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NCAA Cabin Crew Member Exam study materials
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NCAA Cabin Crew Member Exam practice questions

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Question 1Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

At a cabin altitude of approximately 35,000 ft, the time of useful consciousness after a rapid decompression is about:

  1. 20 to 30 minutes
  2. 30 to 60 seconds Correct answer.
  3. 10 to 15 minutes
  4. 3 to 5 minutes

Explanation

Time of useful consciousness falls sharply as altitude increases; at 35,000 ft a person retains only about half a minute to a minute of useful awareness. Oxygen must therefore be donned immediately rather than after assisting others.

Question 2Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

When the cabin loses pressure and the oxygen masks deploy, what should a cabin crew member do first?

  1. Don and secure their own mask Correct answer.
  2. Go to the flight deck to assist the pilots
  3. Help the nearest passenger secure a mask
  4. Make a PA announcement to the cabin

Explanation

Crew must secure their own oxygen supply first so they remain conscious and capable of assisting others. A crew member who becomes hypoxic cannot help passengers and becomes a casualty themselves.

Question 3Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

The 90-second evacuation certification standard requires that a transport category aircraft be shown capable of:

  1. Evacuating all occupants through all exits within 90 seconds
  2. Evacuating all occupants using half the available exits within 90 seconds Correct answer.
  3. Completing the passenger emergency briefing within 90 seconds
  4. Inflating every slide within 90 seconds

Explanation

Certification demonstrations are run with half the exits unusable to simulate a realistic accident in which some exits are blocked. The full load of occupants must be evacuated within 90 seconds under those conditions.

Question 4Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

The main purpose of the brace position is to:

  1. Prevent passengers from leaving their seats early
  2. Keep passengers calm during the impact sequence
  3. Allow passengers to keep the exits in view
  4. Reduce flailing and secondary impact injuries Correct answer.

Explanation

Bracing holds the body firmly against a solid surface so it moves with the aircraft rather than flailing forward. This limits secondary impact injuries and keeps limbs clear of the seat structure.

Question 5Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

When should an adult passenger inflate their life vest during a ditching?

  1. While queuing in the aisle before the doors are opened
  2. As soon as the vest is pulled from its pouch
  3. Before fastening the waist strap
  4. After exiting the aircraft at the door Correct answer.

Explanation

Inflating inside the cabin creates a bulky shape that obstructs aisles, exits and underwater movement. Inflation is therefore delayed until the occupant has left the aircraft at the exit.

Question 6Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

What is the correct body position for a crew member descending an evacuation slide?

  1. Lying face down with arms stretched forward
  2. Seated with hands gripping the slide sides and knees bent
  3. Seated, arms crossed over the chest, chin tucked, legs extended Correct answer.
  4. Standing upright with arms raised

Explanation

Sitting with arms crossed and legs extended keeps the centre of gravity low and prevents limbs catching on the slide sides. The chin is tucked to protect the head on landing.

Question 7Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

A passenger's power bank begins smoking in the cabin. Which extinguishing approach is recommended?

  1. Use water or a water-based extinguisher to cool the cells Correct answer.
  2. Apply a dry powder extinguisher only and reseat the passenger
  3. Seal the device in a plastic bag and stow it in an overhead bin
  4. Spray with foam and leave the device in the seat pocket

Explanation

Lithium cell fires arise from thermal runaway, so the priority is removing heat rather than blanketing the fuel. Water or a water-based agent cools the cells and limits propagation; the device must then be monitored closely.

Question 8Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Smothering a small cabin fire with a fire blanket works mainly by removing which element of the fire tetrahedron?

  1. Fuel
  2. Heat
  3. Chemical chain reaction
  4. Oxygen Correct answer.

Explanation

A blanket physically separates the burning material from the surrounding air, cutting off the oxygen supply. Without oxygen the combustion reaction cannot be sustained.

