I85PREP
⌘ K
KSL ATP 107 study materials
KSL ATP 107 study resources

KSL ATP 107 practice questions

One question at a time. Build your KSL ATP 107 understanding.

First 50 of 200 questions. Each one lists the choices, the correct answer, and an explanation. The checker at the top of this page saves progress in this browser when it is available.

Continue in the practice tool above to load more questions, 50 at a time.

Question 1FAR/AIM and general operating rules

Under 14 CFR Part 91, what is the minimum fuel requirement for a VFR flight operated during the day in a small airplane?

  1. Enough fuel to reach the destination plus 45 minutes of reserve
  2. Enough fuel to reach the destination plus 60 minutes of reserve
  3. Enough fuel to reach the destination plus 20 minutes of reserve
  4. Enough fuel to reach the destination plus 30 minutes of reserve Correct answer.

Explanation

For day VFR operations, the regulations require enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and then for at least 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. Night VFR and IFR require 45 minutes of reserve.

Question 2FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot operating an aircraft in the United States must carry which document on board during flight?

  1. The pilot's training records
  2. The aircraft airworthiness certificate Correct answer.
  3. The aircraft maintenance logbook
  4. The aircraft weight and balance report

Explanation

The airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, and operating limitations must be aboard the aircraft and available for inspection. Maintenance logs and weight and balance reports are not required to be carried aboard.

Question 3FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the general cruising altitude rule for VFR flight above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 0 to 179 degrees?

  1. Odd thousands only
  2. Odd thousands plus 500 feet Correct answer.
  3. Even thousands plus 500 feet
  4. Even thousands only

Explanation

For VFR cruising altitudes above 3,000 feet AGL, magnetic courses of 0 to 179 degrees use odd thousands plus 500 feet, while courses of 180 to 359 degrees use even thousands plus 500 feet.

Question 4FAR/AIM and general operating rules

Unless otherwise authorized, what minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL during the day?

  1. 5 statute miles
  2. 1 statute mile Correct answer.
  3. 3 statute miles
  4. One-half statute mile

Explanation

In Class G airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, the minimum flight visibility is 1 statute mile. The cloud clearance requirement is remain clear of clouds.

Question 5FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the standard traffic pattern direction at an airport without a published traffic pattern?

  1. Right turns
  2. Turns determined by the tower
  3. Left turns Correct answer.
  4. Turns in the direction of the wind

Explanation

In the absence of published or ATC-specified traffic pattern information, the standard pattern consists of left turns. Right traffic must be published or directed by ATC.

Question 6FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What does a steady red light signal directed at an aircraft on the ground mean?

  1. Cleared to taxi
  2. Return to starting point
  3. Cleared for takeoff
  4. Stop Correct answer.

Explanation

A steady red light directed at an aircraft on the ground means stop. A flashing red means taxi clear of the runway in use.

Question 7FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted in Class C airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL within the lateral limits?

  1. 200 knots Correct answer.
  2. 156 knots
  3. 230 knots
  4. 250 knots

Explanation

The speed limit within Class C airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL is 200 knots indicated airspeed. Class B has a similar 200-knot limit, while the general 250-knot limit applies below 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 8FAR/AIM and general operating rules

An aircraft operating in Class D airspace must establish two-way radio communication with the controlling facility:

  1. After entering the airspace
  2. Only when the tower is operating
  3. Only when weather minimums are not met
  4. Before entering the airspace Correct answer.

Explanation

Two-way radio communication must be established before entering Class D airspace and maintained while in the airspace. Simply monitoring the frequency does not satisfy the requirement.

Question 9FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the minimum safe altitude over a congested area of a city, per 14 CFR 91.119?

  1. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
  2. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet
  3. 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet
  4. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet Correct answer.

Explanation

Over congested areas, aircraft must remain at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. Other areas require 500 feet above the surface.

Question 10FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot is flying VFR at 4,500 feet MSL on a magnetic heading of 270 degrees. What VFR cruising altitude is appropriate for this direction of flight?

  1. 3,500 feet
  2. 6,500 feet
  3. 4,500 feet Correct answer.
  4. 5,500 feet

Explanation

Courses of 180 to 359 degrees use even thousands plus 500 feet. At 4,500 feet MSL (above 3,000 feet AGL), the pilot is on an even-thousand-plus-500 altitude, which is correct for westerly magnetic courses.

Question 11FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot holds a private pilot certificate and wants to carry passengers at night. Which requirement must be met?

