minutes, which reliably kills spores and achieves sterilisation. Boiling and alcohol disinfection reduce but do not reliably eliminate all spores, and dry heat sterilisation requires much higher temperatures for longer periods.

Question 13General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A pregnant woman at 32 weeks reports that her baby has stopped moving as much as before. What is the most appropriate action for the MPHW?

  1. Tell her to reduce her food intake
  2. Reassure her that reduced movement is normal in late pregnancy and review next month
  3. Refer her promptly for assessment of fetal wellbeing Correct answer.
  4. Advise her to take a sedative and rest

Explanation

Reduced fetal movements can be an early warning sign of fetal compromise, so prompt referral for assessment such as a non-stress test or ultrasound is needed. Delay in referral risks missing fetal distress or intrauterine growth restriction.

Question 14General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

An MPHW is asked to collect a sputum sample for suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. Which instruction should be given to the patient?

  1. Collect saliva from the mouth in the morning
  2. Collect a urine sample in a sterile container
  3. Collect a single drop of blood from the fingertip
  4. Collect early-morning sputum from deep inside the chest after rinsing the mouth Correct answer.

Explanation

Sputum for tuberculosis testing should come from deep in the chest and be collected in the early morning, when secretions accumulate, after rinsing the mouth to reduce oral contamination. Saliva is not acceptable because it dilutes the sample and lowers the chance of detecting acid-fast bacilli.

Question 15General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of recent transmission of malaria in a community during an epidemiological survey?

  1. Average rainfall recorded in the district
  2. Total number of mosquito nets distributed
  3. Parasite prevalence in children aged 2 to 9 years Correct answer.
  4. Number of health education sessions held

Explanation

Parasite prevalence in young children is widely used as an indicator of recent malaria transmission because children acquire and clear infection relatively quickly, so their infection status reflects current transmission. Nets distributed or education sessions held measure programme activity, not transmission.

Question 16General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

In a peripheral laboratory, a blood sample is collected in a tube containing EDTA. Which laboratory investigation is this anticoagulant most appropriate for?

  1. Complete blood count Correct answer.
  2. Blood culture
  3. Serum glucose estimation
  4. Coagulation time estimation

Explanation

EDTA chelates calcium and preserves cell morphology, making it the anticoagulant of choice for a complete blood count and blood smear examination. Serum tests require a clotted sample without anticoagulant, and coagulation studies usually need a tube containing citrate.

Question 17General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

An MPHW notices a child with a persistent cough, evening rise of temperature, and loss of weight. Which condition should be suspected first in a high-burden setting?

  1. Iron-deficiency anaemia
  2. Pulmonary tuberculosis Correct answer.
  3. Acute bronchitis
  4. Dengue fever

Explanation

A cough lasting more than two weeks with evening fever and weight loss is a classic symptom complex that should prompt screening for pulmonary tuberculosis. Sputum examination and referral for diagnosis are the appropriate next steps under the national programme.

Question 18General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of cold chain maintenance in an immunisation programme?

  1. To increase the shelf life of syringes
  2. To improve the taste of oral vaccines
  3. To sterilise needles before use
  4. To preserve vaccine potency by keeping vaccines within the recommended temperature range Correct answer.

Explanation

Vaccines are biological products that lose potency if exposed to heat or freezing, so the cold chain keeps them within the recommended temperature range from manufacture to administration. Syringe sterility and needle sterilisation are separate concerns managed by single-use devices and aseptic technique.

Question 19General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A patient in the community is found unconscious and breathing but unresponsive. What is the first priority in managing this patient?

  1. Check the airway, breathing, and circulation and place the patient in the recovery position if breathing Correct answer.
  2. Give oral fluids immediately
  3. Give a dose of antibiotics
  4. Wait for family members to arrive

Explanation

In an unresponsive but breathing patient, the priority is to assess and protect the airway, ensure breathing, and check circulation, placing the patient in the recovery position to prevent aspiration. Oral fluids are dangerous in an unconscious patient and could cause choking.

Question 20General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

Which organism is responsible for causing typhoid fever, and how is it commonly transmitted in a village with poor sanitation?