Question 9Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Halon extinguishers are effective on cabin fires primarily because they:

  1. Cool the burning fuel below its ignition temperature
  2. Interrupt the chemical chain reaction of combustion Correct answer.
  3. Form a smothering foam layer over the surface
  4. Physically remove fuel from the fire zone

Explanation

Halon interferes with the chemical reaction that sustains combustion, extinguishing flame very quickly at low concentration. It has limited cooling effect, so hot material can reignite once the agent disperses.

Question 10Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Before attempting to fight an in-flight cabin fire, a crew member should don:

  1. Protective breathing equipment (PBE) Correct answer.
  2. An oxygen mask connected to the cabin system
  3. A passenger smoke hood taken from the nearest stowage
  4. A wet cloth held over the nose and mouth

Explanation

Protective breathing equipment supplies breathable air and protects the eyes and face, allowing the crew member to work in smoke. Cabin oxygen masks are not designed for smoke environments and are not a substitute.

Question 11Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

The sterile flight deck rule requires cabin crew to avoid non-essential contact with the flight deck:

  1. Below 10,000 ft and during other critical phases of flight Correct answer.
  2. During any meal service
  3. Only during the cruise phase
  4. Only while the seatbelt sign is illuminated

Explanation

Sterile flight deck periods cover taxi, takeoff, approach and landing, and any other high-workload phase, because pilot attention must be undivided. Non-essential calls or cockpit entries during these periods are prohibited.

Question 12Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

If physical restraint of a violent passenger becomes necessary, crew should:

  1. Use the maximum force available to end the threat quickly
  2. Release the restraint as soon as the passenger calms for one minute
  3. Use the minimum force necessary and keep the passenger under continuous observation Correct answer.
  4. Restrain the passenger face down and leave them unmonitored

Explanation

Restraint is a last resort applied with the least force needed to control the situation. Continuous monitoring is essential because restrained persons can deteriorate rapidly and require medical attention.

Question 13Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Spare lithium batteries carried by passengers must be:

  1. Stowed in the cargo hold inside a metal container
  2. Packed in checked baggage with the terminals taped
  3. Carried only with the captain's written approval
  4. Kept in the cabin, protected against short circuit Correct answer.

Explanation

Spare lithium cells and power banks must travel in the cabin so that any overheating can be detected and dealt with immediately. Terminals must be protected to prevent short circuits.

Question 14Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

After an emergency descent following depressurisation, why may crew members remove their masks at about 10,000 ft?

  1. Because ambient oxygen partial pressure is then sufficient for normal breathing Correct answer.
  2. Because the aircraft's oxygen supply is exhausted at that altitude
  3. Because the cabin altitude warning resets automatically at that level
  4. Because the masks are only certified for use below that altitude

Explanation

At around 10,000 ft the partial pressure of oxygen in ambient air is adequate for most people to breathe without supplementary oxygen. Mask use above that altitude compensates for the reduced pressure.

Question 15Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

For a single rescuer performing CPR on an adult, the compression-to-ventilation ratio is:

  1. 10:2
  2. 30:2 Correct answer.
  3. 15:2
  4. 5:1

Explanation

Adult single-rescuer CPR uses 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths. Compressions are delivered at a rate of about 100 to 120 per minute with minimal interruption.

Question 16Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

When using an automated external defibrillator, which action is required before delivering a shock?

  1. Ensure that no one is touching the patient Correct answer.
  2. Continue chest compressions while the shock is delivered
  3. Remove the pads and check for a pulse
  4. Hold the patient's shoulders firmly to keep them still

Explanation

Everyone must be clear of the patient during shock delivery so that the current passes through the patient and not through a bystander. The operator gives a clear 'stand clear' instruction before pressing the shock button.

Question 17Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Analysis of turbulence-related injuries shows that most injured occupants were:

  1. Seated in the rear section of the cabin
  2. Wearing lap belts but not shoulder harnesses
  3. Not wearing their seat belt when the aircraft encountered turbulence Correct answer.
  4. Seated in window seats near the wing

Explanation

Unrestrained occupants are thrown against the cabin interior or ceiling when an aircraft hits unexpected turbulence. This is why the seat belt sign is enforced and why occupants are advised to keep belts fastened whenever seated.

