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Slovakia Maturita Biology study materials
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Slovakia Maturita Biology practice questions

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Question 1General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation in eukaryotic cells?

  1. Mitochondrion Correct answer.
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Peroxisome
  4. Lysosome

Explanation

The inner mitochondrial membrane houses the electron transport chain and ATP synthase, where proton gradients drive oxidative phosphorylation. Other organelles listed perform different functions and do not carry out this process.

Question 2General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which molecule carries the amino acid to the ribosome during translation?

  1. snRNA
  2. rRNA
  3. mRNA
  4. tRNA Correct answer.

Explanation

Transfer RNA (tRNA) binds a specific amino acid and delivers it to the ribosome, where its anticodon pairs with the mRNA codon. mRNA carries the coding sequence, rRNA is structural and catalytic in the ribosome, and snRNA functions in splicing.

Question 3General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. What happens to the cell?

  1. It remains unchanged.
  2. It shrinks as water leaves the cell. Correct answer.
  3. It divides immediately.
  4. It swells and may burst.

Explanation

In a hypertonic solution the solute concentration outside is higher than inside, so water moves out by osmosis and the cell shrinks. Swelling occurs in a hypotonic solution, not a hypertonic one.

Question 4General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which of these is the monomer that makes up cellulose?

  1. Glucose Correct answer.
  2. Fatty acid
  3. Amino acid
  4. Nucleotide

Explanation

Cellulose is a polysaccharide built from glucose units linked by beta-1,4 glycosidic bonds. Amino acids form proteins, nucleotides form nucleic acids, and fatty acids are components of lipids.

Question 5General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

  1. Selective control of substances entering and leaving the cell Correct answer.
  2. Synthesis of ribosomal RNA
  3. Production of digestive enzymes for the whole body
  4. Storage of genetic information

Explanation

The plasma membrane is selectively permeable and regulates the movement of substances into and out of the cell. Genetic storage occurs in DNA within the nucleus, and rRNA synthesis occurs in the nucleolus.

Question 6General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes align along the cell equator?

  1. Telophase
  2. Prophase
  3. Anaphase
  4. Metaphase Correct answer.

Explanation

In metaphase, chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate at the cell equator before sister chromatids separate. Prophase involves condensation, anaphase involves chromatid separation, and telophase involves nuclear reformation.

Question 7General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix during replication?

  1. DNA polymerase
  2. Ligase
  3. Helicase Correct answer.
  4. Primase

Explanation

Helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary strands, separating them to form the replication fork. DNA polymerase synthesizes new strands, ligase joins fragments, and primase lays down RNA primers.

Question 8General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which type of bond links amino acids together in a polypeptide chain?

  1. Ionic bond
  2. Hydrogen bond
  3. Peptide bond Correct answer.
  4. Glycosidic bond

Explanation

A peptide bond forms between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another, releasing water. Glycosidic bonds link sugars, while hydrogen and ionic bonds contribute to higher-order protein structure.

Question 9General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A student examines a cell and observes a rigid cell wall, a large central vacuole, and chloroplasts. Which conclusion is best supported?

  1. The cell is a fungal cell.
  2. The cell is a plant cell. Correct answer.
  3. The cell is a typical animal cell.
  4. The cell is a bacterial cell.

Explanation

A rigid cell wall, a large central vacuole, and chloroplasts are characteristic features of plant cells. Animal cells lack walls and chloroplasts, bacteria lack chloroplasts and a large central vacuole, and fungi have walls but no chloroplasts.

Question 10General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

In a cross between two heterozygous organisms (Aa x Aa) for a trait showing complete dominance, what proportion of offspring is expected to show the recessive phenotype?

  1. 3/4
  2. 1/4 Correct answer.
  3. All offspring
  4. 1/2

Explanation

The cross Aa x Aa yields genotypes in a 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa ratio. Only the aa genotype expresses the recessive phenotype, which is one quarter of the offspring.

Question 11General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which process produces genetic variation through the exchange of segments between homologous chromosomes?

  1. Translation
  2. Binary fission
  3. Mitosis
  4. Crossing over Correct answer.

Explanation

Crossing over occurs during prophase I of meiosis, when non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange segments, creating new allele combinations. Mitosis and binary fission produce genetically identical cells, and translation is protein synthesis.

Question 12General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which statement about enzymes is correct?

  1. Enzymes lower the activation energy by stabilizing the transition state. Correct answer.
  2. Enzymes are consumed irreversibly during the reaction they catalyze.
  3. Enzymes increase the activation energy of reactions.
  4. Enzymes work equally well at any pH and temperature.

