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UPPSC APS practice questions

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Question 1General Studies

The Governor of an Indian State is appointed by the President under which Article of the Constitution?

  1. Article 153
  2. Article 155 Correct answer.
  3. Article 161
  4. Article 163

Explanation

Article 155 provides that the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Article 153 merely says there shall be a Governor for each State, while Articles 161 and 163 deal with pardoning power and the Governor's Council of Ministers respectively.

Question 2General Studies

Which Fundamental Right is described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution?

  1. Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)
  2. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) Correct answer.
  3. Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25)
  4. Right to Equality (Article 14)

Explanation

Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32, which empowers a citizen to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the heart and soul of the Constitution. It makes the other rights justiciable and effective rather than merely declaratory.

Question 3General Studies

The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian States?

  1. Eight Correct answer.
  2. Seven
  3. Nine
  4. Six

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer crosses eight Indian States: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. It passes roughly through the middle of the country, near Bhopal and Ranchi.

Question 4General Studies

Which soil type covers the largest area of India and is most suitable for cotton cultivation?

  1. Alluvial soil
  2. Red soil
  3. Laterite soil
  4. Black soil Correct answer.

Explanation

Black soil, also called regur or black cotton soil, is formed from lava and is rich in iron, lime and magnesium while retaining moisture well, which suits cotton. It spreads across the Deccan trap region including Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

Question 5General Studies

Who was the founder of the Slave Dynasty in India?

  1. Razia Sultan
  2. Balban
  3. Qutb-ud-din Aibak Correct answer.
  4. Iltutmish

Explanation

Qutb-ud-din Aibak founded the Slave or Mamluk Dynasty in 1206 after Muhammad Ghori's death and ruled from Lahore. He began the Qutb Minar, which was later completed by Iltutmish.

Question 6General Studies

The Battle of Plassey in 1757 was fought between the British East India Company and the forces of which Nawab of Bengal?

  1. Alivardi Khan
  2. Siraj-ud-Daulah Correct answer.
  3. Mir Jafar
  4. Mir Qasim

Explanation

Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah at Plassey in 1757 with the help of the Nawab's own commander Mir Jafar, who had betrayed him. The victory established British political power in Bengal.

Question 7General Studies

Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 18
  3. Article 16
  4. Article 17 Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making it a punishable offence. Parliament enforced it through the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

Question 8General Studies

Which is the longest river flowing entirely within India?

  1. Narmada
  2. Ganga
  3. Godavari Correct answer.
  4. Krishna

Explanation

The Godavari, rising in the Western Ghats near Nashik, flows for about 1,465 km across the Deccan and is the longest river wholly within India. It is often called Dakshin Ganga.

Question 9General Studies

The 'Doctrine of Lapse' was used to annex Indian princely states by which Governor-General?

  1. Lord William Bentinck
  2. Lord Canning
  3. Lord Dalhousie Correct answer.
  4. Lord Cornwallis

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856) applied the Doctrine of Lapse, under which states without a natural heir lapsed to the British. Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur were annexed on this basis.

Question 10General Studies

Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?

  1. Fifth Schedule Correct answer.
  2. Sixth Schedule
  3. Ninth Schedule
  4. Seventh Schedule

Explanation

The Fifth Schedule contains provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule separately covers tribal areas in those north-eastern States.

Question 11General Studies

The 'Green Revolution' in India was most closely associated with which crop?

  1. Wheat Correct answer.
  2. Sugarcane
  3. Rice
  4. Pulses

Explanation

The Green Revolution of the 1960s, led by M. S. Swaminathan, used high-yielding dwarf varieties of wheat, particularly in Punjab and Haryana. It sharply increased wheat output and made India self-sufficient in food grains.

Question 12General Studies

Which planet is known as the 'Red Planet' and has the largest volcano in the Solar System?

  1. Mars Correct answer.
  2. Jupiter
  3. Mercury
  4. Venus

Explanation

Mars appears red because of iron oxide on its surface and hosts Olympus Mons, the largest known volcano in the Solar System. Its thin atmosphere and polar ice caps make it a major target of exploration.

Question 13General Studies

Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?

  1. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin D

Explanation

Scurvy results from a deficiency of vitamin C (ascorbic acid), which is needed for the synthesis of collagen. Symptoms include bleeding gums, poor wound healing and fatigue, and it is prevented by citrus fruits and fresh vegetables.

