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ASSEB HS Community Science study materials
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ASSEB HS Community Science practice questions

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Question 1Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

The ICMR food groups are classified according to the function the foods perform in the body. Which group is classified as body-building food?

  1. Fruits and green leafy vegetables
  2. Cereals, millets and roots
  3. Fats, oils and sugar
  4. Pulses, milk, egg and fish Correct answer.

Explanation

Body-building foods are the protein-rich foods whose amino acids are used for growth and repair of tissues; pulses, milk, egg, fish and meat form this group. Cereals, roots, fats and sugar are grouped as energy-giving foods, while fruits and vegetables are protective foods rich in vitamins and minerals.

Question 2Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In a village survey, a pre-school child is unable to see in dim light and has dry, wrinkled conjunctiva with Bitot's spots. Which nutrient deficiency should be suspected?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Iron
  3. Thiamine
  4. Vitamin A Correct answer.

Explanation

Night blindness followed by conjunctival xerosis and Bitot's spots is the classic ocular picture of vitamin A deficiency, because retinal is needed to form rhodopsin in the rod cells and vitamin A maintains epithelial tissue. Pre-school children are the group most commonly affected, and the deficiency is assessed in community surveys as a public health problem.

Question 3Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

Which vitamin is synthesised in the skin on exposure to sunlight and is needed for the absorption of calcium from the intestine?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin D Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin K

Explanation

Ultraviolet B radiation converts 7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin into cholecalciferol, which is then activated to calcitriol; calcitriol acts on the intestine to increase calcium absorption and on bone to support mineralisation. This is why limited sun exposure and dietary sources such as fish liver oil both matter for bone health.

Question 4Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

Rice protein is limited in lysine. Which food, taken in the same meal, would improve the overall protein quality of a rice-based diet?

  1. Red gram dal Correct answer.
  2. Refined oil
  3. Butter
  4. Sugar

Explanation

Cereals are low in lysine but adequate in methionine, whereas pulses are rich in lysine and low in methionine; combining rice with dal in one meal supplies both limiting amino acids, so the mixture supports protein synthesis better than either food alone. This is the principle of complementary proteins and is the basis of traditional cereal-pulse combinations.

Question 5Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

Fresh fish is rubbed with salt and sun-dried before storage in a humid region. Which principle best explains the longer shelf life?

  1. Adding vitamins that kill bacteria
  2. Reducing water activity in the fish Correct answer.
  3. Raising the pH of the fish tissue
  4. Increasing the moisture in the flesh

Explanation

Salt draws water out of the tissue and drying removes surface and tissue moisture, so water activity falls below the level at which bacteria and moulds can multiply; salt also causes plasmolysis of microbial cells. The same principle underlies pickling, curing and the drying of fish and meat in traditional preservation.

Question 6Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

Which cooking practice best preserves the water-soluble vitamins of vegetables?

  1. Boiling in plenty of water and discarding the water
  2. Cutting into tiny pieces and soaking for a long time
  3. Steaming whole vegetables in a small amount of water Correct answer.
  4. Adding baking soda to keep the colour bright

Explanation

Thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, folacin and vitamin C dissolve in water and are destroyed by prolonged heat and oxidation, so cooking whole vegetables by steam with minimal water limits both leaching and exposure to air. Large volumes of cooking water that are thrown away, long soaking and alkaline additives all increase these losses.

Question 7Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

For a person with type 2 diabetes, which breakfast choice is most suitable for controlling the rise in blood glucose after the meal?

  1. Cornflakes with added sugar
  2. Whole-wheat roti with dal Correct answer.
  3. White bread with jam and sugary tea
  4. Fried potato with honey

Explanation

Whole-wheat roti provides complex carbohydrate and fibre that slow digestion and glucose release, while dal adds protein and further lowers the glycaemic response of the meal. Refined cereals, added sugars and deep-fried starchy foods raise post-meal glucose sharply and add unnecessary fat.

Question 8Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A person takes 2000 kcal a day, and the thermic effect of food is about 10 per cent of energy intake. Approximately how much energy is spent on diet-induced thermogenesis?

