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Question 1General Knowledge / General Studies

The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares the source of the Constitution's authority to be which of the following?

  1. The Parliament of India
  2. The President of India
  3. The Constituent Assembly of India
  4. The people of India Correct answer.

Explanation

The Preamble opens with "We, the People of India", which expresses that sovereignty and the authority of the Constitution derive from the people themselves, not from any legislature or office-holder. The Constituent Assembly framed the Constitution but is not named as the source of its authority in the Preamble.

Question 2General Knowledge / General Studies

Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability?

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 16
  3. Article 17 Correct answer.
  4. Article 18

Explanation

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making the enforcement of any disability arising from it an offence punishable by law. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 gives effect to this constitutional mandate.

Question 3General Knowledge / General Studies

The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states of India?

  1. Odisha
  2. Rajasthan Correct answer.
  3. Kerala
  4. Maharashtra

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer crosses eight Indian states, including Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. It runs through the southern part of Rajasthan, near Banswara and Dungarpur.

Question 4General Knowledge / General Studies

Which Mughal emperor is credited with building the Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri?

  1. Babur
  2. Humayun
  3. Shah Jahan
  4. Akbar Correct answer.

Explanation

Akbar built the Buland Darwaza around 1575 to commemorate his victory over Gujarat, and it forms the monumental gateway to the Jama Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri. It is among the tallest gateways in the world.

Question 5General Knowledge / General Studies

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were inserted into the Constitution of India by which constitutional amendment?

  1. 24th Amendment
  2. 42nd Amendment Correct answer.
  3. 44th Amendment
  4. 52nd Amendment

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added Part IVA (Article 51A) listing Fundamental Duties, following the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. A tenth duty was later added by the 86th Amendment in 2002.

Question 6General Knowledge / General Studies

Which is the largest gland in the human body?

  1. Liver Correct answer.
  2. Thyroid gland
  3. Pituitary gland
  4. Pancreas

Explanation

The liver is the largest gland and the largest internal organ in the human body, weighing roughly 1.5 kilograms in adults. It performs metabolic, detoxifying and bile-secreting functions.

Question 7General Knowledge / General Studies

Bharatanatyam, one of the classical dance forms of India, originated in which state?

  1. Karnataka
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Kerala
  4. Tamil Nadu Correct answer.

Explanation

Bharatanatyam developed in Tamil Nadu and is rooted in the temple dance tradition of the region, with codified hand gestures, expressions and rhythmic footwork. It is one of the eight classical dance forms recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

Question 8General Knowledge / General Studies

Which body prepares and presents the Economic Survey of India before the Union Budget?

  1. Ministry of Finance Correct answer.
  2. Reserve Bank of India
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Explanation

The Economic Survey is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs under the Ministry of Finance and is tabled in Parliament before the Union Budget. It reviews the economy's performance over the year and offers policy perspectives.

Question 9General Knowledge / General Studies

Which writ is issued by a court to a public authority commanding it to perform a public duty that it has failed to perform?

  1. Mandamus Correct answer.
  2. Habeas Corpus
  3. Certiorari
  4. Quo Warranto

Explanation

Mandamus literally means "we command" and directs a public authority to perform a legal duty it has refused or failed to perform. It cannot normally be issued against a private individual or against the President or a Governor in their personal capacity.

Question 10General Knowledge / General Studies

In the Indian Constitution, the concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from which country?

  1. Canada
  2. United States of America
  3. Ireland Correct answer.
  4. Australia

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by the Irish Constitution, which in turn drew on Spanish constitutional practice. The framers adapted them to set socio-economic goals for the state, though they are not directly enforceable in courts.

Question 11General Knowledge / General Studies

Consider a state where the Governor reserves a bill for the consideration of the President. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following best describes the President's options in such a case?

  1. The President can only withhold assent and cannot return the bill
  2. The President must refer the bill to the Supreme Court first
  3. The President may give assent, withhold assent, or direct the Governor to return the bill for reconsideration Correct answer.
  4. The President must give assent within six months

Explanation

Under Article 201, when a bill is reserved for the President's consideration, the President may assent to it, withhold assent, or direct the Governor to return it to the state legislature for reconsideration. If the legislature passes it again, the President is not bound to give assent.

Question 12General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is a Kharif crop in India?

  1. Barley
  2. Wheat
  3. Cotton Correct answer.
  4. Mustard

Explanation

Kharif crops are sown with the onset of the monsoon around June and harvested in autumn; cotton, rice, maize, jowar and bajra belong to this group. Wheat, mustard and barley are Rabi crops grown in the cooler winter season.

