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Question 1General English
In the police parade report sentence 'Neither the constable nor the sub-inspectors ___ present at the parade', which verb correctly completes the blank?
- is
- was
- has been
- were Correct answer.
Explanation
With the correlative conjunction 'neither ... nor', the verb agrees with the subject that is nearer to it. Here the nearer subject is the plural noun 'sub-inspectors', so the plural past form 'were' is required. The parade is described as a past event, so present-tense forms such as 'is' and 'has been' do not fit the time reference.
Question 2General English
In police terminology, which word is the closest synonym of 'apprehend' in the sentence 'The team managed to apprehend the fleeing suspect'?
- pardon
- investigate
- arrest Correct answer.
- release
Explanation
To 'apprehend' a suspect means to seize or take that person into legal custody. In ordinary police usage, 'arrest' is the closest synonym because it also refers to taking a person into custody. 'Investigate' describes the process of gathering facts, while 'release' and 'pardon' describe the opposite of custody or legal forgiveness.
Question 3General English
Choose the correct article for the police-station sentence: 'The sub-inspector is ___ honest officer who records every complaint promptly.'
- the
- an Correct answer.
- no article
- a
Explanation
The article 'an' is used before a word that begins with a vowel sound. In 'honest', the letter 'h' is silent, so the word begins with the vowel sound /ɒ/, requiring 'an honest officer'. 'The' would point to one particular officer already identified in the context, which the sentence does not establish.
Question 4General English
Complete the police-procedure sentence with the correct preposition: 'The patrol team took the suspect ___ custody at the police station.'
- on
- under
- in
- into Correct answer.
Explanation
The fixed legal collocation is 'take someone into custody', which describes the act of placing a person under arrest or detention. 'In custody' describes the state of already being detained, but it does not follow the verb 'took' in this construction. 'On custody' and 'under custody' are not standard English expressions for this action.
Question 5General English
Choose the correct tense: 'The police ___ the stolen motorcycle before the owner reported the theft.'
- have recovered
- recover
- were recovering
- had recovered Correct answer.
Explanation
The past perfect tense 'had recovered' shows that the recovery was completed before another past action, namely the owner's report. The time sequence is therefore clear: recovery first, report later. Present perfect 'have recovered' links the action to the present and does not fit a sentence anchored in the past.
Question 6General English
What does the idiom 'to turn a blind eye' mean in the sentence 'The officer was accused of turning a blind eye to the illegal parking'?
- to lose eyesight temporarily
- to deliberately ignore wrongdoing Correct answer.
- to examine the matter very closely
- to punish the offender severely
Explanation
The idiom 'turn a blind eye' means to pretend not to notice something wrong and deliberately avoid taking action. In the sentence, the accusation is that the officer knowingly ignored illegal parking. It has no literal connection with eyesight and does not mean close examination or severe punishment.
Question 7General English
Which one-word substitution correctly describes 'a person who intentionally gives false evidence on oath'?
- philanthropist
- pedestrian
- plaintiff
- perjurer Correct answer.
Explanation
A 'perjurer' is a person who commits perjury by intentionally giving false testimony while under oath. This matches the definition exactly and is a standard legal term. A plaintiff files a civil suit, a pedestrian travels on foot, and a philanthropist promotes human welfare through donations.
Question 8General English
Choose the correct passive transformation of 'The inspector is interrogating the suspect in the record room.'
- The suspect is interrogated by the inspector in the record room.
- The suspect has been interrogated by the inspector in the record room.
- The suspect is being interrogated by the inspector in the record room. Correct answer.
- The suspect was being interrogated by the inspector in the record room.
Explanation
The active sentence uses the present continuous form 'is interrogating', so the passive must use 'is being interrogated'. The object 'the suspect' becomes the subject, and the agent is introduced with 'by the inspector'. The other options change the tense or aspect and therefore do not preserve the original meaning.
Question 9General English
Which sentence correctly uses the apostrophe in a police-report context?
- The constables' statements were recorded by the investigating officer. Correct answer.
- The constable's statements were recorded by the investigating officer's.
- The constable's' statements were recorded by the investigating officer.
- The constables statements' were recorded by the investigating officer.
Explanation
The apostrophe in 'constables'' marks the plural possessive: the statements belong to more than one constable, so the apostrophe follows the plural -s. No apostrophe is needed after 'officer' because 'by the investigating officer' is not possessive. The other options either add an unnecessary possessive or place the apostrophe incorrectly.