Question 18Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

The 'silent review' carried out before takeoff and landing involves:

  1. Reading the passenger manifest without speaking
  2. Mentally rehearsing emergency procedures and crew actions for the coming phase Correct answer.
  3. A period of enforced silence in the cabin during taxi
  4. A quiet visual check of the cabin by each crew member

Explanation

During the silent review each crew member pictures the evacuation sequence, their exit, their commands and their survival actions for the phase ahead. It primes a practised response before any emergency occurs.

Question 19Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Before takeoff, cabin crew must confirm that exit row occupants:

  1. Have paid an exit row supplement
  2. Are willing and physically able to operate the exit Correct answer.
  3. Are seated in the aisle seat only
  4. Are travelling with another adult

Explanation

Exit row seating is only offered to people who are able and willing to open the exit and assist in an evacuation. Crew verify this and rebrief or reseat anyone unsuitable.

Question 20Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Why must cabin crew confirm that a door's slide is disarmed before opening it at the gate?

  1. The door cannot be moved while the slide is armed
  2. The armed slide physically blocks the door handle
  3. An armed slide would deploy and inflate into the jet bridge area Correct answer.
  4. An armed door will not seal the cabin for flight

Explanation

An armed door connected to a slide will deploy the slide as soon as the door is opened, which can injure people on the jet bridge and damage equipment. Cross-checking the arming status before opening prevents this.

Question 21Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Floor proximity escape path lighting is installed mainly to:

  1. Warn passengers when turbulence is expected
  2. Guide occupants towards exits when the cabin is filled with smoke Correct answer.
  3. Indicate seat numbers in a darkened cabin
  4. Provide reading light for passengers on night flights

Explanation

Smoke stratifies at the top of the cabin, so low-level lighting remains visible when overhead lighting is obscured. It leads occupants along the floor to the exits.

Question 22Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Which early sign of hypoxia is particularly hazardous to crew because it can prevent self-recognition?

  1. Chest pain
  2. Euphoria and impaired judgement Correct answer.
  3. Blurred near vision
  4. Tingling in the fingertips

Explanation

Hypoxia often produces a sense of well-being and reduces the ability to assess one's own performance. Crew members may feel entirely normal while making poor decisions, which is why oxygen discipline is enforced.

Question 23Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Why do cabin crew use short, standardised commands during an evacuation?

  1. They are quick, unambiguous and understood by all crew and passengers Correct answer.
  2. They reduce the need to raise the voice in a noisy cabin
  3. They avoid the need to translate instructions into other languages
  4. They are mandated word-for-word by the aircraft manufacturer

Explanation

Standard commands are brief, carry a single meaning and are drilled into both crew and passengers. In a noisy, chaotic cabin this allows instructions to be given and understood instantly.

Question 24Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

The startle effect during an unexpected emergency is best countered by:

  1. Delegating the decision to the senior cabin crew member
  2. Repeated training that builds automatic, practised responses Correct answer.
  3. Following the printed checklist sequence without deviation
  4. Waiting for a command from the flight deck before acting

Explanation

Startle temporarily disrupts reasoning and narrows attention, so pre-learned, repeatedly practised actions are the most reliable way to regain control. Training that builds automatic responses shortens the gap between the event and effective action.

Question 25Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

During a security search following a bomb threat, a searched area should be:

  1. Searched only by the flight crew
  2. Marked or logged so that it is not searched twice Correct answer.
  3. Completed before passengers are allowed to disembark
  4. Left unlocked for a follow-up team

Explanation

Search teams work systematically and record cleared areas so that no space is missed and no effort is duplicated. Known reference points in the threat message are searched first, then the remainder of the aircraft.

Question 26Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

During a rapid decompression at high altitude, a cabin crew member's first action should be to:

  1. Retrieve the emergency checklist from the galley
  2. Reassure passengers before securing their own oxygen
  3. Open the overhead bins to check for falling luggage
  4. Don the nearest oxygen mask and secure themselves Correct answer.

Explanation

At high altitude the crew member has only seconds of useful consciousness, so they must secure their own oxygen supply before helping anyone else. Once masked and restrained, they can assess the cabin and assist passengers. Helping others first risks incapacitation and leaves the cabin without a functioning crew member.