  1. 280 kcal
  2. 200 kcal Correct answer.
  3. 140 kcal
  4. 100 kcal

Explanation

Diet-induced thermogenesis is the energy cost of digesting, absorbing, transporting and storing nutrients and is usually about 10 per cent of the energy taken in. Ten per cent of 2000 kcal works out to 200 kcal, which is counted as part of total daily energy expenditure.

Question 9Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A child diagnosed with coeliac disease must completely exclude which of the following from the diet?

  1. Potato and tapioca
  2. Rice, maize and ragi
  3. Wheat, barley and rye Correct answer.
  4. Soya bean and groundnut

Explanation

Coeliac disease is an immune-mediated reaction to gluten, in which the gliadin fraction of wheat and the related prolamins of barley and rye damage the villi of the small intestine and impair absorption. These cereals must be avoided in every form, while rice, maize, ragi, potato and tapioca are gluten-free staples used in their place.

Question 10Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

Which of the following is an example of food adulteration that is also a serious health hazard?

  1. Adding sodium benzoate to squash within the permitted limit
  2. Iodising common salt for public health
  3. Colouring turmeric powder with metanil yellow Correct answer.
  4. Pasteurising milk before packing

Explanation

Metanil yellow is an industrial dye that is not permitted in foods; it is used to brighten turmeric and has been linked to toxic effects on the liver, blood and nervous system, so it is both adulteration and a health hazard. Permitted preservatives used within prescribed limits, iodisation of salt and pasteurisation are approved practices that protect rather than endanger health.

Question 11Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In nutrition calculations, which macronutrient provides approximately 9 kcal per gram and is the most energy-dense of the three energy-yielding nutrients?

  1. Fat Correct answer.
  2. Dietary fibre
  3. Protein
  4. Carbohydrate

Explanation

Fat supplies about 9 kcal per gram, whereas protein and carbohydrate each supply about 4 kcal per gram. Dietary fibre is a component of carbohydrate and contributes little available energy. Therefore fat is the most energy-dense macronutrient.

Question 12Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A community health worker finds a high prevalence of enlarged thyroid gland among schoolchildren in a hill district. Which nutrient deficiency is the most likely cause?

  1. Calcium
  2. Iodine Correct answer.
  3. Iron
  4. Vitamin C

Explanation

Iodine is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, and its deficiency causes goitre, which appears as an enlarged thyroid gland. Iron deficiency causes anaemia, calcium deficiency affects bone mineralisation, and vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy.

Question 13Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

According to infant and young child feeding recommendations, what should be given to a healthy breastfed infant at six completed months along with continued breastfeeding?

  1. Only boiled cow's milk
  2. The usual adult family diet
  3. Commercial fruit juice
  4. Home-prepared mashed complementary foods Correct answer.

Explanation

At six completed months, breast milk alone no longer meets all nutrient needs, so complementary foods should be started while breastfeeding continues. These foods should be soft, nutrient-dense and prepared hygienically. Cow's milk alone, fruit juice and the adult family diet are not suitable replacements at this age.

Question 14Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A plant-based meal contains whole wheat chapati and lentils. Which accompaniment would most improve non-haem iron absorption from this meal?

  1. A cup of tea
  2. A glass of milk
  3. A spoon of butter
  4. A piece of guava Correct answer.

Explanation

Guava is rich in vitamin C, which enhances non-haem iron absorption by keeping iron in the more absorbable ferrous form. Tea contains tannins and milk contains calcium, both of which can inhibit iron absorption. Butter contributes fat but does not improve iron absorption.

Question 15Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A person wants to increase dietary fibre intake without adding much energy. Which change is most appropriate?

  1. Increase ghee in cooking
  2. Replace refined white flour with whole wheat flour Correct answer.
  3. Add extra sugar to beverages
  4. Drink more fruit juice

Explanation

Whole wheat flour retains the bran and germ, which supply more fibre than refined white flour without greatly increasing energy. Sugar and ghee add energy but little or no fibre. Fruit juice contains little fibre compared with whole fruit.

Question 16Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In a low-cost meal plan, which food group is the richest source of calcium and should be included to meet calcium needs?