Question 10General English
Which spelling is correct in the sentence 'The department must ensure proper ___ of its case records'?
- maintenence
- maintenance Correct answer.
- maintainance
- maintanance
Explanation
The correct spelling is 'maintenance', with 'ten' in the middle syllable. It is the noun form meaning the process of keeping something in good condition, such as case records. The other spellings are common misspellings that do not appear in standard English dictionaries.
Question 11General English
Complete the police report sentence with the correct preposition: 'The complainant stated that he had been deprived ___ his mobile phone by two unidentified men.'
- of Correct answer.
- off
- from
- with
Explanation
The verb 'deprive' is followed by the preposition 'of' to indicate what was taken away from someone. The construction is 'deprived of something', not 'deprived from' or 'deprived with'. In a police report, this preposition is needed to show the loss clearly and grammatically.
Question 12General English
In the sentence 'The constable was in hot water after he lost the case file', what does the idiom 'in hot water' mean?
- in trouble Correct answer.
- extremely busy
- under medical care
- standing near a heater
Explanation
The idiom 'in hot water' means being in a difficult situation or in trouble, often because of a mistake or wrongdoing. Here, losing the case file has placed the constable in trouble with his superiors. The phrase is figurative and does not refer to actual heat, workload, or medical treatment.
Question 13General English
Which one-word substitution correctly describes a person who illegally enters a building to steal?
- arsonist
- burglar Correct answer.
- smuggler
- forger
Explanation
A burglar is a person who unlawfully enters a building with the intention of committing theft or another crime. The word is commonly used in police reports for house-breaking and theft cases. The other terms describe different offences and do not match illegal entry to steal.
Question 14General English
In the police report sentence 'The inspector denied to have received any illegal gratification from the accused', which part needs correction?
- any illegal gratification
- to have received Correct answer.
- from the accused
- denied
Explanation
The verb 'deny' is followed by a gerund or a 'that' clause, not by a perfect infinitive. The correct forms are 'denied having received' or 'denied that he had received'. Therefore, 'to have received' is the part that must be changed.
Question 15General English
Complete the sentence with the correct modal: 'The witness said the man ___ have entered the house, but she was not sure.'
- must
- would
- should
- might Correct answer.
Explanation
'Might have entered' expresses a possibility about a past event and matches the witness's uncertainty. 'Must have entered' would show strong certainty, which contradicts 'she was not sure'. 'Should have' and 'would have' express expectation or condition, not simple past possibility.
Question 16General English
Choose the correct verb form: 'By the time the reinforcement team arrived, the crowd ___ from the market area.'
- will disperse
- was dispersing
- has dispersed
- had dispersed Correct answer.
Explanation
The sentence describes an action completed before another past action, so the past perfect 'had dispersed' is required. 'By the time ... arrived' marks the later past event, while the crowd's dispersal happened earlier. The present perfect and future forms do not fit the past sequence.
Question 17General English
Choose the correct indirect speech: The constable said, 'I will submit the report tomorrow.'
- The constable says that he would submit the report the next day.
- The constable said that he would submit the report yesterday.
- The constable said he would submit the report the next day. Correct answer.
- The constable said that he will submit the report tomorrow.
Explanation
When the reporting verb is in the past ('said'), 'will' changes to 'would' and 'tomorrow' changes to 'the next day'. The reporting verb should also remain past-tense to match the original statement. Only the first option applies both changes correctly.
Question 18General English
Choose the word that best completes the legal sentence: 'The court found the accused ___ of murder after the eyewitness testified.'
- responsible
- culpable
- guilty Correct answer.
- liable
Explanation
In criminal law, a court finds an accused person 'guilty of' an offence after trial. 'Guilty of murder' is the standard legal collocation used in judgments and police reports. The other adjectives take different prepositions or are not used in this exact verdict formula.
Question 19General English
Which revision of the second half makes the police commendation sentence parallel: 'The officer was praised not only for his bravery but also because he showed presence of mind.'
- but also because of presence of mind
- but also for his presence of mind Correct answer.
- but also showing presence of mind
- but also he showed presence of mind
Explanation
The correlative pair 'not only ... but also' should join grammatically parallel elements. Since the first part is the prepositional phrase 'for his bravery', the second part should also be a prepositional phrase: 'for his presence of mind'. This keeps the structure balanced and formal.