Question 27Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Passengers should be instructed to inflate their life vests:

  1. As soon as the aircraft touches down on water
  2. Only after exiting the aircraft, at the door or in the water Correct answer.
  3. Immediately after donning them in the cabin
  4. Before removing their seat belts during a ditching

Explanation

Inflating a life vest inside a submerged cabin can trap a person against the ceiling and block the exit. Passengers should don and secure the vest in the cabin but inflate it only after they have exited the aircraft. Crew must give this instruction clearly during the ditching briefing.

Question 28Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

The passenger brace position is designed primarily to:

  1. Keep passengers' heads above the seat back for visibility
  2. Allow passengers to reach the aisle quickly after impact
  3. Reduce flailing and secondary impact injuries during a crash Correct answer.
  4. Protect the emergency exits from being blocked by luggage

Explanation

The brace position holds the body firmly against the seat and reduces flailing and secondary impacts during a crash. It also helps keep the torso in a safer alignment for the restraint system. It is not a position for visibility or rapid movement.

Question 29Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Seat backs should be upright and tray tables stowed for landing mainly to:

  1. Make the cabin easier for cleaners to service
  2. Remove obstacles that could slow an emergency evacuation Correct answer.
  3. Allow faster refuelling at the gate
  4. Keep the aisle clear for the meal service

Explanation

Upright seat backs and stowed tray tables clear the space between rows and the aisle, allowing passengers to move quickly to exits. They also reduce injury from impact with hard surfaces. This is why the cabin must be secured before takeoff and landing.

Question 30Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

If an evacuation slide fails to inflate automatically after a door is opened in an emergency, the crew member should:

  1. Jump onto the uninflated slide to hold it open
  2. Close the door and redirect passengers to another exit
  3. Pull the manual inflation handle Correct answer.
  4. Wait for the slide to inflate on its own before commanding evacuation

Explanation

Each door-equipped slide has a manual inflation handle that releases compressed gas if automatic inflation fails. The crew member should pull it immediately while commanding passengers to wait. If the slide still fails, the exit should be assessed and passengers redirected.

Question 31Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

A passenger reports chest pain and is pale and sweating. The crew member should first:

  1. Ask the passenger to walk to the galley for privacy
  2. Administer oxygen, keep the passenger seated, and notify the flight deck Correct answer.
  3. Give the passenger food and drink to raise blood sugar
  4. Wait to see whether the pain resolves before acting

Explanation

Chest pain with pallor and sweating suggests a possible cardiac emergency. The crew should administer oxygen, keep the passenger calm and seated, monitor vital signs, and inform the flight deck so ground medical advice can be sought. An AED should be readily available.

Question 32Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Unexpected severe turbulence occurs during a meal service. The crew member should:

  1. Move to the galley and secure all loose items before sitting down
  2. Secure the cart and themselves in the nearest available seat as soon as possible Correct answer.
  3. Stand in the aisle and hold onto the cart for stability
  4. Continue the service quickly to finish before the seat belt sign

Explanation

When turbulence strikes without warning, the priority is to secure the cart and sit down in the nearest available seat immediately. Trying to finish the service or secure every item first exposes the crew member to injury. The cart should be left secured or held only if it can be done without delay.

Question 33Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Protective breathing equipment (PBE) is provided for cabin crew primarily to:

  1. Filter ordinary cabin air during a long flight
  2. Replace the need for a life vest during a ditching
  3. Provide oxygen to passengers during a decompression
  4. Allow crew to work in smoke or fight a fire for a limited period Correct answer.

Explanation

PBE supplies breathable oxygen and protects the eyes and lungs, allowing a crew member to locate and fight a fire in a smoke-filled cabin for a limited time. It is not a passenger oxygen source. Crew must know its duration and don it before entering smoke.

Question 34Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

Before commanding passengers to evacuate through a floor-level exit, the crew member should:

  1. Collect the passenger manifest from the galley
  2. Announce the evacuation over the public address system first
  3. Check that all passengers have fastened their seat belts
  4. Look through the window to assess outside conditions and confirm the exit is usable Correct answer.