  1. Pulses and legumes
  2. Milk and milk products Correct answer.
  3. Cereals and millets
  4. Fats and oils

Explanation

Milk and milk products are the richest dietary sources of calcium and provide it in a well-absorbed form. Cereals and pulses contain some calcium but also contain phytates that reduce bioavailability. Fats and oils are not significant sources of calcium.

Question 17Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A packet of biscuits lists partially hydrogenated vegetable oil among its ingredients. Which health effect is most associated with regular intake of this type of fat?

  1. Increased risk of night blindness
  2. Increased risk of cardiovascular disease Correct answer.
  3. Increased risk of iodine deficiency
  4. Increased risk of scurvy

Explanation

Partially hydrogenated vegetable oil contains trans fatty acids, which tend to raise LDL cholesterol and lower HDL cholesterol. Regular intake therefore increases the risk of cardiovascular disease. Night blindness, iodine deficiency and scurvy are caused by deficiencies of vitamin A, iodine and vitamin C respectively.

Question 18Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A day's diet provides 60 g protein, 250 g carbohydrate and 50 g fat. Using Atwater factors, what percentage of total energy comes from protein (approximately)?

  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. 14% Correct answer.

Explanation

Protein provides 60 × 4 = 240 kcal, carbohydrate provides 250 × 4 = 1000 kcal, and fat provides 50 × 9 = 450 kcal. Total energy is 1690 kcal, so protein contributes 240 ÷ 1690 × 100, which is about 14 per cent.

Question 19Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In a nutritional assessment of children aged 6–59 months, which index is used to identify wasting (acute malnutrition)?

  1. Weight-for-age
  2. Weight-for-height Correct answer.
  3. Height-for-age
  4. Head circumference-for-age

Explanation

Wasting reflects recent or acute malnutrition and is assessed by low weight-for-height. Low height-for-age indicates stunting, while low weight-for-age indicates underweight. Head circumference-for-age is used mainly to assess brain growth in younger children.

Question 20Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A district has a high incidence of neural tube defects. Which preconception intervention is most directly effective?

  1. Folic acid supplementation Correct answer.
  2. Calcium supplementation
  3. Vitamin A supplementation
  4. Iron supplementation

Explanation

Adequate folic acid intake before conception and in early pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida. Iron supplementation prevents anaemia, vitamin A prevents night blindness, and calcium supports bone health, but none directly prevents neural tube defects.

Question 21Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

Which of the following foods is the richest source of vitamin C per 100 g?

  1. Milk
  2. Mustard oil
  3. Amla Correct answer.
  4. Rice

Explanation

Amla is one of the richest sources of vitamin C, providing roughly 600 mg per 100 g. Milk, milled rice and refined oil contain very little vitamin C, so they cannot meet the daily requirement.

Question 22Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A community nutrition worker recommends that families include a green leafy vegetable in the daily meal. Which nutrients is such a vegetable most likely to supply in useful amounts?

  1. Lysine and methionine
  2. Folate and iron Correct answer.
  3. Iodine and zinc
  4. Vitamin B12 and retinol

Explanation

Green leafy vegetables are valuable sources of folate and non-haem iron, and they also supply beta-carotene. They are not meaningful sources of vitamin B12, retinol, iodine or the sulphur amino acids.

Question 23Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A person with hypertension is advised to reduce a particular type of food. Which food should be limited most?

  1. Whole wheat chapati
  2. Boiled lentils
  3. Salted pickles Correct answer.
  4. Fresh bananas

Explanation

Salted pickles contain large amounts of sodium, which raises blood pressure in many people. Fresh fruit, whole wheat chapati and boiled lentils are low-sodium foods and are suitable in a hypertension diet.

Question 24Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A 2-year-old child presents with moon face, swollen feet, thin sparse hair and a distended abdomen. The most likely nutritional problem is:

  1. Marasmus with severe wasting and no oedema
  2. Scurvy with bleeding gums and poor wound healing
  3. Kwashiorkor with oedema and moon face Correct answer.
  4. Beriberi with nerve weakness and heart failure

Explanation

Kwashiorkor is protein-energy malnutrition marked by oedema, moon face, thin sparse hair and a distended abdomen. Marasmus causes severe wasting without oedema, while scurvy and beriberi are specific vitamin deficiencies.