Question 13General Knowledge / General Studies

The Ryotwari system of land revenue, introduced in parts of British India, was primarily associated with which official?

  1. Lord Dalhousie
  2. Warren Hastings
  3. Lord Cornwallis
  4. Thomas Munro Correct answer.

Explanation

The Ryotwari settlement, under which revenue was assessed directly on individual cultivators (ryots), is chiefly associated with Thomas Munro in the Madras Presidency and Alexander Read. It was later extended to Bombay and other areas.

Question 14General Knowledge / General Studies

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation?

  1. Stratosphere Correct answer.
  2. Thermosphere
  3. Troposphere
  4. Mesosphere

Explanation

The ozone layer lies mainly in the stratosphere, roughly 15 to 35 kilometres above the surface, where ozone molecules absorb harmful ultraviolet radiation. This absorption also warms the stratosphere and protects life on Earth.

Question 15General Knowledge / General Studies

Who founded the Servants of India Society in 1905?

  1. Lala Lajpat Rai
  2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale Correct answer.
  3. Bipin Chandra Pal
  4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation

Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in Pune in 1905 to train national missionaries for the service of India through education and social reform. He was a moderate leader and mentor to Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 16General Knowledge / General Studies

A bill introduced in Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 requires which special majority for passage?

  1. A majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting Correct answer.
  2. A two-thirds majority of members present and voting in the Lok Sabha only
  3. A simple majority of members present and voting
  4. A unanimous vote of both Houses

Explanation

Article 368 requires a constitutional amendment bill to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Certain amendments affecting federal provisions also need ratification by at least half the state legislatures.

Question 17General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of the Indian monsoon as generally described in the advance of the monsoon over the country?

  1. Kerala coast, then Karnataka and Maharashtra, then central India and finally the northwest Correct answer.
  2. Northwest India, then central India, then the peninsula and finally Kerala
  3. West Bengal, then Odisha, then Tamil Nadu and finally Gujarat
  4. Tamil Nadu, then Kerala, then Gujarat and finally Assam

Explanation

The southwest monsoon normally sets in over the Kerala coast around the first week of June and advances northward, covering Karnataka and Maharashtra, then central India, and finally reaching northwest India by around the end of June or early July. The withdrawal begins from northwest India in September.

Question 18General Knowledge / General Studies

In the context of the Indian Constitution, what does the term 'federal character with a unitary bias' refer to?

  1. A system in which states have the right to secede
  2. A system with a division of powers but with provisions such as a strong Centre, single citizenship and emergency powers that strengthen the Union Correct answer.
  3. A system in which the states appoint the Governor
  4. A system where the Centre cannot legislate on state subjects under any circumstance

Explanation

The Indian Constitution divides powers between the Union and states but also includes features that tilt power towards the Centre, such as a single citizenship, an integrated judiciary, emergency provisions, and Union control over the appointment of Governors. This mix is why it is often described as federal in form with a strong unitary bias.

Question 19General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following pairs of classical dance form and its state of origin is correctly matched?

  1. Kuchipudi - Tamil Nadu
  2. Sattriya - Manipur
  3. Kathakali - Karnataka
  4. Odissi - Odisha Correct answer.

Explanation

Odissi is the classical dance form of Odisha, known for its tribhanga posture and sculpturesque poses. Sattriya belongs to Assam, Kathakali to Kerala, and Kuchipudi to Andhra Pradesh.

Question 20General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following describes the role of the Finance Commission of India?

  1. It regulates the banking sector and sets interest rates
  2. It recommends the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the states and grants-in-aid to states Correct answer.
  3. It conducts audits of government accounts
  4. It prepares the Union Budget every year

Explanation

Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission constituted every five years, which recommends how net tax proceeds are shared between the Union and states and the principles governing grants-in-aid to states. It does not prepare the Budget, regulate banks or audit accounts.

Question 21General Knowledge / General Studies

In the Indian Constitution, which of the following is a constitutional body?

  1. NITI Aayog
  2. Central Vigilance Commission
  3. Union Public Service Commission Correct answer.
  4. Central Bureau of Investigation

Explanation

The Union Public Service Commission is established under Article 315 of the Constitution and is a constitutional body. NITI Aayog, the Central Vigilance Commission and the CBI are created by executive resolution or statute, not directly by the Constitution.

Question 22General Knowledge / General Studies

The 'Doctrine of Basic Structure' was propounded by the Supreme Court in which case?

  1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  2. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  3. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct answer.
  4. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Explanation

In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a thirteen-judge bench held that Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot destroy its basic structure. This doctrine was developed further in later cases such as Minerva Mills.