  1. Three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 30 days at night
  2. Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days at night Correct answer.
  3. Three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days, day or night
  4. A current instrument rating

Explanation

To carry passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 90 days.

Question 12FAR/AIM and general operating rules

Which action is required before operating an aircraft that has been involved in an accident that caused substantial damage?

  1. The owner must notify the local flight school
  2. The pilot must complete a flight review
  3. The aircraft must be re-registered
  4. The aircraft must be inspected and approved for return to service Correct answer.

Explanation

An aircraft involved in an accident causing substantial damage must be inspected and approved for return to service before further flight. The NTSB notification requirements also apply to the accident itself.

Question 13FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the required action when a pilot deviates from a regulation in an in-flight emergency?

  1. The pilot may deviate to the extent necessary and must report the deviation if requested Correct answer.
  2. The pilot must land immediately at the nearest airport
  3. The pilot must file a NASA report within 24 hours
  4. The pilot must obtain ATC approval before deviating

Explanation

Under 14 CFR 91.3, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule to the extent necessary to meet an emergency and, if requested by the Administrator, must submit a written report. ATC approval is not required in an emergency.

Question 14FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot on a cross-country flight encounters a temporary flight restriction (TFR) notamed for a wildfire. What is the correct action?

  1. Enter only if operating under VFR at least 1,000 feet AGL
  2. Proceed through the area while monitoring the frequency
  3. Enter only if the aircraft is on an IFR flight plan
  4. Remain clear of the TFR area unless authorized by the controlling agency Correct answer.

Explanation

Flight within a TFR is prohibited unless the aircraft is authorized by the controlling agency or meets an exception listed in the notam. Pilots must remain clear of the designated area.

Question 15FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the maximum speed permitted below 10,000 feet MSL in Class B airspace?

  1. No speed limit applies
  2. 230 knots indicated airspeed
  3. 200 knots indicated airspeed Correct answer.
  4. 250 knots indicated airspeed

Explanation

In Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed is 200 knots, which is more restrictive than the general 250-knot limit below 10,000 feet MSL. The lower limit applies within the Class B area.

Question 16FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot operating under VFR in Class E airspace above 10,000 feet MSL must meet which cloud clearance requirement?

  1. 1,000 feet above and below, and 2 miles laterally
  2. 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile laterally Correct answer.
  3. Clear of clouds
  4. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally

Explanation

In Class E airspace at or above 10,000 feet MSL, VFR requires 5 statute miles visibility and cloud clearance of 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile laterally.

Question 17FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the required action if a pilot receives a clearance that the pilot believes will place the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain?

  1. Disregard the clearance without notifying ATC
  2. Comply immediately and query ATC afterward
  3. Advise ATC of the situation and request an amended clearance Correct answer.
  4. Declare an emergency and squawk 7700

Explanation

Pilots should advise ATC immediately when a clearance appears unsafe and request an amended clearance. ATC will issue a revised clearance.

Question 18FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot wishes to operate an aircraft that has a transponder. Under what conditions is the transponder required to be on and reporting altitude?

  1. Only when operating in Class B airspace
  2. Only when the aircraft is on an IFR flight plan
  3. Only when operating under IFR
  4. When operating in Class A, B, or C airspace, or above 10,000 feet MSL Correct answer.

Explanation

Unless otherwise authorized, the transponder with Mode C must be operating in Class A, B, and C airspace and above 10,000 feet MSL within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia.

Question 19FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal directed at an aircraft on the ground?

  1. Cleared to taxi
  2. Return to starting point on the airport Correct answer.
  3. Stop
  4. Cleared for takeoff

Explanation

A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the ground means return to the starting point on the airport. It is distinct from the flashing green signal, which clears taxiing.

Question 20FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot is flying VFR at night and encounters deteriorating visibility. What should the pilot do first?

  1. Increase airspeed to reach the destination sooner
  2. Continue to the original destination under VFR
  3. Descend to maintain visual contact with the ground
  4. Request an IFR clearance or turn toward better conditions Correct answer.

Explanation

When VFR conditions deteriorate, the pilot should obtain an IFR clearance if rated and equipped or turn toward better conditions. Continuing VFR into poor visibility is a leading cause of accidents.

Question 21FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What minimum visibility is required to operate under VFR in Class B airspace?

  1. 5 statute miles
  2. 2 statute miles
  3. 3 statute miles Correct answer.
  4. 1 statute mile

Explanation

Class B airspace requires 3 statute miles of flight visibility and clear of clouds. Higher visibility requirements apply only in specific cases such as Class E above 10,000 feet.

