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CHSE Odisha Voc. PHC & MLT study materials
CHSE Odisha Voc. PHC & MLT study resources

CHSE Odisha Voc. PHC & MLT practice questions

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Question 1Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control and shows striations under the microscope?

  1. Smooth muscle
  2. Skeletal muscle Correct answer.
  3. Cardiac muscle
  4. Myoepithelial tissue

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is attached to bones through tendons and is activated by somatic motor neurons, giving conscious voluntary control. Its contractile proteins are arranged in regular sarcomeres, which produce the cross-striations seen on microscopy. Cardiac and smooth muscle are involuntary.

Question 2Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

In the ABO blood group system, a person with blood group A has which antibody circulating in plasma?

  1. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
  2. Anti-O antibody
  3. Anti-A antibody
  4. Anti-B antibody Correct answer.

Explanation

Landsteiner's rule states that plasma contains antibodies against the ABO antigens the person lacks. Group A red cells carry A antigen, so the plasma carries anti-B antibody, which would agglutinate transfused B cells. Anti-A would react with the person's own red cells and is therefore not present.

Question 3Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into the systemic circulation through the aorta?

  1. Right atrium
  2. Right ventricle
  3. Left atrium
  4. Left ventricle Correct answer.

Explanation

The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium through the mitral valve and ejects it into the aorta. Its thick muscular wall generates the high pressure needed for systemic perfusion. The right side of the heart handles deoxygenated blood destined for the lungs.

Question 4Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A capillary blood sample is collected from the side of the fingertip rather than the centre. What is the main reason for this practice?

  1. To prevent clotting inside the lancet
  2. To reduce pain by avoiding the dense nerve supply at the pad centre Correct answer.
  3. To obtain a larger drop of blood
  4. To avoid diluting the sample with tissue fluid

Explanation

The fingertip pad is richly supplied with pain receptors, so puncture near the centre is more painful. Sampling from the lateral side, usually of the third or fourth finger, reduces discomfort while still yielding an adequate capillary bed. The depth of puncture, not the site, mainly governs tissue-fluid contamination.

Question 5Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which formed element of blood is primarily responsible for oxygen transport from the lungs to tissues?

  1. Erythrocytes Correct answer.
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Platelets

Explanation

Erythrocytes contain haemoglobin, whose iron-containing haem groups bind oxygen reversibly in the lungs and release it in peripheral tissues. Neutrophils and lymphocytes are leukocytes concerned with defence, and platelets with haemostasis.

Question 6Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which vitamin deficiency is classically associated with defective collagen synthesis and bleeding gums?

  1. Vitamin D
  2. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin K
  4. Vitamin A

Explanation

Vitamin C is a cofactor for prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase, enzymes that hydroxylate proline and lysine residues during collagen synthesis. Deficiency impairs collagen cross-linking, producing scurvy with bleeding gums, poor wound healing and perifollicular haemorrhage.

Question 7Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which structure prevents food from entering the larynx during swallowing?

  1. Soft palate
  2. Epiglottis Correct answer.
  3. Uvula
  4. Glottis

Explanation

During the pharyngeal phase of swallowing the epiglottis folds backwards over the laryngeal inlet, directing the bolus into the oesophagus. The glottis is the opening itself, and the soft palate and uvula close off the nasopharynx.

Question 8Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

In the nephron, in which segment does the bulk of glucose reabsorption occur?

  1. Collecting duct
  2. Descending limb of the loop of Henle
  3. Distal convoluted tubule
  4. Proximal convoluted tubule Correct answer.

Explanation

The proximal convoluted tubule has a brush border rich in sodium-glucose cotransporters, which reclaim virtually all filtered glucose under normal conditions. This high-capacity reabsorption explains why glucose appears in urine only when the renal threshold is exceeded.

Question 9Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A patient's arterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg and bicarbonate 26 mEq/L. Which acid-base disturbance is most consistent with these values?

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis Correct answer.
  4. Respiratory alkalosis

Explanation

The pH is below 7.35, indicating acidaemia, and the raised PaCO2 above 45 mmHg points to alveolar hypoventilation as the cause. The bicarbonate is near normal, so there is no substantial metabolic compensation yet. This pattern defines an acute respiratory acidosis.

Question 10Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which immunoglobulin class crosses the placenta and provides the newborn with passive humoral immunity?