Question 14General Studies

Which body determines the salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

  1. Parliament Correct answer.
  2. Ministry of Finance
  3. President of India
  4. Union Cabinet

Explanation

Article 148(3) provides that the salary and other conditions of service of the CAG shall be determined by Parliament. This protects the independence of the office from executive interference.

Question 15General Studies

The 'Ring of Fire' is best described as:

  1. A band of coral reefs in the Indian Ocean
  2. A zone of deserts encircling the Sahara
  3. A chain of mountains in Central Asia
  4. A belt of volcanic and seismic activity around the Pacific Ocean Correct answer.

Explanation

The Ring of Fire is a horseshoe-shaped zone around the Pacific where many tectonic plates meet, producing frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions. Japan, Indonesia and the west coast of the Americas lie within it.

Question 16General Studies

Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the Earth from the surface inwards?

  1. Crust, mantle, outer core, inner core Correct answer.
  2. Mantle, crust, outer core, inner core
  3. Crust, outer core, mantle, inner core
  4. Crust, mantle, inner core, outer core

Explanation

The Earth is divided into the crust, the mantle, the liquid outer core and the solid inner core, in that order from the surface inwards. The crust is the thinnest layer and the inner core is the deepest.

Question 17General Studies

The Permanent Settlement of Bengal (1793) was introduced by Lord Cornwallis primarily with which aim?

  1. To fix land revenue with zamindars in perpetuity Correct answer.
  2. To transfer land ownership to the cultivators directly
  3. To abolish the zamindari system altogether
  4. To introduce ryotwari settlement in Bengal

Explanation

The Permanent Settlement fixed the land revenue payable by zamindars permanently, making them hereditary owners of the land in return for a fixed annual payment to the Company. It aimed at securing a stable revenue and creating a loyal class of landlords.

Question 18General Studies

Which of the following is a Direct Tax in India?

  1. Goods and Services Tax
  2. Excise Duty on petroleum
  3. Customs Duty
  4. Income Tax Correct answer.

Explanation

Income tax is a direct tax because its burden falls on the same person who pays it and cannot be shifted to another. GST, customs duty and excise duty are indirect taxes whose burden can be passed on to the consumer.

Question 19General Studies

Which of these is the correct sequence of the stages of the Indian monsoon?

  1. Peak, onset, advance, withdrawal
  2. Advance, onset, withdrawal, peak
  3. Onset, advance, peak, withdrawal Correct answer.
  4. Withdrawal, onset, advance, peak

Explanation

The south-west monsoon normally begins with its onset over Kerala in early June, advances northwards across the country, reaches its peak in July-August, and then withdraws from north-west India from September onwards.

Question 20General Studies

Which of the following is a unicameral legislature in India?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Kerala Correct answer.
  3. Bihar
  4. Punjab

Explanation

Kerala has a unicameral legislature consisting only of the Legislative Assembly, with no Legislative Council. States such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Punjab have bicameral legislatures with both an Assembly and a Council.

Question 21General Studies

The 'Bhoodan Movement' was launched by which social reformer?

  1. Jayaprakash Narayan
  2. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. B. R. Ambedkar
  4. Vinoba Bhave Correct answer.

Explanation

Vinoba Bhave launched the Bhoodan Movement in 1951 at Pochampalli in present-day Telangana, appealing to landlords to donate land to the landless. It later grew into the Gramdan movement for collective village ownership.

Question 22General Studies

Which of these is the correct order of the stages of the Indian monsoon?

  1. Onset, advance, peak, withdrawal Correct answer.
  2. Peak, onset, advance, withdrawal
  3. Advance, onset, withdrawal, peak
  4. Withdrawal, onset, advance, peak

Explanation

The south-west monsoon normally begins with its onset over Kerala in early June, advances northwards across the country, reaches its peak in July-August, and then withdraws from north-west India from September onwards.

Question 23General Studies

A person is detained under preventive detention laws. Which Fundamental Right is primarily affected, and which Article provides protection against such detention?

  1. Article 21; protection of life and personal liberty
  2. Article 19; protection of freedom of speech
  3. Article 20; protection in respect of conviction for offences
  4. Article 22; protection against arrest and detention Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 22 provides safeguards against arrest and detention, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and to consult a lawyer. The preventive detention clauses in Article 22(4) to (7) limit detention to three months without an Advisory Board's approval.

Question 24General Studies

The 'Doctrine of Basic Structure' was propounded by the Supreme Court in which case?