Question 22FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must:

  1. Obtain a special VFR clearance
  2. Remain below 18,000 feet MSL
  3. Operate under VFR with a transponder
  4. Be on an IFR flight plan and cleared by ATC Correct answer.

Explanation

Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 and requires IFR operations with an ATC clearance. VFR is not permitted in Class A airspace.

Question 23FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the required action when a pilot changes the aircraft's transponder to a new code assigned by ATC?

  1. Set the code only after landing
  2. Acknowledge and set the code, then confirm by reading back the code Correct answer.
  3. Set the code without acknowledgment
  4. Set the code only if operating under IFR

Explanation

Pilots should acknowledge a transponder code assignment, set the code, and read back the code to confirm understanding. This reduces the risk of miscommunication.

Question 24FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot operating a small airplane under VFR at 12,500 feet MSL for more than 30 minutes must use supplemental oxygen for the flight crew because:

  1. Oxygen is required above 10,000 feet MSL at all times
  2. Oxygen is required only for passengers
  3. Oxygen is required only above 14,000 feet MSL
  4. Crewmembers must use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes above 12,500 feet MSL Correct answer.

Explanation

Under 14 CFR 91.211, crewmembers must use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL. Above 14,000 feet, oxygen is required continuously.

Question 25FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot holds a private pilot certificate with airplane single-engine land privileges and wants to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane. What is required?

  1. A type rating issued by the FAA
  2. Ground and flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor Correct answer.
  3. A commercial pilot certificate
  4. A multiengine rating

Explanation

To act as PIC of a high-performance airplane (more than 200 horsepower), a pilot must receive ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and obtain a logbook endorsement. A type rating is not required for this category.

Question 26FAR/AIM and general operating rules

Under 14 CFR 91.3, who is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of an aircraft in flight?

  1. The pilot in command Correct answer.
  2. The dispatcher on duty
  3. The aircraft owner
  4. The operator's chief pilot

Explanation

14 CFR 91.3(a) places direct responsibility for, and final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft on the pilot in command. This authority exists regardless of who owns the aircraft or who assigned the flight.

Question 27FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the duration of a first-class medical certificate for a pilot who is 40 years of age or older and is exercising private pilot privileges?

  1. 6 calendar months
  2. 60 calendar months
  3. 24 calendar months
  4. 12 calendar months Correct answer.

Explanation

A first-class medical certificate issued to a person who has reached age 40 expires at the end of the 12th month after the month of examination when used for private pilot privileges. The shorter 6-month period applies only when exercising airline transport privileges.

Question 28FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot's most recent flight review was completed on March 10. Under 14 CFR 61.56, by what date must the pilot complete another flight review to remain current?

  1. March 31 of the following year
  2. March 10 of the following year
  3. The last day of the 24th month after March Correct answer.
  4. The pilot's next birthday month

Explanation

A flight review is valid for 24 calendar months, and calendar-month currency runs through the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was accomplished. A review completed in March therefore remains valid through the end of March two years later.

Question 29FAR/AIM and general operating rules

To carry passengers during the day, a pilot must have made at least how many takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required)?

  1. Two
  2. One
  3. Five
  4. Three Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 61.57(a) requires three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type if a type rating is required. The landings must be to a full stop in a tailwheel airplane.

Question 30FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the minimum visibility required for VFR flight in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL during the day?

  1. 2 statute miles
  2. 3 statute miles
  3. 5 statute miles
  4. 1 statute mile Correct answer.

Explanation

In Class G airspace at or below 1,200 feet AGL during the day, the basic VFR minimum is 1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds. Higher visibilities apply at night or above 1,200 feet AGL.

Question 31FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot is operating VFR in Class E airspace at 3,500 feet MSL. Which cloud clearance requirement applies?

  1. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal Correct answer.
  2. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 mile horizontal
  3. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 mile horizontal
  4. Clear of clouds

Explanation

In Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL, VFR flight requires 3 statute miles visibility and cloud clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. The reduced 1-mile horizontal clearance applies only in Class G airspace.

Question 32FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the minimum fuel requirement for a VFR flight in a small airplane operated at night?

  1. Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing plus 30 minutes
  2. Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing plus 2 hours
  3. Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing plus 1 hour
  4. Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing plus 45 minutes Correct answer.