Explanation

The crew member must assess conditions outside the exit, such as fire, debris, water, or a missing slide, before sending passengers out. If the exit is unusable, it must be blocked and passengers redirected. This assessment is quick but essential.

Question 35Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

A crew member receives a threat that a bomb is on board. The primary role of cabin crew is to:

  1. Open all overhead bins to speed the search
  2. Conduct a search of the cabin and report suspicious items to the flight deck Correct answer.
  3. Announce the threat to passengers to enlist their help
  4. Confront the person who made the threat

Explanation

Cabin crew search their assigned areas discreetly and report anything suspicious to the flight deck, following company and flight deck direction. Passengers are not told unless the flight deck decides to do so. Crew should not confront a threat-maker; that is a security matter.

Question 36Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

In a planned ditching, the slide/rafts should be:

  1. Used only as slides, not as rafts
  2. Launched and then moored together after passengers board Correct answer.
  3. Inflated inside the cabin before opening the exits
  4. Deflated to make boarding easier

Explanation

After a ditching, slide/rafts are launched, passengers board, and the rafts are tethered or moored together to keep the group visible and easier to rescue. Inflating inside the cabin is impossible and dangerous. Deflating a raft would defeat its purpose.

Question 37Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

If the flight deck becomes incapacitated, the senior cabin crew member should:

  1. Assume command of the cabin and coordinate with the other crew Correct answer.
  2. Continue the service until landing is imminent
  3. Wait for a passenger with a pilot licence to take control
  4. Open the flight deck door immediately without following procedure

Explanation

The senior cabin crew member assumes command of the cabin and coordinates crew actions, passenger care, and communication with the flight deck according to procedure. Flight deck access is controlled and follows established security procedures. A passenger's licence does not transfer command authority.

Question 38Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

At approximately 35,000 feet, the time of useful consciousness after a rapid decompression is roughly:

  1. 30 to 60 seconds Correct answer.
  2. 10 to 15 seconds
  3. 2 to 3 minutes
  4. 5 to 10 minutes

Explanation

At about 35,000 feet, useful consciousness lasts roughly 30 to 60 seconds after a rapid decompression. At 40,000 feet it falls to about 15 to 20 seconds. This is why crew must don oxygen immediately rather than complete other tasks first.

Question 39Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

A crew member finds a fire in a lavatory waste bin. After donning PBE and using the extinguisher, the next priority is to:

  1. Open the lavatory door fully to ventilate the smoke
  2. Return to the galley to continue the service
  3. Discharge a second extinguisher immediately regardless of conditions
  4. Ensure the fire is completely out and monitor for re-ignition Correct answer.

Explanation

After extinguishing, the crew member must confirm the fire is fully out and monitor the area for re-ignition, keeping the door closed to contain smoke. The flight deck should be notified. Opening the door fully can feed oxygen to smouldering material and spread smoke.

Question 40Aviation Safety and Emergency Procedures

During an evacuation, a passenger attempts to carry a large cabin bag down the slide. The crew member should:

  1. Instruct the passenger to leave the bag and evacuate without it Correct answer.
  2. Take the bag and throw it down the slide first
  3. Block the exit until the bag is stowed in an overhead bin
  4. Allow it if the passenger holds it on their lap

Explanation

Bags can puncture slides, block exits, and injure passengers, so crew must command passengers to leave everything behind. The crew member should repeat clear commands and keep the exit flowing. Throwing bags down the slide also creates hazards.

Question 41First Aid and Medical Emergencies

When performing CPR on an adult, at what rate should chest compressions be delivered?

  1. 100 to 120 per minute Correct answer.
  2. 80 to 100 per minute
  3. 140 to 160 per minute
  4. 60 to 80 per minute

Explanation

Adult CPR compressions are delivered at 100 to 120 per minute, which maintains circulation while allowing the chest to recoil between compressions. Slower rates reduce blood flow, and faster rates usually result in shallow compressions.