Question 23General Knowledge / General Studies

A person is arrested under a state law that appears to violate Article 21. Which combination of writ and constitutional provision would most directly address the legality of the detention?

  1. A writ of mandamus under Article 32 seeking performance of a duty by the police
  2. A writ of prohibition under Article 32 restraining the trial court from proceeding
  3. A writ of habeas corpus under Article 32 or Article 226 challenging the legality of the detention Correct answer.
  4. A writ of quo warranto under Article 226 questioning the authority of the arresting officer

Explanation

Habeas corpus is the appropriate writ to test the legality of a person's detention, and it can be sought before the Supreme Court under Article 32 or a High Court under Article 226. The court examines whether the detention has a lawful basis and complies with the procedure established by law.

Question 24General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following statements about the ordinance-making power of the President under Article 123 is correct?

  1. An ordinance can be issued only when both Houses of Parliament are in session
  2. An ordinance can amend the Constitution
  3. An ordinance once issued becomes a permanent law and need not be approved by Parliament
  4. An ordinance must be laid before Parliament and ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved Correct answer.

Explanation

Under Article 123, the President may promulgate an ordinance when Parliament is not in session and immediate action is necessary. It must be laid before Parliament and ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament unless approved earlier, and it cannot be used to amend the Constitution.

Question 25General Knowledge / General Studies

Consider a bill passed by a state legislature that conflicts with an earlier law made by Parliament on a subject in the Concurrent List. If the state law has not received the President's assent, which law prevails?

  1. The state law prevails because it was passed later
  2. Both laws operate simultaneously without conflict
  3. The Union law prevails, and the state law is void to the extent of repugnancy Correct answer.
  4. The matter is decided by the Governor of the state

Explanation

Under Article 254(1), if a state law is repugnant to an earlier Union law on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails and the state law is void to the extent of the repugnancy. Article 254(2) allows the state law to prevail only if it was reserved for and received the President's assent.

Question 26General Knowledge / General Studies

Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?

  1. Article 19
  2. Article 17 Correct answer.
  3. Article 23
  4. Article 15

Explanation

Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, and the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 gives it effect. Article 15 prohibits discrimination, Article 19 lists freedoms and Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour.

Question 27General Knowledge / General Studies

The Battle of Plassey in 1757 was fought between the British East India Company and the forces of which Nawab of Bengal?

  1. Mir Qasim
  2. Alivardi Khan
  3. Murshid Quli Khan
  4. Siraj-ud-Daulah Correct answer.

Explanation

Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah at Plassey in 1757, which established Company political power in Bengal. Alivardi Khan was Siraj-ud-Daulah's grandfather and predecessor, Mir Qasim came later, and Murshid Quli Khan was an earlier founder of the Bengal Nawabi.

Question 28General Knowledge / General Studies

Which planet in the solar system has the shortest period of revolution around the Sun?

  1. Earth
  2. Mercury Correct answer.
  3. Mars
  4. Venus

Explanation

Mercury orbits closest to the Sun and completes one revolution in about 88 Earth days, the shortest of any planet. Venus takes about 225 days, Earth about 365 days and Mars about 687 days.

Question 29General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is the currency of Japan?

  1. Won
  2. Ringgit
  3. Yuan
  4. Yen Correct answer.

Explanation

The yen is the official currency of Japan. The won belongs to South Korea, the yuan to China and the ringgit to Malaysia.

Question 30General Knowledge / General Studies

Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy, characterised by bleeding gums and poor wound healing?

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin C Correct answer.
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Vitamin D

Explanation

Scurvy results from a deficiency of vitamin C (ascorbic acid), needed for collagen synthesis. Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness, B12 deficiency causes pernicious anaemia and vitamin D deficiency causes rickets.

Question 31General Knowledge / General Studies

The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located in which city?

  1. New York
  2. Paris
  3. Vienna
  4. Geneva Correct answer.

Explanation

The WTO, established in 1995, is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. New York hosts the UN headquarters, Paris hosts UNESCO and the OECD, and Vienna hosts the IAEA and UNIDO.

Question 32General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is the longest river flowing entirely within India?

  1. Godavari Correct answer.
  2. Narmada
  3. Ganga
  4. Krishna

Explanation

The Godavari, about 1,465 km long, is the longest river that lies wholly within Indian territory and is often called the Dakshin Ganga. The Ganga is longer but flows into Bangladesh, while the Narmada and Krishna are shorter.

Question 33General Knowledge / General Studies

The Rowlatt Act of 1919 is best described by which of the following features?

  1. It allowed detention without trial for a defined short period only
  2. It introduced separate electorates for religious communities
  3. It abolished the Salt Tax throughout British India
  4. It empowered authorities to detain suspects without trial and try them in camera Correct answer.