  1. Salmonella Typhi, transmitted through faecal contamination of food and water Correct answer.
  2. Shigella dysenteriae, transmitted through the air
  3. Vibrio cholerae, transmitted through mosquito bites
  4. Entamoeba histolytica, transmitted through dog bites

Explanation

Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella Typhi and spreads by the faecal-oral route, usually through contaminated water or food handled by an infected person. Improving sanitation, safe water, and hand hygiene are the key preventive measures.

Question 21General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A laboratory report shows a low haemoglobin value with microcytic, hypochromic red cells on a peripheral smear. Which deficiency is most likely?

  1. Iron deficiency Correct answer.
  2. Vitamin B12 deficiency
  3. Vitamin K deficiency
  4. Folate deficiency

Explanation

Iron deficiency produces microcytic, hypochromic anaemia because haemoglobin synthesis is impaired, leading to small and pale red cells. Vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies instead cause macrocytic anaemia with large cells.

Question 22General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A community health worker is asked to explain why a newborn should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months. Which statement best reflects the strongest health benefit?

  1. Breast milk is cheaper than commercial formula
  2. Breast milk can be stored indefinitely without refrigeration
  3. Breastfeeding helps the mother lose weight quickly
  4. Breast milk provides antibodies and nutrients that reduce infection and support growth Correct answer.

Explanation

Exclusive breastfeeding provides balanced nutrition and maternal antibodies such as secretory IgA, which reduce diarrhoea and respiratory infections during the vulnerable first months. Economic and maternal benefits exist but are secondary to the protective and nutritional value for the infant.

Question 23General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

In a district hospital laboratory, a suspected case of dengue is reported. Which laboratory test is most appropriate during the acute febrile phase for early confirmation?

  1. Widal test
  2. IgG antibody detection
  3. Blood culture
  4. NS1 antigen detection Correct answer.

Explanation

NS1 antigen is detectable in the blood during the early febrile phase of dengue, making it useful for early diagnosis. IgM antibodies rise later, and IgG indicates past infection or secondary infection, so they are less useful very early.

Question 24General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

An MPHW is supervising a vaccination session and notices that a vial of oral polio vaccine has been left out on the table for several hours in hot weather. What is the correct action?

  1. Dilute the vial with cold water before use
  2. Discard the vial and follow vaccine vial monitor guidance Correct answer.
  3. Use the vial immediately to avoid wastage
  4. Place the vial in the freezer to cool it quickly

Explanation

Heat-exposed vaccine may have lost potency, and the vaccine vial monitor indicates whether the vial has been exposed to excessive heat. Vials that have exceeded the heat exposure limit must be discarded, and freezing or diluting them cannot restore potency and may cause harm.

Question 25General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis has a sputum smear that is negative on two occasions, but symptoms persist. What is the most appropriate next step under a national tuberculosis programme?

  1. Refer the patient for surgery
  2. Send the sample for culture or molecular testing and reassess Correct answer.
  3. Reassure the patient and stop investigations
  4. Start antitubercular treatment without any further testing

Explanation

Smear-negative tuberculosis is possible, so further testing by culture or molecular methods such as nucleic acid amplification is needed when symptoms persist. Empirical treatment without evaluation risks misdiagnosis, and stopping investigations could miss treatable disease.

Question 26General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

An MPHW records a blood pressure of 148/96 mmHg in an adult villager on two separate visits. According to standard criteria used in community screening, this reading is best classified as which category?

  1. Normal blood pressure
  2. Hypertensive crisis
  3. Stage 1 hypertension Correct answer.
  4. Pre-hypertension

Explanation

Systolic values of 140–159 mmHg with diastolic values of 90–99 mmHg fall in the stage 1 hypertension range, so this reading meets that threshold on repeated measurement. Normal readings are below 120/80 mmHg, and hypertensive crisis requires very high values (generally 180/120 mmHg or above) with or without symptoms.

Question 27General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A laboratory receives a 24-hour urine container from a patient being investigated for kidney function. Which practice best preserves the accuracy of the estimation?

  1. Collect all urine over 24 hours, including the first void after starting, and refrigerate or add preservative Correct answer.
  2. Shake the container only at the end of 24 hours before sending a single aliquot
  3. Collect the first morning sample only and discard the rest of the day's urine
  4. Keep the container at room temperature and add no preservative

Explanation

A valid 24-hour collection requires every void during the full period to be included in the container, typically starting after the first morning void is discarded. The sample must be kept cool or chemically preserved because bacteria multiply at room temperature and alter constituents such as creatinine and protein.