  1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.
  2. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  3. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  4. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot alter its basic structure. The doctrine was later applied in Minerva Mills and other cases to strike down amendments damaging the basic features.

Question 25General Studies

Which of the following statements about the Finance Commission is correct?

  1. It is a permanent body constituted every year by the President
  2. It is a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament
  3. It is constituted by the Prime Minister under Article 356
  4. It is constituted every five years by the President under Article 280 Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 280 provides that the President shall constitute a Finance Commission every five years to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States. It is a constitutional, not statutory, body.

Question 26General Studies

Under the Indian Constitution, the power to constitute an All India Service such as the IAS is vested in which authority?

  1. The Rajya Sabha, by a resolution supported by a special majority
  2. The Union Cabinet, through an executive order of the Prime Minister
  3. The Supreme Court, through a writ of mandamus
  4. Parliament, by law made under Article 312 Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All India Services by law, provided the Rajya Sabha first passes a resolution supported by a special majority declaring it necessary in the national interest. The service itself is then regulated by parliamentary legislation such as the All India Services Act, 1951.

Question 27General Studies

The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following Indian states?

  1. Odisha
  2. Rajasthan Correct answer.
  3. Karnataka
  4. Kerala

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer crosses India roughly through Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Rajasthan is the only state among the options that lies on this line, passing near Banswara.

Question 28General Studies

The Governor of an Indian state, while exercising his discretionary powers, is constitutionally required to act in accordance with the aid and advice of which body?

  1. The Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister Correct answer.
  2. The Chief Justice of the state High Court
  3. The President of India directly
  4. The state legislature alone

Explanation

Article 163 provides that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister, except in matters where the Constitution expressly requires him to use his own discretion. Even in discretionary matters, the Governor is not expected to act arbitrarily.

Question 29General Studies

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of the Indian monsoon?

  1. Onset over Kerala, withdrawal from northwest India, advance over the peninsula, retreat from the peninsula
  2. Withdrawal of monsoon, onset over Kerala, advance over the peninsula, retreat from northwest India
  3. Advance over the peninsula, onset over Kerala, retreat from the peninsula, withdrawal from northwest India
  4. Onset over Kerala, advance over the peninsula, withdrawal from northwest India, retreat from the peninsula Correct answer.

Explanation

The southwest monsoon normally sets in over Kerala around the first week of June, advances northward across the peninsula and central India, and begins withdrawing from northwest India from September. The retreat then proceeds southward, ending over the southern peninsula by December.

Question 30General Studies

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the founding of these organisations?

  1. Muslim League, Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party, Indian National Army
  2. Bharatiya Janata Party, Muslim League, Indian National Congress, Indian National Army
  3. Indian National Congress, Muslim League, Indian National Army, Bharatiya Janata Party Correct answer.
  4. Indian National Army, Indian National Congress, Muslim League, Bharatiya Janata Party

Explanation

The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885, the Muslim League in 1906, the Indian National Army was formed in 1942, and the Bharatiya Janata Party was founded in 1980. This gives the order INC, Muslim League, INA, BJP.

Question 31General Studies

The 'Permanent Settlement' of Bengal (1793) was introduced by Lord Cornwallis primarily with which aim?

  1. To collect land revenue from individual cultivators directly
  2. To abolish the zamindari system and redistribute land
  3. To fix the land revenue demand of zamindars permanently and ensure a stable income Correct answer.
  4. To encourage the growth of cash crops for export

Explanation

The Permanent Settlement fixed the revenue payable by zamindars in perpetuity, with the Company's share fixed at about ten-elevenths. The aim was to create a loyal class of landed proprietors and a predictable, steady revenue stream for the Company.

Question 32General Studies

A person is detained under a preventive detention law. Which Fundamental Right is primarily affected, and which Article provides a safeguard?

  1. Right to life and personal liberty under Article 21; safeguard under Article 22 Correct answer.
  2. Right to equality under Article 14; safeguard under Article 15
  3. Right to freedom of religion under Article 25; safeguard under Article 26
  4. Right against exploitation under Article 23; safeguard under Article 24

Explanation

Preventive detention curtails personal liberty, protected by Article 21. Article 22 provides procedural safeguards, including that the detention must be reviewed by an Advisory Board within a specified period.

Question 33General Studies

Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the atmosphere from the Earth's surface upwards?