Explanation

Enzymes are catalysts that lower the activation energy, often by stabilizing the transition state, which speeds up the reaction. They are not consumed and are sensitive to conditions such as pH and temperature.

Question 13General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

In a DNA molecule, if one strand has the sequence 5'-ATGC-3', what is the sequence of the complementary strand?

  1. 3'-CGTA-5'
  2. 3'-UACG-5'
  3. 3'-ATGC-5'
  4. 3'-TACG-5' Correct answer.

Explanation

Complementary base pairing places A with T and G with C, so ATGC pairs with TACG. The strands are antiparallel, so the complementary strand runs 3'-TACG-5'.

Question 14General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which stage of aerobic cellular respiration produces the most ATP per glucose molecule?

  1. Pyruvate oxidation
  2. Oxidative phosphorylation Correct answer.
  3. Glycolysis
  4. Krebs cycle

Explanation

Most ATP is produced by oxidative phosphorylation, where the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis generate roughly 26 to 28 ATP per glucose. Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle yield only small amounts directly.

Question 15General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which of the following correctly describes the role of the nucleolus?

  1. It packages proteins into vesicles for secretion.
  2. It controls the entry of substances into the nucleus.
  3. It contains the enzymes for the Krebs cycle.
  4. It assembles ribosomal subunits. Correct answer.

Explanation

The nucleolus is a region within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA is transcribed and ribosomal subunits are assembled. Protein packaging occurs in the Golgi, Krebs cycle enzymes are in mitochondria, and nuclear pores control entry.

Question 16General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A mutation changes a single DNA base but the resulting protein has the same amino acid sequence. What is this type of mutation called?

  1. Missense mutation
  2. Silent mutation Correct answer.
  3. Frameshift mutation
  4. Nonsense mutation

Explanation

A silent mutation changes a base but, due to the degeneracy of the genetic code, the same amino acid is encoded. Frameshift mutations shift the reading frame, nonsense mutations create a stop codon, and missense mutations change one amino acid.

Question 17General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which property of water allows it to dissolve many ionic and polar substances?

  1. Its polarity and ability to form hydrogen bonds Correct answer.
  2. Its high boiling point only
  3. Its lack of electrical charge
  4. Its low molecular mass

Explanation

Water is a polar molecule that forms hydrogen bonds, allowing it to surround and separate ions and polar molecules, making it a good solvent. This property arises from polarity, not from low mass or lack of charge.

Question 18General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which structure regulates the passage of substances between the cytoplasm and the interior of the nucleus?

  1. Ribosome
  2. Centriole
  3. Cell wall
  4. Nuclear pores Correct answer.

Explanation

Nuclear pores are openings in the nuclear envelope that control the movement of molecules such as RNA and proteins between the nucleus and cytoplasm. The cell wall, ribosomes, and centrioles serve other functions.

Question 19General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which of the following best describes the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

  1. Prokaryotes contain mitochondria while eukaryotes lack them.
  2. Prokaryotes have a nucleus while eukaryotes do not.
  3. Eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles while prokaryotes generally do not. Correct answer.
  4. Eukaryotes lack DNA while prokaryotes contain DNA.

Explanation

Eukaryotic cells are characterized by membrane-bound organelles, including a true nucleus, whereas prokaryotes lack these structures. Both cell types contain DNA, and prokaryotes do not have mitochondria.

Question 20General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A protein is synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum and then modified and packaged for secretion. Which sequence of organelles does it most likely follow?

  1. Golgi apparatus -> rough ER -> lysosome -> nucleus
  2. Nucleus -> lysosome -> Golgi apparatus -> plasma membrane
  3. Rough ER -> mitochondrion -> Golgi apparatus -> vacuole
  4. Rough ER -> Golgi apparatus -> secretory vesicle -> plasma membrane Correct answer.

Explanation

Secretory proteins are synthesized on the rough ER, transported to the Golgi for modification and sorting, then packaged into vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane for release. The other sequences place organelles in incorrect functional order.

Question 21General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

  1. G1 phase
  2. S phase Correct answer.
  3. M phase
  4. G2 phase

Explanation

DNA replication takes place during the S (synthesis) phase of interphase, when each chromosome is duplicated. G1 and G2 are gap phases, and M phase is when the duplicated chromosomes are separated.