Question 28General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

An MPHW is teaching a village self-help group about prevention of soil-transmitted helminths. Which single measure most directly interrupts transmission of Ascaris and hookworm in this setting?

  1. Sleeping under an insecticide-treated bed net
  2. Covering food to keep houseflies away
  3. Using sanitary latrines and avoiding open-field defecation Correct answer.
  4. Boiling drinking water before consumption

Explanation

Ascaris and hookworm eggs reach the soil through human faeces, and infection follows ingestion of embryonated eggs or skin penetration by hookworm larvae. Safe disposal of faeces in sanitary latrines therefore breaks the life cycle at its source, and it should be combined with handwashing and footwear.

Question 29General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

A patient's random blood glucose measured on a glucometer in a health sub-centre is 260 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate immediate action for the MPHW?

  1. Advise the patient to fast for 12 hours and return only if symptoms appear
  2. Refer the patient for confirmatory laboratory testing and clinical assessment without delay Correct answer.
  3. Reassure the patient that a single glucometer reading has no meaning and take no action
  4. Start the patient on a fixed dose of oral hypoglycaemic tablets immediately

Explanation

A random glucose of 200 mg/dL or more in a symptomatic person supports a diagnosis of diabetes, but glucometer values should be confirmed by laboratory testing and the patient needs clinical assessment. The MPHW's role is prompt referral and health education, not prescribing medicines or dismissing a clearly abnormal value.

Question 30General Science and Basic Health Knowledge

In a primary health centre laboratory, a blood sample is collected in a plain tube and allowed to clot for serum separation. The technician notices the serum is visibly haemolysed. Which effect on the reported results should be anticipated?

  1. Falsely low serum potassium and falsely high serum sodium
  2. Falsely low serum bilirubin with falsely high glucose
  3. No effect on any chemistry result because serum rather than plasma was used
  4. Falsely high serum potassium and interference with several enzyme and bilirubin assays Correct answer.

Explanation

Haemolysis releases potassium and other intracellular constituents into the serum, giving falsely high potassium values. Haemoglobin also interferes with spectrophotometric assays such as bilirubin and several enzymes, which is why a haemolysed sample is usually rejected and a fresh specimen requested.

Question 31Human Anatomy and Physiology

A laboratory technician records a resting adult pulse of 72 beats per minute. Which description best characterises this value?

  1. It is normal only if the rhythm is irregular and the pulse volume is weak
  2. It indicates tachycardia because resting adult pulse should not exceed 60 beats per minute
  3. It lies within the normal adult resting range of 60 to 100 beats per minute Correct answer.
  4. It indicates bradycardia because values below 80 beats per minute are abnormal

Explanation

The accepted normal resting heart rate for adults is roughly 60 to 100 beats per minute, so 72 falls comfortably inside that band. Rates below 60 are termed bradycardia and rates above 100 tachycardia. Rhythm and volume are assessed separately and do not change this numeric range.

Question 32Human Anatomy and Physiology

During a health camp a worker counts a client's radial pulse and finds 48 beats per minute with a regular rhythm. Which term correctly describes this finding?

  1. Bradycardia Correct answer.
  2. Hyperpnoea
  3. Tachycardia
  4. Hypertension

Explanation

A regular resting rate below 60 beats per minute is called bradycardia, a term derived from slow cardiac action. Tachycardia is the opposite extreme above 100 beats per minute. Hypertension and hyperpnoea describe blood pressure and breathing respectively, not pulse rate.

Question 33Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which blood cell type carries the greatest share of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?

  1. Erythrocytes Correct answer.
  2. Platelets
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Neutrophils

Explanation

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells, are packed with haemoglobin, which binds oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries and releases it in the tissues. Neutrophils and lymphocytes are white cells concerned with defence. Platelets are cell fragments involved in haemostasis.

Question 34Human Anatomy and Physiology

A capillary blood sample is left standing and the cells settle, leaving a pale yellow fluid on top. What is this fluid called?

  1. Interstitial fluid
  2. Plasma Correct answer.
  3. Serum
  4. Lymph

Explanation

When blood cells settle, the overlying fluid is plasma, the liquid component of blood that still contains clotting factors. Serum is plasma from which fibrinogen has been removed after clotting. Lymph and interstitial fluid are separate body fluids, not the supernatant of settled whole blood.