Explanation

14 CFR 91.151 requires enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and then for 30 minutes during the day or 45 minutes at night. The reserve is calculated at normal cruising speed.

Question 33FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot is departing a nontowered airport and plans to climb through a cloud layer to reach VFR conditions on top. Is this operation permitted under VFR?

  1. No, unless the airport is in Class G airspace
  2. No, because VFR flight may not pass through a cloud layer Correct answer.
  3. Yes, provided the pilot maintains 500 feet below the clouds
  4. Yes, if the pilot files an IFR flight plan first

Explanation

VFR flight requires maintaining the prescribed cloud clearance at all times; a VFR aircraft may not climb through a cloud layer. A pilot who cannot remain clear of clouds under VFR must either obtain an IFR clearance or remain in VFR conditions.

Question 34FAR/AIM and general operating rules

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted for an aircraft operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace?

  1. 150 knots
  2. 250 knots
  3. 200 knots Correct answer.
  4. 230 knots

Explanation

14 CFR 91.117(b) limits aircraft to 200 knots indicated airspeed when operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace or in a VFR corridor through it. This is separate from the 250-knot limit below 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 35FAR/AIM and general operating rules

An aircraft is equipped with an operable Mode C transponder. In which situation is its use required?

  1. While operating on the surface at a nontowered airport
  2. While operating within 30 nautical miles of a Class B primary airport Correct answer.
  3. While operating in Class G airspace at 1,500 feet AGL
  4. While operating in Class D airspace

Explanation

14 CFR 91.215 requires a Mode C transponder when operating within the Mode C veil, generally 30 nautical miles of a Class B primary airport, and in other specified airspace. Class D and low-altitude Class G operations outside those areas do not require it.

Question 36FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What is the required action before operating an aircraft that has been sitting idle and is not currently in airworthy condition?

  1. Operate it only in day VFR until repaired
  2. Have a maintenance inspection and return the aircraft to airworthy condition Correct answer.
  3. Notify the local FSDO of the inactivity
  4. Obtain a new airworthiness certificate

Explanation

The pilot in command is responsible for determining that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition before flight. An aircraft that is not airworthy must be inspected and returned to airworthy condition before it may be flown.

Question 37FAR/AIM and general operating rules

Which document must be aboard the aircraft during flight to show that the aircraft meets its type design and is safe to operate?

  1. Weight and balance report
  2. Pilot's operating handbook
  3. Airworthiness certificate Correct answer.
  4. Registration certificate

Explanation

The airworthiness certificate is one of the documents that must be aboard the aircraft and displayed where it is visible to passengers and crew. It indicates the aircraft conforms to its type certificate and is in condition for safe operation.

Question 38FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot is planning a flight that will cross an active restricted area. What is the correct course of action?

  1. Cross only after filing a VFR flight plan
  2. Proceed through the area while monitoring the common frequency
  3. Avoid the area unless permission has been obtained from the controlling agency Correct answer.
  4. Cross only above 10,000 feet MSL

Explanation

Restricted areas contain unusual, often invisible hazards, and flight through them is prohibited while they are active unless permission is obtained from the controlling agency. Pilots should plan to avoid active restricted areas.

Question 39FAR/AIM and general operating rules

What must a pilot do when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action that deviates from a regulation?

  1. Notify ATC and continue without any report
  2. Land as soon as practicable and submit a report to the FAA within 10 days Correct answer.
  3. Request a waiver from the FAA before the next flight
  4. Submit a report only if property damage occurs

Explanation

Under 14 CFR 91.3, the pilot may deviate from the rules to meet an emergency but must, upon request of the Administrator, send a written report of the deviation. The pilot should land as soon as practicable and be prepared to explain the deviation.

Question 40FAR/AIM and general operating rules

A pilot operating an aircraft with an experimental airworthiness certificate may carry passengers for compensation or hire:

  1. Only if the aircraft has been inspected within the preceding 12 months
  2. Only if the passengers sign a waiver
  3. No, unless a specific operating limitation authorizes it Correct answer.
  4. Yes, if the pilot holds a commercial certificate

Explanation

Experimental aircraft are subject to operating limitations issued with the airworthiness certificate, which generally prohibit carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. Any exception must appear in those operating limitations.

Question 41Aircraft systems and performance

Which flight control surface is used primarily to control the aircraft about its longitudinal axis?

  1. Rudder
  2. Ailerons Correct answer.
  3. Elevators
  4. Flaps

Explanation

The longitudinal axis runs nose to tail, and roll about this axis is produced by differential deflection of the ailerons. Elevators control pitch about the lateral axis, and the rudder controls yaw about the vertical axis.