Question 22General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

  1. Both processes consume oxygen and release carbon dioxide.
  2. Respiration produces glucose that is then used in photosynthesis.
  3. Both processes occur only in the dark.
  4. Photosynthesis stores energy in glucose, while respiration releases energy from glucose. Correct answer.

Explanation

Photosynthesis uses light energy to build glucose, storing energy, while cellular respiration breaks down glucose to release usable energy. They are complementary but not identical in their gas exchange, and respiration does not produce glucose for photosynthesis.

Question 23General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A mutation inserts one nucleotide into the coding region of a gene. What is the most likely consequence?

  1. Immediate formation of a stop codon at the mutation site
  2. No change because the genetic code is degenerate
  3. A shift in the reading frame altering all downstream amino acids Correct answer.
  4. A single amino acid substitution with no other changes

Explanation

Inserting one nucleotide shifts the reading frame, so every codon after the insertion is read differently, usually producing a nonfunctional protein. Degeneracy protects against some substitutions but not against frameshifts.

Question 24General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which observation would best support the conclusion that a reaction is catalyzed by an enzyme rather than occurring spontaneously?

  1. The reaction rate increases sharply at a specific pH and then decreases. Correct answer.
  2. The reaction produces a colored product.
  3. The reaction rate increases with temperature without limit.
  4. The reaction proceeds equally fast at all substrate concentrations.

Explanation

Enzymes have optimal pH and temperature ranges; a sharp peak in rate followed by a decline indicates a protein catalyst that denatures or loses activity outside its optimum. Unbounded temperature dependence and constant rate across all substrate concentrations are not characteristic of enzymatic catalysis.

Question 25General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Two genes are located close together on the same chromosome. What is the expected effect on their inheritance?

  1. They assort independently in all cases.
  2. They cannot be expressed in the same cell.
  3. They tend to be inherited together unless crossing over separates them. Correct answer.
  4. They are always inherited together with no exceptions.

Explanation

Genes close together on the same chromosome are linked and tend to be inherited together; crossing over during meiosis can recombine them, with recombination frequency decreasing as distance decreases. They are not absolutely inseparable, nor do they assort fully independently.

Question 26General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which organelle is the primary site of ATP production by oxidative phosphorylation in a eukaryotic cell?

  1. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  2. The mitochondrion Correct answer.
  3. The Golgi apparatus
  4. The lysosome

Explanation

The inner mitochondrial membrane carries the electron transport chain and ATP synthase, which together generate most cellular ATP by oxidative phosphorylation. Other organelles listed perform synthesis, digestion or detoxification rather than bulk ATP production.

Question 27General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What is the expected effect on the cell?

  1. It loses its haemoglobin through active transport
  2. It shrinks as water leaves the cell
  3. It swells as water enters the cell Correct answer.
  4. It keeps the same volume because water cannot cross the membrane

Explanation

In a hypotonic solution the solute concentration outside the cell is lower than inside, so water moves in by osmosis across the semipermeable membrane. The resulting net influx causes the cell to swell and, in the case of an animal cell without a wall, potentially to burst.

Question 28General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which statement best describes the role of ATP in cells?

  1. It forms the structural backbone of the plasma membrane
  2. It catalyses the hydrolysis of proteins in the cytoplasm
  3. It transfers usable energy by releasing a phosphate group Correct answer.
  4. It stores genetic information in its nitrogenous base

Explanation

ATP is a short-term energy carrier: hydrolysis of its terminal phosphoanhydride bond releases energy and leaves ADP and inorganic phosphate, and this energy drives endergonic reactions. It is not a genetic store, a membrane building block or a protease.

Question 29General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A diploid organism has the genotype AaBb, with the two genes on different chromosomes. Which gamete genotypes can it produce, assuming independent assortment?

  1. AB, Ab, aB and ab in equal proportions Correct answer.
  2. Only AB and ab
  3. Only Aa and Bb
  4. AB and ab in a 3:1 ratio

Explanation

Genes on different chromosomes assort independently during meiosis, so each allele of one gene combines randomly with each allele of the other. Four gamete types (AB, Ab, aB, ab) are therefore formed in equal proportions.

Question 30General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which feature distinguishes the secondary structure of a protein from its tertiary structure?

  1. Tertiary structure is formed only by hydrogen bonds between backbone atoms
  2. Secondary structure consists of local regular arrangements such as alpha helices and beta sheets Correct answer.
  3. Tertiary structure describes the sequence of amino acids encoded by a gene
  4. Secondary structure involves covalent bonds between distant amino acids

Explanation

Secondary structure refers to local, repeating folding patterns such as alpha helices and beta pleated sheets, stabilised mainly by hydrogen bonds along the backbone. Tertiary structure is the overall three-dimensional fold of the whole chain, held by interactions between side chains.