Question 20General English
In police procedure, which sentence correctly explains the term 'cognizable offence'?
- A cognizable offence is tried only by the High Court in the first instance.
- A cognizable offence requires the accused to surrender before an FIR.
- Police may investigate a cognizable offence without a magistrate's order. Correct answer.
- A cognizable offence can be investigated only after a warrant is issued.
Explanation
A cognizable offence is one for which the police may register an FIR and investigate without the prior permission of a magistrate. It is a classification under criminal procedure, not a rule about High Court trials or mandatory surrender before registration. This is why police can act promptly in such cases.
Question 21General English
In a charge sheet, which preposition correctly completes the phrase 'charged ___ murder'?
- with Correct answer.
- for
- on
- of
Explanation
The verb 'charge' takes the preposition 'with' when naming an offence: a person is charged with murder, theft or conspiracy. The preposition 'of' is used with 'accused', as in 'accused of murder'.
Question 22General English
In the sentence 'The main accused absconded before the police could serve the warrant', the word 'absconded' means that the accused:
- fled to avoid arrest Correct answer.
- confessed during interrogation
- returned the stolen property
- surrendered before the magistrate
Explanation
'Abscond' means to leave the jurisdiction or hide oneself, especially to avoid arrest or legal process. It does not imply surrender, confession or returning property.
Question 23General English
Choose the correct verb to complete the police deployment sentence: 'The constable, along with two home guards, ___ deployed at the checkpoint.'
- have been
- were
- are
- was Correct answer.
Explanation
The true subject of the sentence is the singular noun 'constable'. The phrase 'along with two home guards' is parenthetical and does not change the verb, so the singular 'was' is required.
Question 24General English
Which revision correctly removes the dangling modifier in 'While checking the seized vehicle, a pistol was found under the seat'?
- While checking the seized vehicle, a pistol was found under the seat.
- While checking the seized vehicle, the officer found a pistol under the seat. Correct answer.
- While checking the seized vehicle, there was a pistol found under the seat.
- While checking the seized vehicle, a pistol had been found under the seat.
Explanation
An introductory participial phrase must describe the subject of the main clause. A pistol cannot check a vehicle, so the subject of the main clause must be the officer who performed the check.
Question 25General English
During interrogation, the suspect finally ___ and admitted his role in the theft. Choose the correct phrasal verb.
- broke down Correct answer.
- broke off
- broke out
- broke in
Explanation
'Break down' means to lose composure and give in emotionally; in this context it means the suspect stopped resisting and confessed. The other phrasal verbs describe entering forcibly, starting suddenly or ending abruptly.
Question 26General English
Which one-word substitution correctly describes 'a person who deliberately damages or destroys public property'?
- vandal Correct answer.
- trespasser
- arsonist
- burglar
Explanation
A vandal deliberately defaces or destroys property, often public property. A burglar steals from a building, an arsonist sets fire to property, and a trespasser enters land without permission.
Question 27General English
Choose the word most opposite in meaning to 'lenient' as used in 'The court took a lenient view of the young offender's conduct'.
- merciful
- generous
- strict Correct answer.
- tolerant
Explanation
'Lenient' means showing tolerance or mercy rather than severe punishment, so its opposite is 'strict'. 'Merciful' and 'tolerant' are close in meaning to lenient, not opposite.
Question 28General English
Choose the correct completion: 'If the constable had acted promptly, the suspect ___ escaped through the rear gate.'
- would not
- would not have Correct answer.
- had not
- will not have
Explanation
This is a third conditional sentence: 'if' plus the past perfect is followed by 'would have' plus the past participle. The completed form is 'would not have escaped'.
Question 29General English
Which version correctly places the adverb in the sentence about the police response?
- The officer had reached the spot hardly when the crowd dispersed.
- The officer had reached hardly the spot when the crowd dispersed.
- The officer hardly had reached the spot when the crowd dispersed.
- The officer had hardly reached the spot when the crowd dispersed. Correct answer.
Explanation
In the fixed pattern 'hardly ... when', 'hardly' normally follows the auxiliary 'had' and precedes the main verb 'reached'. This gives 'had hardly reached'.
Question 30General English
Which Latin phrase used in legal English means 'the thing speaks for itself' and allows negligence to be inferred from the facts?
- mens rea
- res ipsa loquitur Correct answer.