Question 42Aircraft systems and performance

In a conventional aircraft, what is the purpose of dihedral in the wing design?

  1. To improve the effectiveness of the rudder
  2. To reduce the induced drag at high speed
  3. To provide a degree of lateral stability in roll Correct answer.
  4. To increase the stalling angle of attack

Explanation

Dihedral is the upward angle of the wings from the root. If one wing drops, the resulting sideslip causes the lower wing to meet the relative airflow at a greater angle of attack than the raised wing, creating a restoring roll moment.

Question 43Aircraft systems and performance

What is the primary function of an aircraft's horizontal stabilizer?

  1. To provide longitudinal (pitch) stability Correct answer.
  2. To house the fuel tanks
  3. To control yaw during turns
  4. To generate most of the lift in cruise

Explanation

The horizontal stabilizer is a small lifting surface mounted aft of the centre of gravity that produces a restoring pitching moment when the aircraft is disturbed in pitch. This provides longitudinal static stability.

Question 44Aircraft systems and performance

Which of the following best describes the function of a wing flap when extended?

  1. It moves the centre of pressure rearward without affecting lift
  2. It increases both lift and drag at a given airspeed Correct answer.
  3. It decreases the camber of the wing
  4. It reduces the wing area to lower drag

Explanation

Extending flaps increases wing camber and, in many designs, wing area, so the wing produces more lift at the same airspeed. The accompanying increase in drag is useful for steepening the approach and lowering the stalling speed.

Question 45Aircraft systems and performance

During a steady level turn, what happens to the load factor as bank angle increases?

  1. It increases above 1 g Correct answer.
  2. It remains constant at 1 g
  3. It decreases below 1 g
  4. It becomes zero at 60 degrees of bank

Explanation

In a level turn the vertical component of lift must equal weight, so total lift must exceed weight. The load factor is 1/cos(bank angle), which grows as bank angle increases, reaching 2 g at 60 degrees.

Question 46Aircraft systems and performance

What does the term 'angle of attack' refer to?

  1. The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow Correct answer.
  2. The angle between the wing and the fuselage centreline
  3. The angle between the flight path and the horizon
  4. The angle between the leading and trailing edges of the tailplane

Explanation

Angle of attack is measured between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative airflow. It is the primary factor determining the lift coefficient and the approach to the stall.

Question 47Aircraft systems and performance

Which component of an aircraft's pitot-static system supplies the static pressure used to compute indicated airspeed?

  1. The static port Correct answer.
  2. The pitot tube
  3. The altimeter capsule
  4. The vertical speed indicator

Explanation

Airspeed is derived from the difference between total pressure at the pitot tube and static pressure from the static port. The static port alone supplies the static reference.

Question 48Aircraft systems and performance

What is the primary purpose of the aircraft's trim system?

  1. To lock the controls on the ground
  2. To increase the maximum available engine thrust
  3. To relieve the pilot of sustained control forces in a given flight condition Correct answer.
  4. To raise the stalling speed for landing

Explanation

Trim systems apply a small aerodynamic or mechanical force that balances the control surface, allowing the aircraft to be held in a desired attitude without continuous pilot input. This reduces workload during sustained flight phases.

Question 49Aircraft systems and performance

An aircraft stalls when the wing exceeds a critical angle of attack. Which statement best explains why increasing weight raises the stalling speed?

  1. Heavier aircraft have a lower critical angle of attack
  2. Heavier aircraft produce less lift at the same angle of attack
  3. Heavier aircraft need a higher lift coefficient, requiring a higher angle of attack at any given speed Correct answer.
  4. Heavier aircraft generate more thrust, which reduces lift

Explanation

Lift must equal weight in steady flight, so a heavier aircraft requires a larger lift coefficient. Since the critical angle of attack is fixed, the aircraft must fly faster to reach the required lift at that angle, raising the stalling speed.

Question 50Aircraft systems and performance

What is the effect of lowering the landing gear on the aircraft's performance?

  1. It increases drag and may require more thrust to maintain speed Correct answer.
  2. It has no measurable effect on drag
  3. It increases lift without affecting drag
  4. It reduces drag and increases cruise speed

Explanation

Extended landing gear adds significant parasite drag, so more thrust is required to hold a given airspeed, and the glide performance deteriorates. This is why gear is retracted as soon as practical after takeoff.