  1. IgG Correct answer.
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgE

Explanation

IgG is the only immunoglobulin that is actively transported across the placental barrier, via FcRn receptors, giving the fetus maternal antibody protection for the first months of life. Its long half-life also makes it the dominant antibody in serum and secondary immune responses.

Question 11Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

During a laboratory procedure a glass tube containing blood breaks and spills on the bench. Which action should be taken first?

  1. Flush the spill directly into the sink with running water
  2. Wipe the spill with a dry cloth and continue work
  3. Spray the area with disinfectant and resume work after one minute
  4. Evacuate the area, restrict access and alert the supervisor before decontamination Correct answer.

Explanation

A blood spill is a potential sharps and biohazard exposure, so the immediate priority is to secure the area, warn others and inform the supervisor so the correct spill kit and personal protective equipment can be used. Decontamination follows only after the area is safe and the glass fragments are removed with forceps, never by hand.

Question 12Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of dehydration in an adult patient?

  1. Pitting oedema of the ankles
  2. Bounding pulse and hypertension
  3. Reduced skin turgor with prolonged capillary refill Correct answer.
  4. Increased jugular venous pressure

Explanation

Loss of extracellular fluid reduces tissue turgor and peripheral perfusion, so the skin tents when pinched and capillary refill exceeds two seconds. These findings reflect reduced intravascular volume, often accompanied by tachycardia and postural hypotension.

Question 13Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which statement correctly describes the difference between arteries and veins in the systemic circulation?

  1. Arteries always carry oxygenated blood while veins always carry deoxygenated blood
  2. Veins have thicker tunica media and higher resting pressure than arteries
  3. Arteries carry blood away from the heart and have thicker muscular walls than veins Correct answer.
  4. Veins contain valves that prevent backflow in the arterial circulation

Explanation

By definition, systemic arteries carry blood away from the heart and have a thick tunica media to withstand high pressure, whereas veins return blood and have thinner walls with a wider lumen. The pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein show that oxygen content alone does not define vessel type.

Question 14Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops fever, chills and flank pain shortly after the unit is started. What is the most appropriate immediate nursing action?

  1. Stop the transfusion, keep the intravenous line patent with saline and notify the clinician Correct answer.
  2. Administer an antihistamine and continue the transfusion
  3. Record the reaction and complete the transfusion as prescribed
  4. Slow the transfusion rate and recheck after thirty minutes

Explanation

Fever with chills and flank pain may indicate an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction, which can progress to shock and renal failure. The transfusion must be stopped at once, the line maintained with normal saline through new tubing, and the clinician informed so the reaction can be investigated.

Question 15Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which hormone released by the posterior pituitary increases water reabsorption in the collecting duct?

  1. Aldosterone
  2. Antidiuretic hormone Correct answer.
  3. Parathyroid hormone
  4. Atrial natriuretic peptide

Explanation

Antidiuretic hormone, also called vasopressin, inserts aquaporin-2 channels into collecting-duct cells, allowing water to move down its osmotic gradient into the hypertonic medulla. This concentrates the urine and conserves body water.

Question 16Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which of the following best explains why a venous blood sample for routine biochemistry is collected in a tube containing clot activator and gel?

  1. It binds calcium to stop the clotting cascade
  2. It yields serum after centrifugation for chemical analysis Correct answer.
  3. It prevents glycolysis by cells during transport
  4. It preserves cellular morphology for microscopy

Explanation

A serum tube with clot activator and separator gel allows blood to clot, after which centrifugation separates serum above the gel barrier. Serum is the standard matrix for most chemistry assays because it lacks fibrinogen and cells.

Question 17Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which cranial nerve carries the afferent limb of the gag reflex?

  1. Facial nerve
  2. Glossopharyngeal nerve Correct answer.
  3. Hypoglossal nerve
  4. Accessory nerve

Explanation

The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies sensation to the posterior third of the tongue and pharynx, forming the afferent limb of the gag reflex. The efferent limb is carried by the vagus nerve to the pharyngeal muscles.

Question 18Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A sputum sample is requested for suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. Which instruction is most appropriate for the patient?

  1. Rinse the mouth with antiseptic before collecting the specimen
  2. Collect the sample after a meal to increase volume
  3. Provide an early-morning deep cough specimen on three consecutive days Correct answer.
  4. Collect saliva pooled in the mouth on waking

Explanation

Sputum must come from the lower respiratory tract, so the patient is asked to cough deeply after mouth rinsing with water, and early-morning samples are preferred because secretions accumulate overnight. For tuberculosis, multiple consecutive specimens increase the diagnostic yield.