- actus reus
- habeas corpus
Explanation
'Res ipsa loquitur' literally means 'the thing speaks for itself'; it is applied when the nature of an accident itself suggests negligence. 'Mens rea' is the guilty mind, 'actus reus' is the guilty act, and 'habeas corpus' is a writ requiring a detained person to be produced.
Question 31General Awareness and Current Affairs
The right to move the Supreme Court of India directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is guaranteed by which Article of the Constitution?
- Article 19
- Article 44
- Article 32 Correct answer.
- Article 21
Explanation
Article 32 makes the Supreme Court the guarantor of Fundamental Rights by allowing a citizen to petition it directly for writs such as habeas corpus and mandamus. Dr B. R. Ambedkar described this provision as the heart and soul of the Constitution because without an enforcement mechanism the other rights would be hollow.
Question 32General Awareness and Current Affairs
Which mountain pass carries the main road link between the Kashmir Valley and the Ladakh region?
- Banihal Pass
- Mohan Pass
- Lipulekh Pass
- Zoji La Correct answer.
Explanation
Zoji La lies in the Zanskar range on the Srinagar-Leh highway and is the traditional gateway from the Kashmir Valley into Ladakh, remaining closed for long spells in winter because of heavy snow. Banihal Pass serves the Jammu-Srinagar route, while the other passes lie outside the union territory.
Question 33General Awareness and Current Affairs
Which of the following is the highest civilian award conferred by the Republic of India?
- Bharat Ratna Correct answer.
- Param Vir Chakra
- Padma Bhushan
- Padma Vibhushan
Explanation
The Bharat Ratna, instituted in 1954, is the highest civilian honour and is given for exceptional service or performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. The Padma Vibhushan ranks second in the civilian order, and the Param Vir Chakra belongs to the military category of gallantry awards.
Question 34General Awareness and Current Affairs
The committee constituted by the British government to inquire into the Jallianwala Bagh firing of 1919 was headed by whom?
- Sir John Rowlatt
- Lord Simon
- Lord Chelmsford
- Lord Hunter Correct answer.
Explanation
The Disorders Inquiry Committee, better known as the Hunter Commission, was appointed in 1919 under Lord Hunter to examine the Punjab disturbances including the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. Its findings were widely criticised in India for being lenient towards General Dyer, which deepened nationalist anger.
Question 35General Awareness and Current Affairs
In Indian monetary policy, the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends short-term funds to commercial banks against the pledge of government securities is known as the:
- repo rate Correct answer.
- cash reserve ratio
- reverse repo rate
- marginal standing facility rate
Explanation
The repo rate is the policy rate at which banks borrow overnight or short-term funds from the Reserve Bank by selling government securities with an agreement to repurchase them. A rise in the repo rate raises banks' cost of funds and is used to tighten liquidity and contain inflation.
Question 36General Awareness and Current Affairs
Deficiency of iodine in the diet is the most common cause of which of the following disorders?
- Scurvy
- Night blindness
- Goitre Correct answer.
- Rickets
Explanation
Iodine is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, and its deficiency causes the thyroid gland to enlarge, producing goitre; in pregnant women and children it can also impair growth and mental development. India's universal salt iodisation programme was launched specifically to prevent this disorder.
Question 37General Awareness and Current Affairs
The touchdown site of the Chandrayaan-3 lander on the Moon has been named:
- Vikram Point
- Tiranga Point
- Shiv Shakti Point Correct answer.
- Jawahar Sthal
Explanation
The landing site of the Chandrayaan-3 Vikram lander near the lunar south pole was designated Shiv Shakti Point in August 2023, and the International Astronomical Union later approved the name Statio Shiv Shakti. Tiranga Point marks the Chandrayaan-2 impact site, and the two names were announced together.
Question 38General Awareness and Current Affairs
The doctrine of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution was laid down by the Supreme Court in which case?
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.
- Golaknath v. State of Punjab
- A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
- Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Explanation
In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) a thirteen-judge bench held that Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure, such as supremacy of the Constitution, secularism and judicial review. The doctrine has since been used to strike down amendments that damage these essential features.
Question 39General Awareness and Current Affairs
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh consists of which districts?
- Leh and Kargil Correct answer.
- Kargil and Doda
- Leh and Anantnag
- Kargil and Baramulla
Explanation
The Act carved out the Union Territory of Ladakh from the two districts of Leh and Kargil, and it is a union territory without a legislature. The remaining districts formed the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, which has a legislative assembly.
Question 40General Awareness and Current Affairs
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
- Nine
- Six
- Seven
- Eight Correct answer.