Question 25Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

Cooked rice left at room temperature for several hours is most likely to cause which food-borne illness?

  1. Lactose intolerance from rice
  2. Bacillus cereus food poisoning Correct answer.
  3. Protein-energy malnutrition from rice
  4. Vitamin A toxicity from rice

Explanation

Bacillus cereus spores survive cooking and can multiply when cooked rice is kept at room temperature. Reheating may not destroy the toxin, so rice should be cooled quickly and refrigerated.

Question 26Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

To reduce the risk of aflatoxin contamination in stored groundnuts, the best practice is to:

  1. Sort and discard mouldy nuts Correct answer.
  2. Wash them with soap and water
  3. Store them in damp, warm sacks
  4. Mix them with iodised table salt

Explanation

Aspergillus flavus grows on groundnuts in warm, humid conditions and produces aflatoxin. Sorting out mouldy nuts and drying them properly reduces contamination; damp storage, salt or soap washing do not.

Question 27Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A strict vegan who eats no animal products is at greatest risk of deficiency of which vitamin?

  1. Vitamin B12 Correct answer.
  2. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
  3. Folate (folic acid)
  4. Vitamin K (phylloquinone)

Explanation

Vitamin B12 occurs naturally almost only in foods of animal origin. Vegans therefore need fortified foods or a supplement; vitamin C, folate and vitamin K are available from plant foods.

Question 28Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

An adult woman has a body mass index of 27.5 kg/m². Using WHO adult cut-offs, her weight status is:

  1. Normal weight
  2. Overweight Correct answer.
  3. Obesity class I
  4. Underweight

Explanation

WHO adult BMI cut-offs are underweight below 18.5, normal 18.5–24.9, overweight 25.0–29.9 and obesity 30.0 or above. A BMI of 27.5 therefore falls in the overweight range.

Question 29Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A packet of biscuits provides 400 kcal per 100 g and contains 15 g fat per 100 g. What percentage of the energy comes from fat?

  1. About 15%
  2. About 25%
  3. About 34% Correct answer.
  4. About 45%

Explanation

Fat provides 9 kcal per gram, so 15 g fat supplies 135 kcal. In a 400 kcal portion, fat contributes 135 ÷ 400 × 100, which is about 34 per cent of energy.

Question 30Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In a district survey, adolescent girls show pale conjunctiva, tiredness and low haemoglobin. The most appropriate community-level intervention is:

  1. Vitamin A supplementation
  2. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
  3. Iron-folic acid supplementation Correct answer.
  4. Iodised salt promotion

Explanation

Pale conjunctiva, fatigue and low haemoglobin suggest iron-deficiency anaemia, common in adolescent girls. Iron-folic acid supplementation is the appropriate community intervention; vitamin A, iodine and calcium do not treat anaemia.

Question 31Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A newborn is exclusively breastfed. Which component is present in high concentration in the first milk (colostrum) and provides passive immunity?

  1. Saturated fat
  2. Lactose sugar
  3. Secretory IgA Correct answer.
  4. Dietary fibre

Explanation

Colostrum is rich in secretory IgA, which coats the infant's gut and provides passive immune protection. Lactose, fat and fibre are not the key immune components; fibre is not present in breast milk.

Question 32Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In a community food-processing unit, freshly harvested vegetables are sliced and sun-dried before storage. Which principle explains why drying extends shelf life?

  1. It adds preservative chemicals to the food.
  2. It increases the pH of the food.
  3. It sterilises the food by killing all bacterial spores.
  4. It lowers available water, limiting microbial growth. Correct answer.

Explanation

Drying reduces water activity, depriving bacteria, yeasts and moulds of water needed for growth. It does not sterilise food or necessarily alter pH, and no chemical preservative is added.

Question 33Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A community in which polished white rice is the staple food reports cases of peripheral neuropathy and heart failure. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely responsible?

  1. Vitamin K (phylloquinone) deficiency
  2. Thiamine deficiency Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin A (retinol) deficiency
  4. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency

Explanation

Thiamine is lost during polishing of rice; deficiency causes beriberi, which can present with peripheral neuropathy and heart failure. Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness, vitamin C scurvy, and vitamin K bleeding.