Question 19Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which mechanism best explains the oedema seen in a patient with low plasma albumin from nephrotic syndrome?

  1. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure from venous obstruction
  2. Increased capillary permeability from histamine release
  3. Lymphatic obstruction preventing fluid return
  4. Reduced plasma oncotic pressure allowing fluid to move into the interstitium Correct answer.

Explanation

Albumin is the main contributor to plasma oncotic pressure, which draws fluid back into capillaries along the Starling forces. When albumin is lost in urine, oncotic pressure falls and net filtration into the interstitium increases, producing generalised oedema.

Question 20Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which change in respiratory physiology occurs at high altitude before acclimatisation is complete?

  1. Increased alveolar oxygen partial pressure
  2. Increased plasma bicarbonate concentration
  3. Respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation Correct answer.
  4. Reduced cardiac output

Explanation

At altitude the lower barometric pressure reduces the partial pressure of inspired oxygen, so chemoreceptors drive hyperventilation. The resulting washout of carbon dioxide lowers arterial PCO2 and raises pH, producing a respiratory alkalosis until renal bicarbonate excretion compensates.

Question 21Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which statement about the countercurrent mechanism of the loop of Henle is correct?

  1. The ascending limb is permeable to water and actively secretes sodium
  2. The loop of Henle dilutes the medullary interstitium
  3. The descending limb is permeable to water but relatively impermeable to solutes Correct answer.
  4. Both limbs are freely permeable to water and solutes

Explanation

The descending limb allows water to leave osmotically while retaining solutes, so the filtrate becomes concentrated. The ascending limb actively transports sodium chloride out while remaining water-impermeable, building the medullary osmotic gradient and diluting the tubular fluid.

Question 22Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has a resting PaO2 of 50 mmHg and PaCO2 of 60 mmHg. Why is uncontrolled high-flow oxygen therapy potentially harmful?

  1. It causes immediate haemolysis of red blood cells
  2. It may worsen hypercapnia by altering ventilation-perfusion matching and the hypoxic drive Correct answer.
  3. It reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin
  4. It directly destroys alveolar type II cells

Explanation

In chronic hypercapnia the hypoxic drive becomes an important stimulus to ventilation, and high-flow oxygen can blunt it. Oxygen also relieves hypoxic vasoconstriction, worsening ventilation-perfusion mismatch and the Haldane effect, so carbon dioxide retention may increase. Controlled low-flow oxygen with target saturations is therefore used.

Question 23Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which finding on a peripheral blood smear best supports a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anaemia?

  1. Macrocytes with hypersegmented neutrophils
  2. Normocytic cells with numerous schistocytes
  3. Normochromic cells with rouleaux formation
  4. Microcytic hypochromic red cells with pencil cells Correct answer.

Explanation

Reduced iron availability limits haemoglobin synthesis, so erythrocytes are produced small and poorly haemoglobinised, appearing microcytic and hypochromic with elongated pencil cells. The Mentzer index and low serum ferritin support the diagnosis.

Question 24Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which receptor type mediates the rapid depolarisation of skeletal muscle at the motor end plate?

  1. Gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor
  2. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor Correct answer.
  3. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
  4. Adrenergic beta receptor

Explanation

Acetylcholine released from the somatic motor neuron binds nicotinic receptors on the motor end plate, which are ligand-gated cation channels. Their opening allows sodium influx and potassium efflux, generating the end-plate potential that triggers muscle contraction.

Question 25Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

In a patient with metabolic acidosis, which compensatory change is expected in the respiratory system?

  1. Hyperventilation lowering PaCO2 Correct answer.
  2. Reduced oxygen affinity of haemoglobin only
  3. No change in minute ventilation
  4. Hypoventilation raising PaCO2

Explanation

A fall in plasma bicarbonate lowers pH, which stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors to increase alveolar ventilation. The resulting fall in PaCO2 reduces the carbonic acid component, partially restoring the bicarbonate-to-carbonic acid ratio and returning pH toward normal.

Question 26Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which formed element of blood is primarily responsible for oxygen transport from the lungs to the tissues?

  1. Erythrocyte Correct answer.
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Platelet
  4. Neutrophil

Explanation

Erythrocytes contain haemoglobin, the iron-containing protein that binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in peripheral tissues. This makes them the principal oxygen-carrying cells of blood. Other formed elements have immune or haemostatic roles.