  1. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere Correct answer.
  2. Thermosphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere
  3. Mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere
  4. Stratosphere, troposphere, thermosphere, mesosphere

Explanation

The atmosphere is layered by temperature variation: the troposphere is nearest the surface, followed by the stratosphere, mesosphere and thermosphere. Weather phenomena occur mainly in the troposphere, while the ozone layer lies in the stratosphere.

Question 34General Studies

Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of the Indian monsoon?

  1. Withdrawal from northwest India, onset over Kerala, advance over the peninsula, retreat from the peninsula
  2. Advance over the peninsula, onset over Kerala, retreat from the peninsula, withdrawal from northwest India
  3. Onset over Kerala, advance over the peninsula, withdrawal from northwest India, retreat from the peninsula Correct answer.
  4. Onset over Kerala, withdrawal from northwest India, advance over the peninsula, retreat from the peninsula

Explanation

The monsoon first arrives over Kerala in early June, advances across the peninsula and central India, and begins withdrawing from northwest India in September. The retreat then proceeds southward over the peninsula.

Question 35General Studies

The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares the source of its authority to be which of the following?

  1. The Supreme Court of India
  2. The people of India Correct answer.
  3. The Parliament of India
  4. The Constituent Assembly

Explanation

The Preamble opens with 'We, the People of India', which shows that the Constitution derives its authority from the people themselves. The Constituent Assembly framed the document but is not named as the source of authority in the Preamble text.

Question 36General Studies

The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between the forces of the Nawab of Bengal and which of the following?

  1. The Portuguese Estado da Índia
  2. The French East India Company
  3. The British East India Company Correct answer.
  4. The Dutch East India Company

Explanation

At Plassey, the army of Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated by the forces of the British East India Company led by Robert Clive. The victory established Company political influence over Bengal.

Question 37General Studies

A resident of a village in Uttar Pradesh wants to contest a Panchayat election. Which body conducts and supervises that election?

  1. The State Election Commission Correct answer.
  2. The State Legislative Assembly
  3. The Election Commission of India
  4. The District Magistrate's office

Explanation

Panchayat and municipal elections are conducted by the State Election Commission, as required by Articles 243K and 243ZA. The Election Commission of India handles only Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President and Vice-President elections.

Question 38General Studies

The 'Ring of Fire' is best described as which of the following?

  1. A band of deserts along the Tropic of Cancer
  2. A region of permanent snow cover near the poles
  3. A belt of volcanic and seismic activity around the Pacific Ocean Correct answer.
  4. A chain of coral reefs in the Indian Ocean

Explanation

The Ring of Fire is a horseshoe-shaped zone around the Pacific Ocean where many earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur. It is associated with subduction zones and tectonic plate boundaries.

Question 39General Studies

A writ is issued by a High Court to a public authority that has failed to perform a legal duty. Which writ is most appropriate?

  1. Mandamus Correct answer.
  2. Certiorari
  3. Quo Warranto
  4. Habeas Corpus

Explanation

Mandamus commands a public authority to perform a duty it has refused or failed to perform. It is available under Article 226 in High Courts and Article 32 in the Supreme Court for enforcement of legal duties.

Question 40General Studies

Which of the following pairs correctly matches a Fundamental Duty with its constitutional source?

  1. To respect the national flag - Article 51A(j)
  2. To pay taxes - Article 51A(a)
  3. To develop scientific temper - Article 51A(d)
  4. To protect the environment - Article 51A(g) Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 51A(g) imposes the duty to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife. The other pairs mismatch the clause with the duty.

Question 41General Studies

The Finance Commission of India is constituted under which Article of the Constitution?

  1. Article 280 Correct answer.
  2. Article 324
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 263

Explanation

Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States. It is constituted every five years by the President.

Question 42General Studies

A person is detained under a preventive detention law. Which Fundamental Right is primarily affected, and which Article provides protection against arbitrary detention?

  1. Right to equality - Article 14
  2. Right to life and personal liberty - Article 21 Correct answer.
  3. Right against exploitation - Article 23
  4. Right to freedom of speech - Article 19

Explanation

Preventive detention directly restricts personal liberty, which is protected by Article 21. Article 22 lays down safeguards for such detention, including the requirement to inform grounds and to place the case before an advisory board.

Question 43General Studies

Which of the following is a correct statement about the Governor of an Indian state acting in his discretion?