Question 34Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A dietitian is teaching a person with type 2 diabetes about carbohydrate foods. Which statement best describes the glycemic index (GI)?

  1. The total amount of carbohydrate in a food, expressed in grams
  2. The ratio of carbohydrate to protein in a food
  3. The number of calories provided by one serving of food
  4. Blood glucose response relative to a reference food Correct answer.

Explanation

GI ranks carbohydrate-containing foods by the rise in blood glucose over two hours compared with a reference, usually glucose or white bread. It is not a measure of total carbohydrate, protein ratio or energy content.

Question 35Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In a school health survey, children's heights are compared with the WHO growth reference for their age. A low height-for-age index in these children indicates which condition?

  1. Obesity (excess body fat)
  2. Stunting Correct answer.
  3. Overweight (high weight-for-height)
  4. Wasting (acute malnutrition)

Explanation

Low height-for-age defines stunting and reflects long-term or chronic malnutrition. Wasting is low weight-for-height, while overweight and obesity are high weight-for-height or BMI.

Question 36Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A person with mildly elevated LDL cholesterol is advised to increase a specific type of dietary fibre. Which fibre type is most effective for lowering LDL cholesterol?

  1. Cellulose from vegetable stalks
  2. Lignin from woody plant parts
  3. Insoluble fibre from wheat bran
  4. Soluble fibre (beta-glucan) Correct answer.

Explanation

Soluble fibres such as beta-glucan, pectin and gums bind bile acids and reduce LDL cholesterol. Insoluble fibres like cellulose and lignin mainly add bulk and promote laxation without a strong cholesterol-lowering effect.

Question 37Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A community nutrition worker advises a family to avoid serving strong tea with meals that contain lentils and green leafy vegetables. Which absorption process is most affected by this advice?

  1. Non-haem iron absorption Correct answer.
  2. Vitamin A absorption from meals
  3. Calcium absorption from meals
  4. Vitamin C absorption from meals

Explanation

Tea contains tannins and polyphenols that bind non-haem iron in plant foods and reduce its absorption. This is why tea should be taken between meals rather than with iron-rich meals. Calcium and vitamin A are not the main target here, and vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption.

Question 38Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A national programme adds vitamin A and iron to cooking oil and wheat flour. What is this public health strategy called?

  1. Food enrichment with energy
  2. Food adulteration
  3. Food irradiation
  4. Food fortification Correct answer.

Explanation

Fortification is the addition of essential micronutrients to commonly consumed foods to improve population nutrient intake. It is not adulteration, irradiation or simply adding energy.

Question 39Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

A hospital kitchen is introducing a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) system. What is the first principle that must be completed before identifying critical control points?

  1. Establish corrective actions
  2. Verify the HACCP plan
  3. Record monitoring procedures
  4. Conduct a hazard analysis Correct answer.

Explanation

The first HACCP principle is to conduct a hazard analysis, identifying biological, chemical and physical hazards and their preventive measures. Corrective actions, verification and record-keeping come after critical control points are set.

Question 40Food, Nutrition and Dietetics

In cereal-based diets, the protein quality is often limited. Which amino acid is typically the most limiting in maize and wheat proteins?

  1. Glutamic acid
  2. Methionine
  3. Lysine Correct answer.
  4. Leucine

Explanation

Cereal proteins are generally low in lysine, which becomes the limiting amino acid for protein synthesis. Legumes are richer in lysine but often limiting in methionine, so cereal-legume combinations improve protein quality.

Question 41Human Development and Family Studies

In Piaget's theory, a 9-month-old infant who searches for a toy hidden under a cloth is demonstrating the beginning of which cognitive achievement?

  1. Egocentric speech
  2. Conservation of number
  3. Concrete operational reasoning
  4. Object permanence Correct answer.

Explanation

Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight, and it begins to develop during the sensorimotor stage. Conservation and concrete operations appear in later Piagetian stages, while egocentric speech is associated with preoperational thought.

Question 42Human Development and Family Studies

A household made up of a married couple, their children, and the husband's parents all living together is best described as which family form?