Question 27Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

Which heart valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during ventricular systole?

  1. Mitral valve Correct answer.
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Tricuspid valve
  4. Aortic valve

Explanation

The mitral (bicuspid) valve guards the opening between the left atrium and left ventricle. During ventricular systole, its cusps close to prevent blood from regurgitating into the atrium. The aortic and pulmonary valves are semilunar valves located at the ventricular outflow tracts.

Question 28Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A patient has a resting cardiac output of 5 L/min and a heart rate of 100 beats/min. What is the stroke volume?

  1. 20 mL
  2. 50 mL Correct answer.
  3. 100 mL
  4. 500 mL

Explanation

Cardiac output equals heart rate multiplied by stroke volume. Rearranging gives stroke volume = cardiac output ÷ heart rate = 5000 mL/min ÷ 100 beats/min = 50 mL/beat. This value is within the normal resting range.

Question 29Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A patient’s blood report shows a raised mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and a low reticulocyte count. Which condition best fits this picture?

  1. Megaloblastic anaemia Correct answer.
  2. Iron-deficiency anaemia
  3. Acute blood loss
  4. Thalassaemia trait

Explanation

Megaloblastic anaemia, due to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency, impairs DNA synthesis and produces enlarged red cells, so the MCV is raised. Because the marrow cannot mount an effective response, the reticulocyte count remains low. Iron deficiency and thalassaemia typically cause microcytosis, while acute blood loss raises the reticulocyte count.

Question 30Anatomy, Physiology and Basic Health Care

A patient with severe vomiting loses gastric juice rich in hydrochloric acid. Which acid–base disturbance is most likely to develop?

  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis Correct answer.
  3. Respiratory alkalosis
  4. Respiratory acidosis

Explanation

Gastric juice contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions and chloride. Profuse vomiting removes acid from the body and also depletes chloride and potassium, leading to a metabolic alkalosis. The lungs may hypoventilate as partial compensation, but the primary disorder is metabolic.

Question 31Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

In a PHC drug store, which storage condition is normally required for oral rehydration salts (ORS) sachets?

  1. Store in the freezer compartment at minus 20 degrees Celsius
  2. Store in the refrigerator between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius
  3. Store immersed in water to keep the powder moist
  4. Store in a cool, dry place protected from moisture and direct sunlight Correct answer.

Explanation

ORS is a dry powder that absorbs moisture readily, so it must be kept cool, dry and away from direct sunlight. Moisture makes the powder cake and can alter the measured composition when dissolved. Refrigeration or freezing is unnecessary and harmful to a hygroscopic powder.

Question 32Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

According to the cold-chain rule, vaccines and insulin in a PHC store should be kept within which temperature range?

  1. Between minus 25 and minus 15 degrees Celsius
  2. Between 30 and 40 degrees Celsius
  3. Between 2 and 8 degrees Celsius Correct answer.
  4. Between 15 and 25 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Most vaccines and insulin require a cold chain of 2 to 8 degrees Celsius to keep their potency. Heat above this range denatures proteins and destroys vaccine antigens, while freezing damages adjuvanted vaccines and insulin. Room temperature or freezer storage is therefore unsuitable.

Question 33Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

A drug label reads 'Amoxicillin 500 mg capsules, batch no. AMX2311, expiry 08/2026'. What does the expiry date indicate?

  1. The date by which the drug must be consumed in one dose
  2. The date the batch was manufactured
  3. The date the stock was received in the store
  4. The month after which the product should no longer be dispensed Correct answer.

Explanation

An expiry date such as 08/2026 means the product is valid up to the end of August 2026 and should not be dispensed after that month. It is a stability limit set by the manufacturer, not a manufacturing or receipt date. It also has no relation to single-dose timing.

Question 34Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

What is the correct way to record a receipt of 200 bottles of paracetamol syrup into the PHC stock register?

  1. Enter the quantity after the stock is issued to patients
  2. Enter only the total quantity received and the name of the drug
  3. Enter the supplier name only, leaving quantities for the monthly audit
  4. Enter date, supplier, batch number, expiry date, quantity received and balance on hand Correct answer.

Explanation

A stock register entry must be traceable, so it records the date, supplier, batch number, expiry, quantity received and the resulting balance. Batch and expiry allow later recall or expiry checks. Partial or delayed entries break the audit trail.

Question 35Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

Which practice correctly supports dispensing of a prescribed medicine from a PHC counter?