Question 42First Aid and Medical Emergencies

What is the main purpose of placing an unconscious but breathing casualty in the recovery position?

  1. To keep the airway open and let fluids drain Correct answer.
  2. To make it easier to check the pupils
  3. To reduce the risk of internal bleeding
  4. To slow the heart rate and reduce pain

Explanation

The recovery position lets the tongue fall forward and allows vomit, blood or other fluids to drain from the mouth, protecting the airway. It is used only for casualties who are breathing normally.

Question 43First Aid and Medical Emergencies

A conscious adult is choking and cannot speak, cough or breathe. What should you do first?

  1. Deliver five back blows Correct answer.
  2. Give two rescue breaths
  3. Offer a glass of water to sip
  4. Lie them flat and raise the legs

Explanation

For a severe choking adult who cannot cough, speak or breathe, up to five sharp back blows between the shoulder blades are given first, followed by abdominal thrusts if the obstruction is not relieved.

Question 44First Aid and Medical Emergencies

In the FAST stroke check, what does the letter 'F' stand for?

  1. Face drooping Correct answer.
  2. Fever
  3. Feeling faint
  4. Fast pulse

Explanation

FAST stands for Face, Arms, Speech and Time. Face drooping is checked by asking the person to smile, and any positive sign requires urgent medical help.

Question 45First Aid and Medical Emergencies

A passenger feels faint and looks pale and sweaty but is fully conscious. What is the most appropriate first action?

  1. Ask them to walk to the galley
  2. Place them in the recovery position
  3. Lay them down and raise their legs Correct answer.
  4. Give them a hot drink

Explanation

Fainting is caused by a brief drop in blood flow to the brain, so lying the casualty flat with the legs raised restores cerebral perfusion. The recovery position is reserved for casualties who are unresponsive but breathing normally.

Question 46First Aid and Medical Emergencies

What is the first measure for a severely bleeding limb wound?

  1. Raise the limb above the head
  2. Apply firm direct pressure Correct answer.
  3. Apply a tourniquet immediately
  4. Wash the wound with antiseptic

Explanation

Direct pressure over the wound is the fastest way to control severe external bleeding and is applied before any other measure. Tourniquets are reserved for cases where pressure fails or the limb cannot be compressed.

Question 47First Aid and Medical Emergencies

What does an automated external defibrillator (AED) do?

  1. It measures blood pressure and oxygen level
  2. It delivers drugs into the bloodstream
  3. It analyses the rhythm and advises a shock Correct answer.
  4. It inflates the lungs to restart breathing

Explanation

An AED analyses the heart rhythm and advises or delivers a shock when a shockable rhythm such as ventricular fibrillation is detected. It does not breathe for the casualty, give drugs or measure vital signs.

Question 48First Aid and Medical Emergencies

Which of the following is a common early sign of hypoxia in a passenger at altitude?

  1. Increased appetite
  2. A slow, strong pulse
  3. Euphoria and poor judgement Correct answer.
  4. Deep, slow breathing

Explanation

Hypoxia often produces euphoria, impaired judgement and a lack of insight, so the casualty may not recognise the problem. Prompt oxygen and, if necessary, descent are required.

Question 49First Aid and Medical Emergencies

You are alone and find an adult unresponsive and not breathing normally. What compression-to-ventilation ratio should you use?

  1. 5:1
  2. 15:2
  3. 10:2
  4. 30:2 Correct answer.

Explanation

Single-rescuer adult CPR uses 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths, repeated until help arrives or the casualty recovers. This ratio maximises circulation while limiting interruptions in compressions.

Question 50First Aid and Medical Emergencies

A passenger develops facial swelling, widespread hives and difficulty breathing after eating peanuts. Which medication is first-line?

  1. Paracetamol
  2. An adrenaline auto-injector Correct answer.
  3. An oral antihistamine tablet
  4. A salbutamol inhaler

Explanation

Intramuscular adrenaline is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis because it reverses airway swelling and raises blood pressure. Antihistamines and inhalers are adjuncts and do not treat the life-threatening features.