Question 31General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, what is the main fate of the electrons released when water is split?

  1. They are stored in the thylakoid lumen as molecular oxygen
  2. They are transferred directly to carbon dioxide to form glucose
  3. They are used to reduce NADP+ to NADPH Correct answer.
  4. They are used to phosphorylate ADP into ATP

Explanation

Photosystem II extracts electrons from water and passes them along the electron transport chain, and photosystem I ultimately transfers them to NADP+, forming NADPH. This NADPH, together with ATP, supplies reducing power and energy for the Calvin cycle.

Question 32General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A cell is treated with a drug that blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle. At which point will the cell cycle most likely arrest?

  1. During the S phase
  2. During metaphase of mitosis Correct answer.
  3. During the G1 checkpoint
  4. During the G2 phase

Explanation

The spindle is required to attach to kinetochores and align chromosomes at the metaphase plate; without it, the spindle assembly checkpoint prevents anaphase. The cell therefore arrests in metaphase (often described as a prometaphase/metaphase block).

Question 33General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which statement correctly describes the behaviour of a competitive inhibitor of an enzyme?

  1. It lowers the maximum reaction rate without affecting substrate affinity
  2. It binds to the active site and its effect is reduced by increasing substrate concentration Correct answer.
  3. It binds to an allosteric site and permanently denatures the enzyme
  4. It increases the activation energy of the catalysed reaction

Explanation

A competitive inhibitor resembles the substrate and occupies the active site, so raising substrate concentration outcompetes it and restores the reaction rate. It increases the apparent Km but leaves the maximum rate unchanged at saturating substrate.

Question 34General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

Which molecule is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain in aerobic respiration?

  1. FAD
  2. NAD+
  3. Pyruvate
  4. Oxygen Correct answer.

Explanation

Oxygen accepts electrons at the end of the respiratory chain and combines with protons to form water, which keeps electrons flowing through the complexes. NAD+ and FAD are electron carriers that deliver electrons to the chain rather than accept them at its end.

Question 35General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

A segment of a coding strand of DNA reads 5'-TAC GGA-3'. Using the standard genetic code, what amino acid sequence does the corresponding mRNA encode?

  1. Methionine – proline Correct answer.
  2. Methionine – glycine
  3. Tyrosine – glycine
  4. Tyrosine – proline

Explanation

The mRNA is complementary and antiparallel to the template strand; for a coding strand of 5'-TAC GGA-3' the mRNA is 5'-UAC GGA-3'. UAC codes for methionine and GGA codes for glycine, giving methionine–glycine.

Question 36General biology, cell biology and molecular biology

In a population at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, a recessive allele has a frequency of 0.3. What proportion of the population is expected to be heterozygous?

  1. 0.49
  2. 0.09
  3. 0.21
  4. 0.42 Correct answer.

Explanation

With q = 0.3, p = 0.7, and the heterozygote frequency is 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42. The other values correspond to q², p², or a misapplied product rather than the heterozygote term.

Question 37Genetics and heredity

Which molecule carries the genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome during protein synthesis?

  1. DNA
  2. rRNA
  3. mRNA Correct answer.
  4. tRNA

Explanation

Messenger RNA is transcribed from DNA in the nucleus and carries the sequence of codons to the ribosome, where it directs the order of amino acids. tRNA brings amino acids and rRNA is part of the ribosome itself, while DNA stays in the nucleus.

Question 38Genetics and heredity

A cross between two heterozygous pea plants (Aa × Aa) produces offspring. What phenotypic ratio is expected for a trait showing complete dominance?

  1. 1:2:1
  2. 1:1
  3. 9:3:3:1
  4. 3:1 Correct answer.

Explanation

A monohybrid cross of two heterozygotes yields genotypes AA, Aa, Aa, aa in a 1:2:1 ratio. Because the dominant allele masks the recessive one, the phenotypes appear as 3 dominant to 1 recessive.

Question 39Genetics and heredity

What is the term for the observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an organism?

  1. Phenotype Correct answer.
  2. Locus
  3. Allele
  4. Genotype

Explanation

Phenotype refers to the expressed traits of an organism, resulting from the interaction of its genotype with the environment. Genotype is the underlying genetic makeup, an allele is a variant of a gene, and a locus is the position of a gene on a chromosome.