  1. Single-parent family
  2. Childless family
  3. Nuclear family
  4. Joint family Correct answer.

Explanation

A joint or extended family includes relatives beyond the parent-child unit, such as grandparents, sharing one household. A nuclear family contains only parents and their children, while single-parent and childless families lack the members described in the stem.

Question 43Human Development and Family Studies

Which agent is usually described as the primary agent of socialization in early childhood?

  1. Peer group
  2. School
  3. Family Correct answer.
  4. Mass media

Explanation

The family is the first and primary agent of socialization because young children depend on caregivers for care, language, values, and emotional support. Peers, schools, and mass media become more influential as children grow older and spend more time outside the home.

Question 44Human Development and Family Studies

A parent sets clear rules about homework and bedtime but explains the reasons and listens to the child's viewpoint. This parenting style is best classified as:

  1. Permissive
  2. Authoritarian
  3. Authoritative Correct answer.
  4. Uninvolved

Explanation

Authoritative parenting combines high expectations with warmth and responsiveness, including explanation and two-way dialogue. Authoritarian parenting is high in control but low in warmth, permissive parenting is warm but low in control, and uninvolved parenting is low on both dimensions.

Question 45Human Development and Family Studies

According to Erikson, a 16-year-old who is exploring different career paths and friend groups is primarily resolving which psychosocial crisis?

  1. Trust versus mistrust
  2. Identity versus role confusion Correct answer.
  3. Initiative versus guilt
  4. Industry versus inferiority

Explanation

Erikson placed identity versus role confusion in adolescence, when young people explore values, roles, and possible futures. Trust versus mistrust belongs to infancy, initiative versus guilt to early childhood, and industry versus inferiority to middle childhood.

Question 46Human Development and Family Studies

In Ainsworth's Strange Situation, a toddler who is distressed when the caregiver leaves and is easily comforted when the caregiver returns is showing which attachment pattern?

  1. Disorganized attachment
  2. Secure attachment Correct answer.
  3. Avoidant attachment
  4. Ambivalent-resistant attachment

Explanation

Secure attachment is marked by separation distress and quick comfort on reunion because the caregiver is a reliable safe haven. Avoidant infants show little distress and avoid contact, ambivalent infants mix distress with resistance, and disorganized patterns show contradictory behaviors.

Question 47Human Development and Family Studies

A family whose last adolescent has just moved out to attend college and whose parents are renegotiating household roles is in which stage of the family life cycle?

  1. Families with young children
  2. Beginning families
  3. Families in later life
  4. Launching children and moving on Correct answer.

Explanation

The launching stage involves children leaving home and parents renegotiating roles, routines, and relationships. Beginning families start with marriage, families with young children focus on childrearing, and later life follows retirement and aging.

Question 48Human Development and Family Studies

A child says, "I won't take the cookie because I might get punished." This reasoning reflects which of Kohlberg's levels of moral development?

  1. Postconventional
  2. Preconventional Correct answer.
  3. Conventional
  4. Concrete operational

Explanation

Preconventional morality focuses on punishment, obedience, and self-interest, as when a child avoids an act to escape punishment. Conventional morality emphasizes social approval and rules, postconventional reasoning uses abstract principles, and concrete operational is a Piagetian cognitive stage rather than a Kohlberg level.

Question 49Human Development and Family Studies

Which statement best reflects activity theory of aging?

  1. Older adults age well mainly through biological decline.
  2. Older adults age well by disengaging from family roles.
  3. Older adults age well through mutual withdrawal from society.
  4. Older adults age well by maintaining roles and relationships. Correct answer.

Explanation

Activity theory holds that older adults age well when they remain engaged in meaningful roles, relationships, and activities. Disengagement theory instead argues for mutual withdrawal, and biological decline is not the central claim of activity theory.

Question 50Human Development and Family Studies

A family therapist notes that a 12-year-old is regularly mediating between quarreling parents. In family systems terms, this is best described as:

  1. Triangulation Correct answer.
  2. Scapegoating
  3. Enmeshment
  4. Differentiation

Explanation

Triangulation occurs when tension between two family members is channeled through a third person, such as a child who mediates between quarreling parents. Enmeshment refers to blurred boundaries, scapegoating to blaming one member, and differentiation to maintaining a separate sense of self within the family.