Question 35Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for forming urine?

  1. Alveolus
  2. Nephron Correct answer.
  3. Hepatocyte
  4. Villus

Explanation

The nephron is the microscopic functional unit of the kidney, comprising the glomerulus and its tubule, where filtration, reabsorption and secretion occur. Alveoli belong to the lung, hepatocytes to the liver and villi to the small intestine.

Question 36Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which organ produces the hormone insulin, which lowers blood glucose?

  1. Thyroid gland
  2. Pancreas Correct answer.
  3. Liver
  4. Adrenal gland

Explanation

Insulin is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans and lowers blood glucose by promoting cellular uptake. The liver stores glycogen but does not secrete insulin. The adrenal and thyroid glands produce different hormones such as cortisol and thyroxine.

Question 37Human Anatomy and Physiology

A blood sample is drawn into a tube and allowed to clot before centrifugation. Which analyte is most reliably measured in the resulting supernatant?

  1. Platelet count
  2. Whole blood haemoglobin
  3. Plasma fibrinogen
  4. Serum glucose Correct answer.

Explanation

Clotted blood yields serum, which is suitable for measuring substances such as glucose that are not consumed by clotting. Fibrinogen is removed with the clot, so it cannot be measured in serum. Haemoglobin and platelet count require the cellular fraction of whole blood, not the supernatant.

Question 38Human Anatomy and Physiology

A client's haemoglobin is reported as 9 g/dL. How should the health worker interpret this value?

  1. It is above the usual adult reference range and suggests polycythaemia
  2. It is within the normal adult reference range
  3. It is normal only if the client is dehydrated
  4. It is below the usual adult reference range and suggests anaemia Correct answer.

Explanation

Adult haemoglobin reference values are commonly around 12 to 16 g/dL depending on sex, so 9 g/dL is low and points towards anaemia. Polycythaemia would produce a value above the range. Dehydration tends to raise, not lower, measured haemoglobin.

Question 39Human Anatomy and Physiology

During spirometry a client breathes in as deeply as possible and then exhales with maximum effort. Which measurement describes the total volume of air expelled?

  1. Total lung capacity
  2. Tidal volume
  3. Forced vital capacity Correct answer.
  4. Residual volume

Explanation

Forced vital capacity is the greatest volume of air that can be exhaled forcefully after a maximal inspiration. Tidal volume is the quiet breath volume, residual volume is air that cannot be exhaled, and total lung capacity includes the residual volume.

Question 40Human Anatomy and Physiology

A worker records a client's blood pressure as 148/96 mmHg on two separate occasions. Which interpretation is most appropriate?

  1. Both systolic and diastolic values are raised, suggesting hypertension Correct answer.
  2. The reading indicates hypotension requiring immediate fluid replacement
  3. Only the systolic value is abnormal, so the client has isolated systolic hypertension
  4. The reading is normal because systolic pressure below 150 mmHg is acceptable

Explanation

A systolic pressure of 148 mmHg and a diastolic of 96 mmHg both exceed the usual threshold of about 140/90 mmHg for adults. Persistently raised values on repeated measurement suggest hypertension. The reading is not low, and both components are elevated rather than the systolic alone.

Question 41Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which sequence correctly traces the path of blood through the right side of the heart?

  1. Pulmonary vein, right atrium, right ventricle, aorta
  2. Superior vena cava, left atrium, left ventricle, pulmonary vein
  3. Inferior vena cava, right ventricle, right atrium, pulmonary artery
  4. Superior vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery Correct answer.

Explanation

Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium from the venae cavae, passes into the right ventricle and is pumped through the pulmonary artery to the lungs. The pulmonary veins and left chambers carry oxygenated blood. The order of atrium before ventricle is essential.

Question 42Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which change occurs in the lungs during vigorous exercise to improve gas exchange?

  1. Bronchial constriction
  2. Increased depth and rate of breathing Correct answer.
  3. Decreased alveolar surface area
  4. Reduced pulmonary blood flow

Explanation

Exercise raises oxygen demand and carbon dioxide production, so both the depth and rate of breathing increase to speed alveolar gas exchange. Pulmonary blood flow rises rather than falls, and bronchi dilate rather than constrict. Alveolar surface area is not reduced during exercise.