Explanation

The Rowlatt Act allowed arrest and detention without trial and permitted trials in camera, which provoked nationwide protest and Gandhi's first all-India satyagraha. Separate electorates were introduced by the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909, and the Salt Tax was not abolished by this Act.

Question 34General Knowledge / General Studies

Consider a situation where the President of India returns a non-money bill to Parliament with a message. Which statement correctly describes the constitutional position?

  1. The bill is automatically referred to the Supreme Court
  2. The President must give assent if Parliament passes it again without amendment Correct answer.
  3. Parliament must amend the bill before resubmission
  4. The bill lapses and must be reintroduced as a fresh bill

Explanation

Under Article 111, if Parliament passes a non-money bill again and sends it to the President, the President is bound to give assent; the suspensive veto can be used only once. There is no requirement of amendment, the bill does not lapse, and no automatic reference to the Supreme Court arises.

Question 35General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the atmosphere from the Earth's surface upward?

  1. Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere Correct answer.
  2. Mesosphere, troposphere, stratosphere, thermosphere
  3. Stratosphere, troposphere, thermosphere, mesosphere
  4. Troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere

Explanation

The atmosphere is layered by temperature behaviour: the troposphere lies nearest the surface, followed by the stratosphere, mesosphere and thermosphere. Weather occurs in the troposphere, the ozone layer sits in the stratosphere, and meteors burn up in the mesosphere.

Question 36General Knowledge / General Studies

A state government wishes to create a new All India Service. Which of the following is constitutionally required?

  1. An executive order of the Governor approved by the Chief Justice of India
  2. A resolution passed by the state legislature and a law of Parliament Correct answer.
  3. A resolution of the Inter-State Council ratified by a majority of states
  4. A recommendation of the Finance Commission approved by the President

Explanation

Article 312 permits Parliament to create new All India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting, and the law may also apply to a state only if its legislature so resolves. The Finance Commission, Inter-State Council and the judiciary play no such role.

Question 37General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following statements about the Indian Ocean Dipole and its effect on Indian monsoon rainfall is correct?

  1. A negative dipole warms the eastern Indian Ocean and strengthens the monsoon
  2. A positive dipole always causes drought in the Indian subcontinent
  3. The dipole has no measurable influence on the monsoon
  4. A positive dipole generally strengthens monsoon rainfall over India Correct answer.

Explanation

A positive Indian Ocean Dipole involves warmer waters in the western Indian Ocean and cooler waters near Indonesia, which generally enhances monsoon rainfall over India. A negative dipole shows the reverse pattern and is often associated with weaker rainfall.

Question 38General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following correctly describes a money bill under Article 110 of the Constitution?

  1. It may be introduced in either House without any recommendation
  2. It may be introduced in either House on the recommendation of the President
  3. It may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President Correct answer.
  4. It may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha on the recommendation of the Vice-President

Explanation

A money bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha may consider it but cannot amend or reject it, and its recommendations are not binding.

Question 39General Knowledge / General Studies

The Permanent Settlement of 1793 was introduced by Lord Cornwallis primarily in which region?

  1. Punjab
  2. Bengal and Bihar Correct answer.
  3. Bombay Presidency
  4. Madras Presidency

Explanation

The Permanent Settlement fixed land revenue in perpetuity with zamindars in Bengal and Bihar. Madras and Bombay were largely under the ryotwari system, and Punjab came under British rule much later with a different revenue arrangement.

Question 40General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is a constitutional body in India?

  1. NITI Aayog
  2. Union Public Service Commission Correct answer.
  3. Central Vigilance Commission
  4. National Human Rights Commission

Explanation

The UPSC is established under Article 315 of the Constitution and is therefore a constitutional body. NITI Aayog is an executive body, the CVC is a statutory body under the CVC Act 2003, and the NHRC is statutory under the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993.

Question 41General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following correctly pairs a classical dance form with its state of origin?

  1. Odissi - Odisha Correct answer.
  2. Kathakali - Tamil Nadu
  3. Kuchipudi - Kerala
  4. Manipuri - Assam

Explanation

Odissi is the classical dance form of Odisha, known for its tribhangi posture and temple tradition. Kathakali belongs to Kerala, Kuchipudi to Andhra Pradesh and Manipuri to Manipur.

Question 42General Knowledge / General Studies

The Panchayati Raj system was given constitutional status by which amendment?

  1. 86th Amendment
  2. 44th Amendment
  3. 42nd Amendment
  4. 73rd Amendment Correct answer.