Question 40Genetics and heredity

Which of the following describes the structure of a DNA molecule?

  1. A double helix of two antiparallel strands held together by hydrogen bonds Correct answer.
  2. A double helix of two parallel strands joined by ionic bonds
  3. A single strand of nucleotides linked by peptide bonds
  4. A branched chain of amino acids folded into a helix

Explanation

DNA consists of two polynucleotide strands running in opposite (antiparallel) directions and wound into a double helix. The two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.

Question 41Genetics and heredity

In humans, a female normally has which sex chromosome constitution?

  1. XXY
  2. XO
  3. XY
  4. XX Correct answer.

Explanation

Human females typically carry two X chromosomes (XX), while males carry one X and one Y. The presence of the Y chromosome determines male development.

Question 42Genetics and heredity

Which of these is a correct example of a base pair in double-stranded DNA?

  1. Guanine with thymine
  2. Adenine with cytosine
  3. Adenine with thymine Correct answer.
  4. Guanine with uracil

Explanation

In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds, and guanine pairs with cytosine through three. Uracil occurs in RNA, not in DNA.

Question 43Genetics and heredity

What is a mutation?

  1. The movement of a protein across a membrane
  2. A temporary change in gene expression caused by temperature
  3. The normal exchange of alleles during meiosis
  4. A heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA Correct answer.

Explanation

A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence that can be inherited if it occurs in germ cells. It may arise spontaneously or be induced by mutagens and can alter the resulting protein.

Question 44Genetics and heredity

A woman with blood group A (genotype IAi) and a man with blood group B (genotype IBi) have children. Which blood group is possible in their offspring?

  1. Only O
  2. Only AB
  3. A, B, AB or O Correct answer.
  4. Only A or B

Explanation

Each parent can pass either the IA or i allele, or the IB or i allele, respectively. Combining these gives IAIB (AB), IAi (A), IBi (B) and ii (O), so all four blood groups are possible.

Question 45Genetics and heredity

In a dihybrid cross between two individuals heterozygous for both traits (AaBb × AaBb) with independent assortment, what proportion of offspring is expected to show both recessive phenotypes?

  1. 3/16
  2. 1/4
  3. 9/16
  4. 1/16 Correct answer.

Explanation

Each trait independently shows a 3:1 phenotypic ratio, so the probability of both recessive phenotypes is 1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16. This corresponds to the double-recessive class of the 9:3:3:1 ratio.

Question 46Genetics and heredity

What is the role of tRNA in translation?

  1. It separates the two DNA strands before replication
  2. It copies the DNA template into mRNA
  3. It carries specific amino acids to the ribosome by matching its anticodon to the mRNA codon Correct answer.
  4. It forms the peptide bond between amino acids

Explanation

Each tRNA molecule has an anticodon that base-pairs with a complementary codon on mRNA and carries the corresponding amino acid. This ensures amino acids are added in the order specified by the mRNA.

Question 47Genetics and heredity

A man with genotype Aa marries a woman with genotype aa for a recessive disorder. What is the probability that a child will be affected, assuming the disorder is recessive?

  1. 0
  2. 1/4
  3. 1/2 Correct answer.
  4. 3/4

Explanation

The father can pass either A or a with equal probability, and the mother always passes a. A child is affected only with genotype aa, which occurs in half the offspring.

Question 48Genetics and heredity

Which process produces haploid gametes from diploid cells?

  1. Fertilization
  2. Mitosis
  3. Binary fission
  4. Meiosis Correct answer.

Explanation

Meiosis involves two successive divisions that halve the chromosome number, producing haploid gametes with genetic variation. Mitosis maintains the diploid number, and fertilization restores it.

Question 49Genetics and heredity

What is the main significance of crossing over during prophase I of meiosis?

  1. It doubles the chromosome number
  2. It replicates the DNA before division
  3. It separates sister chromatids
  4. It exchanges segments between homologous chromosomes, creating new allele combinations Correct answer.

Explanation

Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes and recombines alleles, increasing genetic variation in the gametes. It does not change chromosome number or replicate DNA.

Question 50Genetics and heredity

A woman is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder (X^A X^a) and her partner is unaffected (X^A Y). What proportion of their sons is expected to be affected?

  1. All sons
  2. 1/4
  3. 0
  4. 1/2 Correct answer.

Explanation

Sons inherit their Y from the father and one X from the mother. Half of the mother's X chromosomes carry the recessive allele, so half of the sons will be affected.