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer crosses eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. It passes roughly through the middle of the country, which is why most of India lies in the tropical zone.
Question 41General Awareness and Current Affairs
Which river is known as the lifeline of the Kashmir Valley and flows through Srinagar?
- Ravi
- Beas
- Chenab
- Jhelum Correct answer.
Explanation
The Jhelum rises in the Pir Panjal range and flows through the Kashmir Valley past Srinagar before entering Pakistan. It is often called the lifeline of the valley because its waters support agriculture and settlement. The Chenab, Ravi and Beas are separate rivers of the Indus system.
Question 42General Awareness and Current Affairs
The provisions relating to disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?
- Tenth Schedule Correct answer.
- Ninth Schedule
- Eighth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
Explanation
The Tenth Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1985, lays down the anti-defection rules. It empowers the presiding officer of the House to decide disqualification petitions. The Ninth, Eighth and Sixth Schedules deal with other subjects.
Question 43General Awareness and Current Affairs
The 2024 Summer Olympic Games were held in which city?
- Paris Correct answer.
- Los Angeles
- Brisbane
- Tokyo
Explanation
The 2024 Summer Olympics were held in Paris, France, from 26 July to 11 August 2024. Tokyo hosted the 2020 Games, while Los Angeles and Brisbane are future hosts. Paris had last hosted the Summer Games in 1924.
Question 44General Awareness and Current Affairs
Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States is provided under which Article of the Constitution?
- Article 169 Correct answer.
- Article 170
- Article 171
- Article 168
Explanation
Article 169 empowers Parliament to create or abolish a State Legislative Council if the State Assembly passes a resolution by a special majority. Article 171 deals with the composition of the Council, while Articles 168 and 170 deal with State Legislatures and Assembly composition.
Question 45General Awareness and Current Affairs
Which constitutional body recommends the principles governing the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States?
- Finance Commission Correct answer.
- Comptroller and Auditor General
- NITI Aayog
- Reserve Bank of India
Explanation
The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 every five years. It recommends how net tax proceeds should be shared between the Union and States and also principles for grants-in-aid. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, while the RBI and CAG have other functions.
Question 46General Awareness and Current Affairs
The Green Revolution in India was most successful in increasing the production of which crop?
- Jute
- Tea
- Wheat Correct answer.
- Cotton
Explanation
The Green Revolution of the 1960s and 1970s used high-yielding wheat varieties, irrigation and fertilisers to raise output, especially in Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh. Wheat was the crop most transformed, although rice also gained later. Jute, cotton and tea were not the central crops of the programme.
Question 47General Awareness and Current Affairs
In the context of India's defence programme, 'Tejas' refers to a:
- main battle tank
- long-range missile
- light combat aircraft Correct answer.
- nuclear-powered submarine
Explanation
Tejas is a single-engine, multi-role light combat aircraft designed by DRDO and built by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited. It was inducted into the Indian Air Force to replace ageing MiG-series fighters. It is not a submarine, tank or missile.
Question 48General Awareness and Current Affairs
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, passed by Parliament in 2023, provides for reservation of seats for women in which bodies?
- Panchayats and municipal bodies
- Only the Lok Sabha
- Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils
- Lok Sabha and State Assemblies Correct answer.
Explanation
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam is the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 2023. It reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and in State Legislative Assemblies, including seats reserved for SCs and STs. It does not apply to the Rajya Sabha or State Legislative Councils, and implementation is linked to delimitation.
Question 49General Awareness and Current Affairs
The Battle of Saragarhi, in which 21 soldiers of the 36th Sikhs fought against a much larger force, was fought in which year?
- 1919
- 1947
- 1857
- 1897 Correct answer.
Explanation
The Battle of Saragarhi was fought on 12 September 1897 between 21 soldiers of the 36th Sikh Regiment and a much larger Afghan tribal force. The soldiers defended the Saragarhi post in the North-West Frontier Province. The event is commemorated by the Indian Army.
Question 50General Awareness and Current Affairs
India's first satellite, Aryabhata, was launched in which year?
- 1983
- 1969
- 1975 Correct answer.
- 1980
Explanation
Aryabhata was India's first satellite and was launched on 19 April 1975 from Kapustin Yar in the Soviet Union. It was built by ISRO to conduct experiments in X-ray astronomy and atmospheric studies. Later Indian satellites included Rohini and APPLE.