Question 43Human Anatomy and Physiology

A laboratory worker needs a sample for measuring fasting plasma glucose. Which anticoagulant tube is most appropriate?

  1. Fluoride-oxalate tube Correct answer.
  2. EDTA tube for haematology
  3. Citrate tube for coagulation studies
  4. Plain tube without additive

Explanation

Fluoride inhibits glycolysis in the sample and oxalate prevents clotting, so fluoride-oxalate tubes preserve glucose values during transport. Plain tubes allow clotting and continued glycolysis. EDTA and citrate tubes are intended for cell counts and coagulation tests respectively.

Question 44Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which statement best explains why the glomerulus filters water and small solutes but retains blood cells and large proteins?

  1. The tubules actively secrete large proteins back into the blood
  2. The afferent arteriole is narrower than the efferent arteriole
  3. The filtration barrier has small pores and a negatively charged basement membrane Correct answer.
  4. The collecting duct reabsorbs cells that escape the glomerulus

Explanation

The glomerular filtration barrier consists of fenestrated endothelium, a basement membrane and podocyte slits that permit small molecules to pass while blocking cells and large proteins. The charge of the membrane further repels negatively charged albumin. Arteriolar calibre affects filtration pressure, not selectivity.

Question 45Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary and increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts?

  1. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  2. Parathyroid hormone
  3. Aldosterone
  4. Adrenaline

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone, also called vasopressin, is released from the posterior pituitary and increases the permeability of collecting ducts to water, concentrating the urine. Aldosterone acts mainly on sodium reabsorption, while adrenaline and parathyroid hormone have unrelated roles.

Question 46Human Anatomy and Physiology

A client with severe vomiting has a venous blood gas showing a raised plasma bicarbonate. Which acid-base disturbance is most likely?

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Respiratory alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Metabolic alkalosis Correct answer.

Explanation

Vomiting loses gastric acid, leaving excess bicarbonate in the blood and producing metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis would show a low bicarbonate, while respiratory disorders initially alter carbon dioxide rather than bicarbonate.

Question 47Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which feature distinguishes cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle in the heart's function?

  1. Cardiac muscle is voluntary and innervated by the somatic nervous system
  2. Intercalated discs allow electrical coupling between cardiac muscle cells Correct answer.
  3. Cardiac muscle lacks striations and contracts without calcium
  4. Skeletal muscle fibres are branched and share a common nucleus

Explanation

Intercalated discs contain gap junctions that electrically couple cardiac muscle cells, allowing the heart to contract as a coordinated unit. Cardiac muscle is striated and calcium-dependent, its fibres are branched but not the skeletal ones, and it is involuntary.

Question 48Human Anatomy and Physiology

A client's blood film shows many immature red cells with residual nuclei after a period of severe blood loss. Which interpretation is most reasonable?

  1. The finding indicates dehydration rather than blood loss
  2. The cells are lymphocytes mistaken for red cells
  3. The client has an isolated platelet disorder
  4. The marrow is releasing young cells in response to anaemia Correct answer.

Explanation

After significant blood loss the marrow is stimulated to produce red cells rapidly, so immature forms such as reticulocytes and nucleated red cells may appear in the peripheral blood. This reflects a regenerative marrow response rather than a platelet problem or dehydration. Lymphocytes have different morphology and are not red cell precursors.

Question 49Human Anatomy and Physiology

A health worker explains the purpose of a tuberculin skin test. Which immune principle underlies the reaction?

  1. Immediate anaphylaxis mediated by immunoglobulin E
  2. Complement-mediated lysis of bacteria by antibodies
  3. Neutralisation of toxin by circulating immunoglobulin G
  4. Delayed hypersensitivity mediated by sensitised T lymphocytes Correct answer.

Explanation

The tuberculin test relies on a delayed, cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction in which sensitised T lymphocytes release cytokines and draw macrophages to the site. This produces induration after 48 to 72 hours. Immediate IgE reactions, antibody neutralisation and complement lysis do not explain the delayed response.

Question 50Human Anatomy and Physiology

Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing?

  1. Glottis
  2. Uvula
  3. Epiglottis Correct answer.
  4. Soft palate

Explanation

The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that folds over the laryngeal opening during swallowing, directing the bolus into the oesophagus and protecting the airway. The glottis is the opening itself, while the uvula and soft palate help close the nasopharynx.