  1. Dispense the nearest available strength without checking the prescription
  2. Substitute a different drug whenever the prescribed one is out of stock
  3. Check the prescription against the drug, dose and patient details before handing over the medicine Correct answer.
  4. Hand over the medicine first and read the prescription afterwards

Explanation

Dispensing support requires verifying the prescription against the drug name, strength, dose and patient identity before supply. This prevents wrong-drug and wrong-dose errors. Substitution or dispensing before checking removes that safeguard.

Question 36Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

Which item belongs in the bin card rather than on the prescription?

  1. Running balance of stock on hand Correct answer.
  2. Directions for use written for the patient
  3. Patient's age and sex
  4. Prescriber's signature

Explanation

A bin card is an internal stock record kept with the item and shows receipts, issues and the running balance. Patient details, prescriber signature and directions belong on the prescription. Confusing the two records weakens both stock control and dispensing safety.

Question 37Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

Why are narcotic drugs such as morphine kept in a separate double-locked cupboard in a PHC?

  1. To make them easier to find during a rush
  2. To restrict access and allow a dedicated accountable register Correct answer.
  3. To allow them to be issued without a prescription
  4. To keep them colder than other medicines

Explanation

Narcotics are controlled substances with abuse potential, so they are stored under double lock with restricted keys and a separate register. This supports accountability and deters diversion. Cold storage and convenience are not the purpose, and a prescription is always required.

Question 38Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

What is the main purpose of the first-expiry-first-out (FEFO) rule in a PHC drug store?

  1. To issue the cheapest brand before costly brands
  2. To issue the newest stock first so old stock stays in reserve
  3. To issue stock with the earliest expiry date before later-dated stock Correct answer.
  4. To issue stock in alphabetical order of drug name

Explanation

FEFO ensures that batches closest to expiry leave the store first, reducing expiry losses and waste. It is based on expiry date, not on cost, brand or alphabetical order. Issuing newer stock first would leave old stock to expire on the shelf.

Question 39Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

During a stock check you find 40 tablets of a drug in the bin but the bin card shows a balance of 52. What is the most appropriate first action?

  1. Ignore the difference because small gaps are normal
  2. Issue the 40 tablets to the next patient and close the balance
  3. Immediately alter the bin card to show 40 and continue work
  4. Recount the tablets and review recent issue entries before recording a discrepancy Correct answer.

Explanation

A discrepancy may come from a counting error or an unrecorded issue, so a recount and a review of entries must come first. Only after verification should the difference be documented and reported. Simply overwriting the card hides the cause and destroys the audit trail.

Question 40Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

A box of vaccine vials shows a vaccine vial monitor (VVM) at stage 3 or 4. What should the pharmacy helper do?

  1. Discard the vials and record them as unusable, following cold-chain discard rules Correct answer.
  2. Move the vials to the freezer to restore the monitor
  3. Scratch the monitor off and dispense the vials normally
  4. Use the vials first because they are still cold

Explanation

A VVM at stage 3 or 4 indicates cumulative heat exposure likely to have damaged the vaccine, so the vials must not be used. They are discarded and the loss recorded according to cold-chain procedures. Freezing or removing the monitor does not restore potency.

Question 41Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

A prescription is written for 'Tab. Metformin 500 mg twice daily for 30 days'. How many tablets should be dispensed?

  1. 30 tablets
  2. 60 tablets Correct answer.
  3. 15 tablets
  4. 120 tablets

Explanation

Twice daily for 30 days means 2 tablets per day multiplied by 30 days, giving 60 tablets. Calculating the total quantity prevents both under-supply and excess stock leaving the store. Thirty tablets would cover only one tablet daily.

Question 42Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

Which action best protects light-sensitive drugs such as vitamin A and some injections during storage?

  1. Keep them in the original amber or opaque container and store away from direct light Correct answer.
  2. Store them on a window sill to keep them dry
  3. Transfer them into clear glass bottles for easy visibility
  4. Remove the outer carton to save shelf space

Explanation

Light-sensitive drugs are protected by the manufacturer's amber or opaque packaging, which filters harmful wavelengths. Storing them away from direct light further limits photodegradation. Clear containers, windows and removed cartons all increase light exposure.

Question 43Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

A vial of injection is kept in the PHC refrigerator. Where should it be placed to avoid freezing and maintain stability?