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule, giving constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. The 42nd and 44th dealt with other changes, and the 86th dealt with education.

Question 43General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the water cycle after precipitation falls on land?

  1. Evaporation, infiltration, condensation, runoff
  2. Runoff, condensation, infiltration, evaporation
  3. Condensation, evaporation, infiltration, runoff
  4. Infiltration, runoff, evaporation, condensation Correct answer.

Explanation

After precipitation, water infiltrates soil or moves as surface runoff, then returns to the atmosphere through evaporation and transpiration, and condenses to form clouds before precipitating again. The other sequences place condensation or evaporation before the water reaches the ground.

Question 44General Knowledge / General Studies

Consider a person who is detained under a preventive detention law. Which constitutional safeguard applies to such detention?

  1. The person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours under Article 22(2)
  2. The person has an absolute right to be released on bail by a magistrate
  3. The detention cannot exceed three months without the opinion of an advisory board Correct answer.
  4. The person must be tried by a special tribunal within one month

Explanation

Article 22(4) provides that preventive detention beyond three months requires the opinion of an advisory board. The 24-hour production rule in Article 22(2) applies to punitive arrest, not preventive detention, and there is no automatic bail or one-month tribunal rule.

Question 45General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following is the main function of the Reserve Bank of India's Monetary Policy Committee?

  1. To regulate foreign direct investment approvals
  2. To fix the exchange rate of the rupee against the dollar
  3. To approve the Union Budget before Parliament
  4. To set the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target Correct answer.

Explanation

The six-member Monetary Policy Committee, constituted under the RBI Act, sets the policy repo rate to keep consumer price inflation near the target of 4 per cent with a band of plus or minus 2 per cent. Exchange rate management, budget approval and FDI approvals lie elsewhere.

Question 46General Knowledge / General Studies

The doctrine of 'parens patriae' is most closely associated with which field of Indian law?

  1. Law of torts
  2. Law of contracts
  3. Company law
  4. Juvenile justice and child welfare Correct answer.

Explanation

Parens patriae means the state acting as guardian of persons unable to protect themselves, and it underpins juvenile justice and child welfare legislation in India. It is not a contract, tort or company law doctrine.

Question 47General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law in India is correct?

  1. A member disqualified under the Tenth Schedule can be appointed a minister immediately
  2. The Speaker's decision on disqualification is subject to judicial review Correct answer.
  3. A member who resigns from the party loses membership of the House automatically
  4. The Tenth Schedule applies only to members of the Rajya Sabha

Explanation

The Supreme Court has held that the Speaker's decision under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review, though courts generally avoid interfering with the merits of the decision. A disqualified member cannot become a minister, the Schedule applies to both Houses and state legislatures, and resignation from a party does not by itself terminate membership of the House.

Question 48General Knowledge / General Studies

Consider the following: a treaty signed by India requires implementation through legislation. Which statement about the treaty-making power is constitutionally correct?

  1. The President may ratify treaties without any parliamentary involvement, but rights-affecting treaties need legislation Correct answer.
  2. All treaties must be ratified by a two-thirds majority of both Houses of Parliament
  3. Treaties affecting the Constitution can be implemented by executive order alone
  4. The Supreme Court must approve every treaty before ratification

Explanation

Under the Constitution, treaty-making is an executive function exercised in the name of the President under Article 53, but treaties that affect private rights or require changes in law need parliamentary legislation. There is no general requirement of a two-thirds ratification, no executive implementation of constitutional changes, and no mandatory judicial approval.

Question 49General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following best explains why the Indian Constitution is described as having a 'blend of rigidity and flexibility'?

  1. Amendment is possible only through a referendum
  2. All provisions require ratification by half the state legislatures
  3. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority while others need special majorities Correct answer.
  4. All provisions can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament

Explanation

Article 368 provides different procedures: some articles can be amended by a simple parliamentary majority, others need a special majority, and federal provisions also need ratification by half the state legislatures. This graded procedure gives the Constitution both flexible and rigid features.

Question 50General Knowledge / General Studies

Which of the following statements about the 'Doctrine of Pleasure' in Indian administrative law is correct?

  1. Article 311 imposes procedural safeguards on dismissal, removal and reduction in rank Correct answer.
  2. It applies without restriction to civil servants under Article 310
  3. It can be invoked without any inquiry in all cases of misconduct
  4. It applies only to members of the All India Services

Explanation

Although Article 310 provides that civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President or Governor, Article 311 restricts this by requiring an inquiry and a reasonable opportunity of being heard before dismissal, removal or reduction in rank. The doctrine therefore operates subject to constitutional safeguards.