  1. He must consult the Chief Justice of the High Court before every decision
  2. He must act on the advice of the Chief Minister in all matters
  3. He is bound by the directions of the President in all matters
  4. He must act in accordance with the Constitution and may exercise discretion in specified matters Correct answer.

Explanation

The Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers in normal matters but exercises discretion in situations specified by the Constitution, such as recommending President's Rule. The Supreme Court has held that even discretionary powers must be exercised in accordance with the Constitution.

Question 44General Studies

The Election Commission of India, while conducting elections to the Lok Sabha, is guided by which constitutional provision that empowers it to supervise, direct and control the preparation of electoral rolls?

  1. Article 324 Correct answer.
  2. Article 263
  3. Article 356
  4. Article 280

Explanation

Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President in the Election Commission. It is the constitutional foundation of the Commission's independence and authority.

Question 45General Studies

A candidate preparing for the UPPSC exam reads that the Indian Constitution establishes a 'single citizenship' system. Which statement best explains what this means in the Indian context?

  1. Only persons born in India are recognised as citizens, and naturalised persons are excluded from State-level benefits
  2. The Union and States jointly confer citizenship, and a person can hold both simultaneously
  3. There is only Indian citizenship, with no separate State citizenship, though States may have residence-based rights like domicile for jobs Correct answer.
  4. Citizens enjoy only one set of Fundamental Rights, applicable uniformly across all States

Explanation

India follows single citizenship: every citizen owes allegiance to the Union alone, and there is no separate citizenship of a State. However, States may impose residence-based qualifications, such as domicile requirements for certain public employment or educational benefits, which is constitutionally permissible.

Question 46General Studies

The Indian Constitution provides for a 'Council of Ministers' to aid and advise the President. Which provision states that the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers shall not be inquired into in any court?

  1. Article 78
  2. Article 77
  3. Article 74(2) Correct answer.
  4. Article 75(3)

Explanation

Article 74(2) provides that the question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court. This protects the confidentiality of ministerial advice while Article 74(1) makes that advice binding on the President.

Question 47General Studies

A new State is to be carved out of an existing State in India. Which of the following correctly describes the constitutional requirement for this?

  1. A resolution of the affected State Legislature is mandatory before Parliament can act
  2. Approval by a two-thirds majority in a joint sitting of both Houses is required
  3. Parliament may act by ordinary law after consulting the affected State Legislature, whose views are not binding Correct answer.
  4. A constitutional amendment under Article 368 ratified by half the States is required

Explanation

Under Articles 3 and 4, Parliament may by ordinary law form new States, alter boundaries, or change names. The Bill requires the President's recommendation and the views of the affected State Legislature must be sought, but those views are not binding and no constitutional amendment is needed.

Question 48General Studies

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution is described as 'quasi-federal'?

  1. The Constitution can be amended only with the consent of all State Legislatures
  2. All legislative powers are vested exclusively in Parliament, with States acting only as administrative agents
  3. The States have no separate constitutions or legislatures of their own
  4. The Union has strong powers such as appointment of Governors, emergency provisions, and single citizenship, while States retain substantial autonomy Correct answer.

Explanation

India's system is federal in structure but has strong unitary features: the Union appoints Governors, can impose emergency provisions, and citizens hold single citizenship. These features tilt the balance toward the Centre, earning the description 'quasi-federal'.

Question 49General Studies

The 'Doctrine of Pleasure' in Indian administrative law is subject to which constitutional limitation that has been read in by the Supreme Court?

  1. It is subject to the Fundamental Rights and to the safeguards provided by Article 311 for civil servants Correct answer.
  2. It can be exercised only with the prior approval of the Union Public Service Commission
  3. It applies only to members of the All India Services and not to State services
  4. It is entirely inapplicable to civilian government servants in India

Explanation

The pleasure doctrine, inherited from the Crown's prerogative, is no longer absolute in India. Article 310 is read subject to Article 311, which requires inquiry and reasonable opportunity before dismissal or reduction in rank, and to Fundamental Rights as held in cases like Moti Ram Deka.

Question 50General Studies

Which of the following is the correct pairing of a constitutional body with the Article under which it is established?

  1. Comptroller and Auditor General - Article 324
  2. Election Commission of India - Article 280
  3. Attorney General of India - Article 148
  4. Union Public Service Commission - Article 315 Correct answer.

Explanation

Article 315 provides for the establishment of Public Service Commissions for the Union and for each State. The UPSC is thus a constitutional body whose composition, functions, and independence are detailed in Articles 315 to 323.