  1. In the door rack where temperature fluctuates most
  2. Against the inner back wall of the refrigerator
  3. Touching the freezer plate at the top of the unit
  4. In the main compartment away from the freezer plate and walls Correct answer.

Explanation

The main compartment keeps products within the 2 to 8 degrees Celsius range, while the freezer plate, back wall and door rack show extremes or fluctuation. Placing vials away from these zones prevents freezing or heat damage. Correct placement preserves potency.

Question 44Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

What is the correct handling of a drug batch that has reached its expiry date in the store?

  1. Issue it to patients at a reduced dose
  2. Mix it with valid stock to avoid wasting shelf space
  3. Segregate it in a clearly labelled expired-stock area and record it for disposal Correct answer.
  4. Return it to the active shelf so it can be issued first

Explanation

Expired stock must be removed from active shelves, quarantined with clear labelling and recorded for disposal according to protocol. This prevents accidental issue. Returning, mixing or issuing expired drugs risks patient harm and is not permitted.

Question 45Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

A helper receives 10 boxes of a drug but the delivery note lists 12 boxes. What is the correct stock-record action?

  1. Record the 10 boxes actually received and note the shortage against the delivery note Correct answer.
  2. Record 10 boxes and discard the delivery note
  3. Record 12 boxes as per the delivery note and adjust later
  4. Record 12 boxes and issue 2 boxes to cover the gap

Explanation

Stock records must reflect the physical count, so the 10 boxes received are entered and the shortfall is noted on the delivery note for follow-up. Recording the note quantity would create a false balance. Discarding the note removes evidence of the discrepancy.

Question 46Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

Which practice correctly supports the 'five rights' of dispensing during handover of medicine to a patient?

  1. Confirm the right patient, right drug, right dose, right route and right time Correct answer.
  2. Confirm only that the patient has paid for the medicine
  3. Confirm only the name of the drug on the packet
  4. Confirm the drug by its colour and shape alone

Explanation

The five rights are a standard safety check covering patient, drug, dose, route and time. Verifying all five before handover catches most dispensing errors. Payment status, packet name alone or appearance alone cannot confirm correct dispensing.

Question 47Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

Why should a pharmacy helper record the batch number when issuing a drug to a ward?

  1. To determine the patient's diagnosis
  2. To calculate the retail price of the drug
  3. To decide the dose for the patient
  4. To allow tracing of the batch if a recall or adverse reaction occurs Correct answer.

Explanation

Batch numbers link issued stock to a specific manufacturing lot, enabling rapid tracing in a recall or adverse-event investigation. Price, diagnosis and dose are unrelated to batch recording. Traceability is the core reason for recording it.

Question 48Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

A helper notices that the relative humidity in the store is very high during the rainy season. Which action best protects moisture-sensitive tablets?

  1. Store the tablets in the open on a wet floor
  2. Remove desiccant sachets from the containers
  3. Open all containers to let the air circulate
  4. Keep containers tightly closed and use a dry, ventilated storage area Correct answer.

Explanation

High humidity causes tablets to absorb moisture, cake or hydrolyse, so tight closures and a dry ventilated area are essential. Opening containers or removing desiccants increases moisture exposure. A wet floor directly adds humidity to the stock.

Question 49Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

Which entry correctly reflects an issue of 50 ampoules from a stock of 300 ampoules in the stock register?

  1. Issue column shows 250 and the balance becomes 50
  2. Receipt column shows 50 and the balance becomes 350
  3. Issue column shows 50 and the balance stays at 300
  4. Issue column shows 50 and the balance becomes 250 Correct answer.

Explanation

An issue reduces the stock, so the issue column records 50 and the new balance is 300 minus 50, that is 250. Posting the amount to the receipt column or leaving the balance unchanged misstates the stock. Reversing the figures would show the wrong quantity issued.

Question 50Pharmacy Helper Duties: Drug Storage, Dispensing Support and Stock Records

A prescription for a controlled drug appears altered, with the quantity changed. What should the helper do?

  1. Ask the patient to confirm the altered quantity and dispense
  2. Withhold supply and refer the prescription to the pharmacist or prescriber for verification Correct answer.
  3. Dispense the original quantity guessed from the alteration
  4. Dispense the altered quantity because the patient is waiting

Explanation

An altered controlled-drug prescription raises a legal and safety concern, so supply is withheld until the pharmacist or prescriber verifies it. Guessing or accepting the patient's word bypasses prescriber authority. Verification protects both the patient and the helper.